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MCQs Chapter 5 (Nursing)

5000+ MCQs for Nursing Students and Nursing Interviews and Other Nursing Plateforms like NTS, HAAD, DHA, MOH, and other Exames.

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MCQs no 201 t- 250

  1. The term ischaemia refers to:
    1. Restriction of blood supply to the heart
    2. Restriction of blood supply to tissues
    3. Restriction of blood supply to the liver
    4. Restriction of blood supply to the kidneys
  2. Which of the following is the most common symptom of myocardial infarction?
    1. Haemorrhage
    2. Oedema
    3. Dyspnoea
    4. Chest pain
  3. What is the primary reason for administering morphine to a client with an MI?
    1. To sedate the person
    2. To decrease the person’s anxiety
    3. To decrease oxygen demand on the person’s heart
    4. To decrease the person’s pain
  4. Which if the following conditions is most commonly responsible for myocardial infarction?
    1. Coronary artery thrombosis
    2. Diabetes mellitus
    3. Renal failure
    4. Cerebrovascular accident
  5. Ascites refers to:
    1. A reduction of blood supply to the myocardium
    2. The build-up of fluid in the space between the lining of the abdomen and abdominal organs
    3. The inability of the bladder to empty completely
    4. An infection of the pericardium
  6. The severity of heart failure can be classified using:
    1. The Royal Brompton Classification
    2. The Bow Street Classification
    3. The Broad Green Heart Failure Index
    4. The New York Heart Association Functional Classification
  7. The primary aim of treatment in heart failure is to:
    1. Increase the work of the heart preload and afterload
    2. Reduce the work of the heart preload and afterload
    3. Reduce the work of the lungs
    4. Reduce glomerular filtration rate
  8. The acronym CPAP refers to:
    1. Continuous positive airway pressure
    2. Continuous potential airway pressure
    3. Continuous positive air pressure
    4. Continuous positive airway potential
  9. Angina is classically defined as:
    1. A sharp pain that radiates across the legs, sometimes down the arm, into the neck, jaw or teeth, or into the back
    2. A crushing pain felt in the back, sometimes down the leg, into the neck, jaw or teeth, or into the back
    3. A crushing pain that radiates across the chest, sometimes down the arm, into the neck, jaw or teeth, or into the back
    4. A crushing pain across the chest, sometimes down the head, into the back, jaw or teeth, or into the leg
  10. What causes unstable angina?
    1. Atherosclerosis reducing oxygen
    2. Atherosclerosis which ruptures, a thrombus forms on top, often leading to complete occlusion
    3. Atherosclerosis which ruptures, a thrombus forms on top, often leading to incomplete occlusion
    4. Atherosclerosis which leads to inability of lungs to expand
  11. What are desired effects of GTN?
    1. Vasodilation: dilation of large veins resulting in increased afterload and decreased cardiac output
    2. Vasodilation: dilation of small veins resulting in decreased preload and decreased blood pressure
    3. Vasodilation: dilation of the large veins resulting in decreased preload and decreased cardiac output
    4. Vasoconstriction: constriction of large veins resulting in decreased afterload and decreased cardiac output
  12. Which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect that meningitis has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation?
    1. Haemorrhagic skin rash
    2. Pulmonary oedema
    3. Pallor
    4. Haemoptysis
  13. During the acute stage of meningitis, a patient is restless and irritable. Which of the following would be most appropriate to institute?
    1. Limiting conversation with the patient
    2. Keeping unnecessary noise to a minimum
    3. Distract the person by putting on television
    4. Carry out any treatment quickly
  14. Bacterial meningitis can progress to:
    1. Permanent brain damage and neurological problems
    2. Permanent liver damage, hearing loss and neurological problems
    3. Permanent brain damage, hearing loss and neurological problems
    4. Permanent liver damage, speech loss and neurological problems
  15. What is meningitis?
    1. Inflammation of the middle ear
    2. Inflammation of the joints
    3. An infection of the gastrointestinal tract
    4. An inflammation of the membranes that cover the brain and the spinal cord
  16. A patient is admitted with a subarachnoid haemorrhage complaining of severe headache, nuchal rigidity and projectile vomiting. Lumbar puncture would be contraindicated in this patient in which of the following circumstances?
    1. Vomiting continues
    2. Intracranial pressure is increased
    3. The person needs mechanical ventilation
    4. Blood is anticipated in the cerebrospinal fluid
  17. Which of the following is considered normal for intracranial pressure?
    1. 0–15 mmHg
    2. 25 mmHg
    3. 35–45 mmHg
    4. 120/80 mmHg
  18. Which of the following signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure after head trauma would appear first?
    1. Bradycardia
    2. Large amounts of very dilute urine
    3. Restlessness and confusion
    4. Widened pulse pressure
  19. The common cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is:
    1. Infection
    2. Infarction
    3. Aneurysm
    4. Hypotension
  20. Which of the following would be the most appropriate first-line treatment for a person with primary generalised tonic- clonic seizures?
    1. Digoxin
    2. Sodium valproate
    3. Phenytoin
    4. Diazepam
  21. Which of the following would be the most appropriate first-line treatment for a person with focal seizures?
    1. Carbamazepine
    2. Phenytoin
    3. Diazepam
    4. Sodium valproat
  22. Which of the following treatments should be used first for the management of prolonged or repeated seizures in the community?
    1. Oral diazepam
    2. Buccal midazolam
    3. Intravenous lorazepam
    4. Rectal diazepam
  23. Reflux is an alternative word for:
    1. Vomiting
    2. Nose bleed
    3. Regurgitation
    4. Acid erosion
  24. What is the cure for gastro-oesophageal reflux disease?
    1. Weight loss
    2. Lifestyle changes
    3. Avoiding all acidic fluids
    4. There is no cure for gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
  25. Barrett’s oesophagus is a potentially serious complication of:
    1. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
    2. Stomach cancer
    3. Liver cancer
    4. None of the above
  26. Who are the most likely to suffer from gastro-oesophageal reflux disease?
    1. White males
    2. Pregnant women
    3. People with sickle cell anaemia
    4. All of the above
  27. Diverticula are:
    1. Small ruptures in the wall of the digestive tract
    2. Small pouches in the wall of the mouth
    3. Small pouches in the wall of the digestive tract
    4. Large pouches in the wall of the digestive tract
  28. Diverticulitis most common affects:
    1. The anus
    2. The sigmoid colon
    3. The ascending colon
    4. The transverse colon
  29. Diverticulosis is thought to be caused by:
    1. Increased pressure on the intestinal wall from inside the intestine
    2. Increased pressure on the wall of the stomach
    3. Decreased pressure on the intestinal wall of the stomach
    4. Increased pressure on the wall of the anus
  30. Diverticulosis in developed countries is largely due to:
    1. Environmental factors
    2. Socioeconomic factors
    3. A diet low in fibre
    4. A diet high in fibre
  31. Which of the flowing is an osmotic agent used for constipation?
    1. Aracis oil
    2. Marcogols
    3. Ispaghula husk
    4. Docusate sodium
  32. Constipation can occur in:
    1. Only in those over 60 years
    2. Babies, children and adults
    3. Those who are immobile
    4. Children and adults only
  33. Faecal impaction refers to:
    1. Hard dry stools collecting in the rectum
    2. Loose stools collecting in the rectum
    3. Hard dry stools collecting in the ascending colon
    4. Hard dry stools collecting in the descending colon
  34. Constipation is usually caused by:
    1. Cancer
    2. Diverticulosis
    3. Appendicitis
    4. The slow movement of stool through the colon
  35. Osteoarthritis:
    1. Is a common condition
    2. Is the most common type of arthritis
    3. Affects the joints
    4. All of the above
  36. In osteoarthritis, cartilage breaks down, causing bones to rub together. This results in all of the following, except:
    1. Redness and warmth over the affected joint
    2. Pain
    3. Stiffness
    4. Loss of motion
  37. As cartilage deteriorates in osteoarthritis, bone spurs can develop and grow near the end of the bone in the affected joint. Bone spurs are also called:
    1. Osteomyelitis
    2. Osteopenia
    3. Osteoporosis
    4. Osteophytes
  38. The type of osteoarthritis which is caused by obesity or an injury to the affected joint is known as:
    1. Primary arthritis
    2. Secondary arthritis
    3. Self-induced arthritis
    4. None of the above
  39. While performing a physical assessment of a male client with gout of the great toe, the nurse should also assess for additional tophi (urate deposits) on the:
    1. Buttocks
    2. Ears
    3. Face
    4. Abdomen
  40. Foods which are high in purines include:
    1. Certain meats
    2. Seafood
    3. Beans
    4. All of the above
  41. High levels of uric acid in the blood can result in:
    1. An autoimmune response
    2. Sharp needle-like crystals of monosodium urate deposited around the joints
    3. Osteoarthritis
    4. Rheumatoid arthritis
  42. The joint which is commonly affected first in gout is the:
    1. Thumb
    2. Elbow
    3. Toe
    4. Knee
  43. A client with rheumatoid arthritis may reveal which of the following assessment data?
    1. Heberden’s nodes
    2. Morning stiffness no longer than 30 minutes
    3. Asymmetric joint swelling
    4. Swan neck deformities of the hand
  44. Heberden’s nodes are characteristic of:
    1. Osteoarthritis
    2. Osteomyelitis
    3. Rheumatoid arthritis
    4. Conjunctivitis
  45. Rheumatoid arthritis is characterised by:
    1. Swan neck deformities
    2. Symmetrical joint swelling
    3. Asymmetrical joint swelling
    4. Heberden’s nodes
  46. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis states, ‘the only time I am without pain is when I lie in bed perfectly still’. During the convalescent stage, the nurse should encourage:
    1. Active joint flexion and extension
    2. Continued immobility until pain subsides
    3. Range of motion exercises twice daily
    4. Flexion exercises three times daily
  47. What are the advantages of using a pen-like insulin delivery device?
    1. Shorter injection time
    2. Accurate dose delivery
    3. Lower cost with reusable insulin cartridges
    4. Use of smaller gauge needle
  48. Insulin is:
    1. A type of fat
    2. A carbohydrate
    3. A hormone
    4. A food source
  49. The major complication of diabetes is:
    1. Bone disease
    2. Retinopathy
    3. Cardiovascular disease
    4. Lung disease
  50. Kussmaul respirations are associated with:
    1. Diabetic ketoacidosis
    2. Infection
    3. Trauma
    4. None of the above

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