5000 Plus MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists are designed to test the knowledge and proficiency of laboratory professionals who work in the field of clinical laboratory science. These questions cover a wide range of topics related to laboratory science, including anatomy, physiology, microbiology, chemistry, and hematology.
1301 to 1350 MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologist Exam Preparation
If You like then share this to your friends and other social media.
If You have any question and suggestions then please Contact us Here
Questions 1301 to 1350
All of the following are associated with hemolytic anemia except:
- a) Methemoglobinemia
- b) Hemoglobinuria
- c) Hemoglobinemia
- d) Increased haptoglobin
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is best characterized by which of the following?
- a) Increased levels of plasma C3
- b) Spherocytic red cells
- c) Decreased osmotic fragility
- d) Decreased unconjugated bilirubin
“Bite cells” are usually seen in patients with:
- a) Rh null trait
- b) Chronic granulomatous disease
- c) G6PD deficiency
- d) PK deficiency
The morphological classification on anemias is based on which of the following:
- a) M:E ratio
- b) Prussian blue stain
- c) RBC indicies
- d) Reticulocyte count
Which of the following is a common finding in aplastic anemia?
- a) A monoclonal disorder
- b) Tumor infiltration
- c) Peripheral blood pancytopenia
- d) Defective DNA synthesis
Congenital dyserythropoietic anemias (CDAs) are characterized by:
- a) Bizarre multinucleated erythroblasts
- b) Cytogenetic disorders
- c) Megaloblastic erythropoiesis
- d) An elevated M:E ratio
Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is characterized by:
- a) Target cells and Cabot rings
- b) Toxic granulation and Dohle bodies
- c) Pappenheimer bodies and basophilic stippling
- d) Schistocytes and nucleated RBCs
Which antibiotics are most often implicated in the development of aplastic anemia?
- a) Sulfonamides
- b) Penicillin
- c) Tertrcycline
- d) Chloramphenicol
Sickle cell disorders are:
- a) Hereditary, intracorpuscular RBC defect
- b) Hereditary, extracorpuscular RBC defect
- c) Acquired, intracorpuscular RBC defects
- d) Acquired, extracorpuscular RBC defects
Which of the following conditions may produce spherocytes in a peripheral smear?
- a) Pelger-Huet anomaly
- b) Pernicious anemia
- c) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
- d) Sideroblastic anemia
A patient’s peripheral smear reveals numerous NRBC’s, marked variation of red cell morphology, and pronounced polychromasia. In addition to a decreased Hgb and decreased Hct values, what other CBC parameters may be anticipated?
- a) Reduced platelets
- b) Increased MCHC
- c) Increased MCV
- d) Decreased red cell distribution width (RDW)
What red cell inclusions may be seen in the peripheral blood smear of a patient postsplenectomy?
- a) Toxic granulation
- b) Howell-Jolly bodies
- c) Malarial parasite
- d) Siderotic granules
Reticulocytosis usually indicates:
- a) Response to inflammation
- b) Neoplastic process
- c) Aplastic anemia
- d) Red cell regeneration
Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis (HP) is a red cell membrane defect characterized by:
- a) Increased pencil-shaped cells
- b) Increased oval macrocytes
- c) Misshappen budding fragmented cells
- d) Bite cells
Following overnight fasting, hypoglycemia in adults is defined as glucose of:
- a) ≤70 mg/dl (≤3.9 mmol/L)
- b) ≤60 mg/dl (≤3.3 mmol/L)
- c) ≤55 mg/dl (≤3.0 mmol/L)
- d) ≤45 mg/dl (≤2.5 mmol/L)
The preparation of a patient for standard glucose tolerance testing should include:
- a) A high carbohydrate diet for 3 days
- b) A low carbohydrate diet for 3 days
- c) Fasting for 48 hours prior to testing
- d) Bed rest for 3 days
If a fasting glucose was 90 mg/dl, which of the following 2hr postprandial glucose results would most closely represent normal glucose metabolism?
- a) 55 mg/dl (3.0 mmol/L)
- b) 100 mg/dl (5.5 mmol/L)
- c) 180 mg/dl (9.9 mmol/L)
- d) 260 mg/dl (14.3 mmol/L)
A healthy person with a blood glucose of 80 mg/dl (4.4 mmol/L) would have a simultaneously determined cerebrospinal fluid glucose value of:
- a) 25 mg/dl (1.4 mmol/L)
- b) 50 mg/dl (2.3 mmol/L)
- c) 100 mg/dl (5.5 mmol/L)
- d) 150 mg/dl (8.3 mmol/L)
Cerebrospinal fluid for glucose assay should be:
- a) Refrigerated
- b) Analyzed immediately
- c) Heated to 56 degrees Celsius
- d) Stored at room temperature
Which of the following 2 hr postprandial glucose values demonstrates unequivocal hyperglycemia diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?
- a) 160 mg/dl (8.8 mmol/L)
- b) 170 mg/dl (9.4 mmol/L)
- c) 180 mg/dl (9.9 mmol/L)
- d) 200 mg/dl (11.1 mmol/L)
Serum levels that define hypoglycemia in pre-term or low birth weight infants are:
- a) The same as adults
- b) Lower than adults
- c) The same as a normal full-term infant
- d) Higher than a normal full-term infant
The conversion of glucose or other hexoses into lactate or pyruvate is called:
- a) Glycogenesis
- b) Glycolysis
- c) Gluconeogenesis
- d) Glycogenolysis
Which of the following values obtained during a glucose tolerance test are diagnostic of diabetes mellitus?
- a) 2 hr specimen = 150 mg/dl
- b) Fasting plasma glucose = 126 mg/dl
- c) Fasting plasma glucose = 110 mg/dl
- d) 2 hr specimen = 180 mg/dl
The glycated hemoglobin value represents the integrated values of glucose concentration during the preceding:
- a) 1–3 weeks
- b) 4–5 weeks
- c) 6–8 weeks
- d) 16–20 weeks
Monitoring long-term glucose control in patients with adult onset diabetes mellitus can best be accomplished by measuring:
- a) Weekly fasting 7am serum glucose
- b) Glucose tolerance testing
- c) 2 hr postprandial serum glucose
- d) Hemoglobin A1c
The glycosylated hemoglobin levels in a hemolysate reflect the:
- a) Average blood glucose levels of the past 2–3 months
- b) Average blood glucose levels for the past week
- c) Blood glucose level at the time the sample was drawn
- d) Hemoglobin A1c level at the time the sample is drawn
Which of the following hemoglobins has a glucose-6-phosphate on the amino-terminal valine of the beta chain:
- a) S
- b) C
- c) A2
- d) A1c
A person with hemolytic anemia will:
- a) Show a decrease in glycated hgb value
- b) Show an increase in glycated hgb value
- c) Show little or no change in glycated hgb value
- d) Demonstrate an elevated hgb A1
In using ion-exchange chromatographic methods, falsely increased levels of Hgb A1c might be demonstrated in the presence of:
- a) Iron deficiency anemia
- b) Pernicious anemia
- c) Thalassemias
- d) Hgb S
An increase in serum acetone is indicative of a defect in the metabolism of:
- a) Carbohydrates
- b) Fat
- c) Urea nitrogen
- d) Uric acid
What is the best method to diagnose lactase deficiency?
- a) H2 breath test
- b) Plasma adolase lvl
- c) LDH level
- d) D-xylose test
The expected blood gas results for a patient in chronic renal failure would match the pattern of:
- a) Metabolic acidosis
- b) Respiratory acidosis
- c) Metabolic alkalosis
- d) Respiratory alkalosis
Severe diarrhea causes
- a) Metabolic acidosis
- b) Respiratory acidosis
- c) Metabolic alkalosis
- d) Respiratory alkalosis
Factors that contribute to a PCO2 electrode requiring 60-120 seconds to reach equilibrium include the:
- a) Diffusion characteristics of the membrane
- b) Actual blood pO2
- c) Type of calibrating standard (ie, liquid or humidified gas)
- d) Potential of the polarizing mercury cell
An emphysema patient suffering from fluid accumulation in the alveolar spaces is likely to be in what metabolic state?
- a) Respiratory acidosis
- b) Respiratory alkalosis
- c) Metabolic acidosis
- d) Metabolic alkalosis
At blood pH 7.40, what is the ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid?
- a) 15:1
- b) 20:1
- c) 25:1
- d) 30:1
The reference range for the pH of arterial blood measured at 37°C is:
- a) 7.28-7.34
- b) 7.33-7.37
- c) 7.35-7.45
- d) 7.45-7.50
Metabolic acidosis is described as a(n):
- a) Increase in CO2 content and PCO2 with a decreased pH
- b) Decrease in CO2 content with an increased pH
- c) Increase in CO2 with an increased pH
- d) Decrease in CO2 content and PCO2 with a decreased pH
A common cause of respiratory alkalosis is:
- a) Vomiting
- b) Starvation
- c) Asthma
- d) Hyperventilation
Acidosis and alkalosis are best defined as fluctuations in blood pH and CO2 content due to changes in:
- a) Bohr effect
- b) O2 content
- c) Bicarbonate buffer
- d) Carbonic anhydrase
Select the test which evaluates renal tubular function:
- a) IVP
- b) Creatinine clearance
- c) Osmolarity
- d) Microscopic urinalysis
The degree to which the kidney concentrates the glomerular filtrate can be determined by:
- a) Urine creatine
- b) Serum creatine
- c) Creatinine clearance
- d) Urine to serum osmolality ratio
Osmolal gap is a difference between:
- a) The ideal and real osmolality values
- b) Calculated and measured osmolality values
- c) Plasma and water osmolality values
- d) Molality and molarity at 4°C
The most important buffer pair in plasma is the:
- a) Phosphate/biphosphate pair
- b) Hemoglobin/imidazole pair
- c) Bicarbonate/carbonic acid pair
- d) Sulfate/bisulfate pair
Quantitation of Na⁺ and K⁺ by ion-selective electrode is the standard method because:
- a) Dilution is required for flame photometry
- b) There is no lipoprotein interference
- c) Of advances in electrochemistry
- d) Of the absence of an internal standard
Most of the carbon dioxide present in blood is in the form of:
- a) Dissolved CO₂
- b) Carbonate
- c) Bicarbonate ion
- d) Carbonic acid
Serum “anion gap” is increased in patients with:
- a) Renal tubular acidosis
- b) Diabetic alkalosis
- c) Metabolic acidosis due to diarrhea
- d) Lactic acidosis
The anion gap is useful for quality control of laboratory results for:
- a) Amino acids and proteins
- b) Blood gas analyses
- c) Sodium, potassium, chloride, and total CO2
- d) Calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium
The buffering capacity of blood is maintained by a reversible exchange process between bicarbonate and:
- a) Sodium
- b) Potassium
- c) Calcium
- d) Chloride
In respiratory acidosis, a compensatory mechanism is the increase in:
- a) Respiratory rate
- b) Ammonia formation
- c) Blood PCO2
- d) Plasma bicarbonate concentration
Answer Key Summary
The questions are typically designed to assess the technical skills and knowledge required for the laboratory profession, including the ability to analyze laboratory test results, perform laboratory procedures, and maintain laboratory equipment.
To prepare for these MCQs, candidates should have a thorough understanding of the key concepts and principles of laboratory science. They should also be familiar with common laboratory equipment and procedures, as well as laboratory safety protocols.
Candidates may also benefit from studying specific laboratory science textbooks or taking online courses that cover the material tested in the MCQs. Additionally, practicing sample MCQs and reviewing the answers can help candidates identify areas where they may need to improve their knowledge or skills.
Overall, the MCQs for lab technologists are designed to be challenging and comprehensive, requiring candidates to demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the field of laboratory science.
