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5000 Plus MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists are designed to test the knowledge and proficiency of laboratory professionals who work in the field of clinical laboratory science. These questions cover a wide range of topics related to laboratory science, including anatomy, physiology, microbiology, chemistry, and hematology.

MCQs for Lab Technician

1201 to 1250 MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologist Exam Preparation

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Questions 1201 to 1250

Go to Mock Test Chapter 25
  1. In which age group would 60% lymphocytes be a normal finding?
    1. 40-60 years
    2. 11-15 years
    3. 6 months – 2 years ✔
    4. 4-6 years
  2. Which of the following results on an automated differential suggests that a peripheral smear should be review manually?
    1. Segs 70%
    2. Bands 6%
    3. Mono 15% ✔
    4. Eos 2%
  3. In which stage of erythrocytic maturation does Hgb formation begin?
    1. Reticulocyte
    2. Pronormoblast
    3. Basophilic normoblast
    4. Polychromatic normoblast ✔
  4. Which of the following can shift the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve to the right?
    1. Increases in 2,3 DPG
    2. Acidosis
    3. Hypoxia
    4. All of the above ✔
  5. Which of the following Hbg configurations is characteristic of Hgb H?
    1. Y^4
    2. A2-y2
    3. B4 ✔
    4. A2-b2
  6. Autoagglutination of red cells at room temp can result in which of the following?
    1. Low RBC count
    2. High MCV
    3. Low hematocrit
    4. All of the above ✔
  7. Antibodies are secreted by
    1. Killer cells
    2. Marrow stem cells
    3. Mast cells
    4. B cells ✔
  8. Antibody class and antibody subclass is determined by major physiochemical differences and antigenic variation found primarily in the
    1. Constant region of heavy chain ✔
    2. Constant region of light chain
    3. Variable regions of heavy and light chains
    4. Constant regions of heavy and light chains
  9. With which of the following immunoglobulin classes is secretory component or transport piece associated?
    1. IgA ✔
    2. IgD
    3. IgE
    4. IgG
  10. The immunoglobin isotype that is bound to mast cells or basophils is
    1. IgG
    2. IgE ✔
    3. IgM
    4. IgD

  1. The immunoglobulin isotype that is bound to mast cells or basophils is
    1. IgA
    2. IgE
    3. IgG ✔
    4. IgM
  2. Cells involved in phagocytosis include: 1. Polymorphonuclear neutrophil 2. Monocytes 3. Histiocytes 4. Macrophages
    1. 1, 2, & 3
    2. 1 & 3
    3. 4
    4. All of the above ✔
  3. IgA is found in: 1. Saliva 2. Tears 3. Colostrum 4. Serum
    1. 1, 2, & 3
    2. 1 & 3
    3. 4
    4. All ✔
  4. The immunoglobulin class associated with hypersensitivity or allergenic reactions:
    1. IgA
    2. IgM
    3. IgD
    4. IgE ✔
  5. Which of the following immunoglobulins is the most efficient agglutinator?
    1. IgG
    2. IgA
    3. IgM ✔
    4. IgE
  6. All of the following events are mediated by both the alternative and classical pathways except:
    1. Proteolysis of C4 to C4a and C4b ✔
    2. Proteolysis of C3 to C3a and C3b
    3. Proteolysis of C5 to C5a and C5b
    4. Release of anaphylatoxins
  7. Which of the following is an important cellular mediator of immune complex tissue injury?
    1. Monocyte
    2. Neutrophil ✔
    3. Basophil
    4. Eosinophil
  8. The visible serologic reaction between soluble antigen and its specific antibody is
    1. Sensitization
    2. Precipitation ✔
    3. Agglutination
    4. Opsonization
  9. While performing a test for febrile agglutinins, an analyst observes that the first 3 tubes have no reaction, the next 4 tubes have agglutination, and the last 3 tubes show no agglutination. Tubes #1, 2 and 3 indicate:
    1. Prozone phenomenon ✔
    2. Antigen excess
    3. Equivalence
    4. Postzone phenomenon
  10. A substrate is first exposed to patient’s serum, then exposed to a fluorescent antihuman immunoglobulin. The procedure described is:
    1. Fluorescent quenching
    2. Direct fluorescence
    3. Indirect fluorescence ✔
    4. Fluorescence inhibition
  11. Which statement(s) is/are correct concerning the nephelometric determination of immunoglobulin levels? 1. Uses a beam of light to pass through a suspension in a cuvette. 2. Utilizes the precipitation of soluble antigen with its antibody. 3. Measures light that has been scattered as it passes through a suspension. 4. Most easily detects large particles formed by the reactants.
    1. 1 2 and 3 ✔
    2. 1 and 3
    3. 4
    4. All
  12. A rubella enzyme immunoassay which utilizes patient serum, rubella antigen, and enzyme bound to antibuman gamma globulin describes a/an ________ assay.
    1. Inhibition
    2. Competitive
    3. Double antibody
    4. Indirect ✔
  13. If 3 ml of a butter were added to a tube containing 1 ml of a standard reagent, the resulting dilution of the standard reagent would be:
    1. 1:2
    2. 1:3
    3. 1:4 ✔
    4. 3:1
    5. 4:1
  14. The more specific immunoassay procedure for serum HCG utilizes antisera against whivh subunit of HCG?
    1. Alpha
    2. Gamma
    3. Chorionic
    4. Beta ✔
  15. Which of the following describes the relationship between test data and analyte concentration in the classical competitive binding immunoassay:
    1. Directly proportional
    2. Indirectly proportional ✔
    3. Relative
    4. Non-specific
  16. A serologic test for syphilis that depends upon the detection of cardiolipin-lecithin-cholesterol antigen is:
    1. FTA-ABS
    2. RPR ✔
    3. MHA-TP
    4. TPI
  17. An important use of non-terponemal antibody (NTA) testing is in:
    1. Establishing the diagnosis of acute active syphilis
    2. Establishing the diagnosis of chronic syphilis
    3. Evaluating the success of therapy ✔
    4. Determining the prevalence of disease in the general population
  18. The serologic test for syphilis recommended for detecting antibody in cerebrospinal fluid is
    1. Non-treponemal antibody
    2. CSF-VDRL ✔
    3. FTA-ABS
    4. MHA-TP
  19. In direct fluorescent antibody screening for the diagnosis of primary syphilis, which of the following labels is used?
    1. Antibody for the presence of spirochetes in the chancre ✔
    2. Antibody for the presence of spirochetes in the skin rash
    3. Antigen for the presence of circulating antibodies
    4. Antigen for the presence of antibodies in situ
  20. The initial immune response following fetal infection with rubella is in the production of:
    1. IgG antibody
    2. IgA antibody
    3. IgM antibody ✔
    4. Both IgG and IgA antibody

  1. A 26 year old nurse developed fatigue, a low-grade fever, polyarthralgias and urticaria. Two months earlier she has cared for a patient with hepatitis. Which of the following findings are liely to be observed in this nurse?
    1. A negative hepatitis B surface antigen test
    2. Elevated AST and ALT activites ✔
    3. A positive rheumatoid factor
    4. A positive Monospot test
  2. The rapid rise, elevated level, and prolonged production of antibody following a repeat exposure to antigen is called:
    1. Hypersensitivity
    2. Arthus reaction
    3. Anamestic response ✔
    4. Primary response
  3. The antigen marker most closely associated with transmissibility of HBV infection is:
    1. HBs
    2. Hbe ✔
    3. HBc
    4. HBV
  4. Which of the following causes 90% of post-transfusion hepatitis?
    1. HAV
    2. HBV
    3. HCV ✔
    4. HDV
  5. Detection of which of the following substances is most useful to monitor the course of a patient with testicular cancer?
    1. Carcinoembryonic antigen
    2. Prolactin
    3. Testosterone
    4. 17-ketosteroids
    5. Alpha-fetoprotein ✔
  6. When testing a patient for HIV antibody, which of the following is used to confirm a positive screening test?
    1. Radioimmunoassay
    2. Western blot ✔
    3. Immunofluorescence
    4. ELISA
  7. A false-negative cold agglutinin test may result if:
    1. The specimen is centrifuged at room temperature
    2. The cold agglutinin demonstrates anti-I specificity
    3. The specimen is refrigerated prior to serum separation ✔
    4. Adult human O red cells are used in the assay
  8. The cold agglutinin test is used for the diagnosis of infection with
    1. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    2. Legionella pneumophilia
    3. Mycoplasma pneumoniae ✔
    4. Klebsiella pneumoniae
  9. Antigenic determinants for the RA factor are found on the patient’s own:
    1. IgG ✔
    2. IgA
    3. IgE
    4. IgM
  10. The causative agent for rheumatoid arthritis is:
    1. An antigen
    2. An antibody ✔
    3. A virus
    4. Bacterial cells
  11. Which of the following diseases is associated with a high circulating concentration of T3 and T4, but a low concentration of TSH?
    1. Rheumatoid Arthritis
    2. Graves’ Disease ✔
    3. Hashimoto’s Disease
    4. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
  12. The Rheumatoid Factor:
    1. Agglutinates inert substance
    2. Precipitates inert substance
    3. Hemolyzes red blood cells
    4. Agglutinates gamma globulin coated inert substance ✔
  13. Infectious mononucleosis is a disease caused by a
    1. Virus ✔
    2. Bacterium
    3. Fungus
    4. Spirochete
  14. Heterophile antibody of infectious mononucleosis is absorbed by:
    1. Guinea pig kidney
    2. Beef erythrocyte ✔
    3. Both
    4. Neither
  15. Which one of the following disorders is associted with autoantibodies to phospholipid?
    1. Rheumatoid Arthritis
    2. Gravees Disease
    3. Hashimoto’s Disease
    4. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus ✔
  16. Which of the following forms of exposure places a technologist at the highest risk for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
    1. Aersol
    2. Ingestion
    3. Needlestick ✔
    4. Splash
  17. The most prevalent job related disease hazard in clinical laboratories is:
    1. Tuberculosis
    2. Hepatitis ✔
    3. AIDs
    4. Meningitis
  18. How many kinds of DNA viruses exist in nature?
    1. Two kinds  ✔
    2. Four kinds 
    3. Five kinds 
    4. Six kinds 
  19. Which of these is more complex than viruses?
    1. Euglena ✔
    2. Satellites 
    3. Viroids 
    4. Prions
  20. Which of these is not a viral disease?
    1. Influenza
    2. Tuberculosis ✔
    3. Polio
    4. Hepatitis
Go to Mock Test Chapter 25
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Chapter 26 >>

The questions are typically designed to assess the technical skills and knowledge required for the laboratory profession, including the ability to analyze laboratory test results, perform laboratory procedures, and maintain laboratory equipment.

To prepare for these MCQs, candidates should have a thorough understanding of the key concepts and principles of laboratory science. They should also be familiar with common laboratory equipment and procedures, as well as laboratory safety protocols.

Candidates may also benefit from studying specific laboratory science textbooks or taking online courses that cover the material tested in the MCQs. Additionally, practicing sample MCQs and reviewing the answers can help candidates identify areas where they may need to improve their knowledge or skills.

Overall, the MCQs for lab technologists are designed to be challenging and comprehensive, requiring candidates to demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the field of laboratory science.

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