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MCQs Chapter 6 (Nursing)

5000+ MCQs for Nursing Students and Nursing Interviews and Other Nursing Plateforms like NTS, HAAD, DHA, MOH, and other Exames.

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MCQs no 251 t- 300

  1. High levels of uric acid in the blood can result in:
    1. An autoimmune response
    2. Sharp needle-like crystals of monosodium urate deposited around the joints
    3. Osteoarthritis
    4. Rheumatoid arthritis
  2. The joint which is commonly affected first in gout is the:
    1. Thumb
    2. Elbow
    3. Toe
    4. Knee
  3. A client with rheumatoid arthritis may reveal which of the following assessment data?
    1. Heberden’s nodes
    2. Morning stiffness no longer than 30 minutes
    3. Asymmetric joint swelling
    4. Swan neck deformities of the hand
  4. Heberden’s nodes are characteristic of:
    1. Osteoarthritis
    2. Osteomyelitis
    3. Rheumatoid arthritis
    4. Conjunctivitis
  5. Rheumatoid arthritis is characterised by:
    1. Swan neck deformities
    2. Symmetrical joint swelling
    3. Asymmetrical joint swelling
    4. Heberden’s nodes
  6. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis states, ‘the only time I am without pain is when I lie in bed perfectly still’. During the convalescent stage, the nurse should encourage:
    1. Active joint flexion and extension
    2. Continued immobility until pain subsides
    3. Range of motion exercises twice daily
    4. Flexion exercises three times daily
  7. What are the advantages of using a pen-like insulin delivery device?
    1. Shorter injection time
    2. Accurate dose delivery
    3. Lower cost with reusable insulin cartridges
    4. Use of smaller gauge needle
  8. Insulin is:
    1. A type of fat
    2. A carbohydrate
    3. A hormone
    4. A food source
  9. The major complication of diabetes is:
    1. Bone disease
    2. Retinopathy
    3. Cardiovascular disease
    4. Lung disease
  10. Kussmaul respirations are associated with:
    1. Diabetic ketoacidosis
    2. Infection
    3. Trauma
    4. None of the above
  11. Which of the following is the most common cause of goitre?
    1. Iodine deficiency
    2. Iodine excess
    3. Kwashiorkor
    4. Insulin deficiency
  12. Gestational hyperthyroidism refers to:
    1. Hyperthyroidism that occurs on an annual basis
    2. Hyperthyroidism occurring as a result of a road traffic collision
    3. Hyperthyroidism occurring during pregnancy
    4. Hyperthyroidism occurring as a result of the menopause
  13. The thyroid gland produces:
    1. Insulin and thyroxine
    2. Thyroxine and parathormone
    3. Parathormone and insulin
    4. Thyroxine and triiodine
  14. The most common cause of hyperthyroidism is:
    1. Graves’ disease
    2. A toxic nodular goitre
    3. A solitary toxic thyroid adenoma
    4. Thyroiditis
  15. Which of the following is a male characteristic of erectile dysfunction?
    1. Failure to achieve an erection from the outset of sexual activity
    2. Being able to attain an erection but losing tumescence prior to penetration
    3. Losing tumescence during penetration
    4. All of the above
  16. Performance anxiety refers to:
    1. Fear of having sex in an unfamiliar place
    2. Fear of criticism of the sexual partner
    3. Fear of failing to achieve a sustained erection
    4. Fear of not having an orgasm
  17. Another name for sildenafil is:
    1. Viagra
    2. Cialis
    3. Ventolin
    4. Tolbutamide
  18. Sildenafil is in a class of medications called:
    1. Phospholipids
    2. Phosphodiesterase (PDE) inhibitors
    3. Phosphodiesterase (PDE) exhibitors
    4. All of the above
  19. Which of the following is classed as a bacterial STI?
    1. Herpes
    2. Genital warts
    3. Chlamydia
    4. HIV
  20. The most common bacterial STI is:
    1. Chlamydia
    2. Gonorrhoea
    3. Syphilis
    4. HIV
  21. If left untreated in women, chlamydia can lead to:
    1. Hepatitis
    2. Peripheral vascular disease
    3. Pelvic inflammatory disease
    4. Uterine fibroids
  22. Those at higher risk of being infected with chlamydia are:
    1. Men under 25 years
    2. Women under 25 years
    3. Men and women under 25 years
    4. Men who have sex with men
  23. Menarche is said to occur when:
    1. The woman’s periods stop
    2. The woman’s periods commence
    3. There is spontaneous heavy bleeding
    4. There are irregular periods
  24. Primary dysmenorrhoea usually occurs:
    1. Alongside some form of pelvic abnormality
    2. When the woman has carcinoma of the cervix
    3. In young females who do not have pelvic pathology
    4. In postmenopausal women
  25. The treatment of dysmenorrhea aims to:
    1. Provide symptomatic relief
    2. Provide relief in addressing the underlying processes that cause symptoms
    3. Provide symptomatic relief and relief in addressing the underlying processes
    4. None of the above
  26. Leukotrienes are:
    1. Another name for white blood cells
    2. Inflammatory mediators
    3. Cancer markers
    4. Red blood cells
  27. The most common disorders seen by healthcare professionals are:
    1. Cardiovascular disorders
    2. Cancers
    3. Skin disorders
    4. Sexually transmitted infections
  28. Atopic eczema can start as early as:
    1. 4 days of age
    2. 4 weeks of age
    3. 4 months of age
    4. None of the above
  29. The term pruritus refers to:
    1. Infection
    2. Vulval pain
    3. A viral condition
    4. Itching
  30. There is no cure for eczema so treatment aims to:
    1. Prevent cross-infection
    1. Control or ease symptoms
    2. Prevent dehydration
    3. Encourage tissue regeneration
  31. Common sites for psoriasis include:
    1. The palate, nasal septum and knees
    2. Knees, nape of the neck and elbows
    3. Elbows, knees and scalp
    4. Scalp, eyebrows and gluteal cleft
  32. Most cases of psoriasis first present before the age of:
    1. 3 years
    2. 13 years
    3. 15 years
    4. 35 years
  33. Coal tar preparations have:
    1. A anti-inflammatory effect
    2. An antipruritic and anti-inflammatory effect
    3. An analgesic and antibacterial effect
    4. An analgesic, anti-inflammatory, antipruritic and antibacterial effect
  34. Diagnosis of psoriasis is made on:
    1. Blood results
    2. Biopsy
    3. Biopsy and blood results
    4. Clinical findings
  35. The most serious type of skin cancer is:
    1. Basal cell carcinoma
    2. Melanoma
    3. Sarcoma
    4. Squamous cell carcinoma
  36. The one key risk factor for melanoma is:
    1. Age
    2. Gender
    3. Ethnicity
    4. Ultraviolet light
  37. The most common characteristics of melanoma are:
    1. A fast-growing, asymmetrical, raised lesion
    2. A slow-growing, asymmetrical, flat lesion
    3. A slow-growing, symmetrical, flat lesion
    4. A slow-growing, symmetrical, bleeding lesion
  38. Dermatoscopy refers to:
    1. The examination of skin lesion with a dermatoscope
    2. The examination and biopsy of a skin lesion
    3. The removal of a skin lesion
    4. The debridement of a skin lesion
  39. Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of a client with a cancer of the lung?
    1. Air hunger
    2. Exertional dyspnoea
    3. Cough with night sweats
    4. Persistent changing cough
  40. The TNM staging system refers to:
    1. Type, Node and Mode
    2. Tumour, Node and Metastases
    3. Type, Node and Metastases
    4. Tumour, Node and Mode
  41. Nearly all lung cancers develop in:
    1. The nasopharynx
    2. The Eustachian tube
    3. The bronchial tissue
    4. The pleura
  42. The term cytology refers to:
    1. The study of cells
    2. The study of cancer
    3. The study of sputum
    4. The study of nerves
  43. Metastases refer to:
    1. The spread of cancer or disease from one organ or part to another not directly connected with it
    2. The spread of cancer within the diseased organ
    3. A type of chemotherapy
    4. A treatment option
  44. Stage 3 cancer of the cervix is:
    1. Cancer cells within the cervix only
    2. Cancer that has spread to the vagina only
    3. Cancer that has spread to areas such as the lower aspect of the vagina or tissues to the sides of the pelvic area
    4. None of the above
  45. The HPV vaccine is offered routinely to:
    1. Girls and boys aged 12–13 years
    2. Girls aged 12–13 years
    3. Boys aged 12–13 years
    4. Children under 10 years
  46. Colposcopy is an instrument used to:
    1. Visualise the fallopian tubes
    2. Remove genital warts
    3. Visualise the surface of the cervix
    4. Visualise the uterus
  47. The greatest risk for prostate cancer is:
    1. Ethnicity
    2. Lifestyle
    3. Age
    4. Social status
  48. PSA is:
    1. A protein produced by the prostate gland
    2. A vitamin produced by the prostate gland
    3. A toxin produced by the prostate gland
    4. A type of test to determine the size of the prostate gland
  49. Mutations in BRCA2:
    1. Act as protective genes in reducing the risk of developing prostate cancer
    2. Are irrelevant in prostate cancer
    3. Increase the risk of developing prostate cancer
    4. Cause the prostate gland to shrink
  50. The Gleason score:
    1. Predicates the likelihood of a man developing metastases
    2. Is a measure used to assess the amount of PSA in the blood
    3. Helps to evaluate the prognosis of men with prostate cancer
    4. Is used to assess pain

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