MCQ’s Chapter 25 (Lab)

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Some of Common Questions and Answers for Laboratory Technicians and Technologists.

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MCQs Chapter 25

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Questions 1201 to 1250

  1. In which age group would 60% lymphocytes be a normal finding?
    1. 40-60 years
    2. 11-15 years
    3. 6 months – 2 years
    4. 4-6 years
  2. Which of the following results on an automated differential suggests that a peripheral smear should be review manually?
    1. Segs 70%
    2. Bands 6%
    3. Mono 15%
    4. Eos 2%
  3. In which stage of erythrocytic maturation does Hgb formation begin?
    1. Reticulocyte
    2. Pronormoblast
    3. Basophilic normoblast
    4. Polychromatic normoblast
  4. Which of the following can shift the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve to the right?
    1. Increases in 2,3 DPG
    2. Acidosis
    3. Hypoxia
    4. All of the above
  5. Which of the following Hbg configurations is characteristic of Hgb H?
    1. Y^4
    2. A2-y2
    3. B4
    4. A2-b2
  6. Autoagglutination of red cells at room temp can result in which of the following?
    1. Low RBC count
    2. High MCV
    3. Low hematocrit
    4. All of the above
  7. Antibodies are secreted by
    1. Killer cells
    2. Marrow stem cells
    3. Mast cells
    4. B cells
  8. Antibody class and antibody subclass is determined by major physiochemical differences and antigenic variation found primarily in the
    1. Constant region of heavy chain
    2. Constant region of light chain
    3. Variable regions of heavy and light chains
    4. Constant regions of heavy and light chains
  9. With which of the following immunoglobulin classes is secretory component or transport piece associated?
    1. IgA
    2. IgD
    3. IgE
    4. IgG
  10. The immunoglobin isotype that is bound to mast cells or basophils is
    1. IgG
    2. IgE
    3. IgM
    4. IgD
  11. The immunoglobulin isotype that is bound to mast cells or basophils is
    1. IgA
    2. IgE
    3. IgG
    4. IgM
  12. Cells involved in phagocytosis include: 1. Polymorphonuclear neutrophil 2. Monocytes 3. Histiocytes 4. Macrophages
    1. 1, 2, & 3
    2. 1 & 3
    3. 4
    4. All of the above
  13. IgA is found in: 1. Saliva 2. Tears 3. Colostrum 4. Serum
    1. 1, 2, & 3
    2. 1 & 3
    3. 4
    4. All
  14. The immunoglobulin class associated with hypersensitivity or allergenic reactions:
    1. IgA
    2. IgM
    3. IgD
    4. IgE
  15. Which of the following immunoglobulins is the most efficient agglutinator?
    1. IgG
    2. IgA
    3. IgM
    4. IgE
  16. All of the following events are mediated by both the alternative and classical pathways except:
    1. Proteolysis of C4 to C4a and C4b
    2. Proteolysis of C3 to C3a and C3b
    3. Proteolysis of C5 to C5a and C5b
    4. Release of anaphylatoxins
  17. Which of the following is an important cellular mediator of immune complex tissue injury?
    1. Monocyte
    2. Neutrophil
    3. Basophil
    4. Eosinophil
  18. The visible serologic reaction between soluble antigen and its specific antibody is
    1. Sensitization
    2. Precipitation
    3. Agglutination
    4. Opsonization
  19. While performing a test for febrile agglutinins, an analyst observes that the first 3 tubes have no reaction, the next 4 tubes have agglutination, and the last 3 tubes show no agglutination. Tubes #1, 2 and 3 indicate:
    1. Prozone phenomenon
    2. Antigen excess
    3. Equivalence
    4. Postzone phenomenon
  20. A substrate is first exposed to patient’s serum, then exposed to a fluorescent antihuman immunoglobulin. The procedure described is:
    1. Fluorescent quenching
    2. Direct fluorescence
    3. Indirect fluorescence
    4. Fluorescence inhibition
  21. Which statement(s) is/are correct concerning the nephelometric determination of immunoglobulin levels? 1. Uses a beam of light to pass through a suspension in a cuvette. 2. Utilizes the precipitation of soluble antigen with its antibody. 3. Measures light that has been scattered as it passes through a suspension. 4. Most easily detects large particles formed by the reactants.
    1. 1 2 and 3
    2. 1 and 3
    3. 4
    4. All
  22. A rubella enzyme immunoassay which utilizes patient serum, rubella antigen, and enzyme bound to antibuman gamma globulin describes a/an ________ assay.
    1. Inhibition
    2. Competitive
    3. Double antibody
    4. Indirect
  23. If 3 ml of a butter were added to a tube containing 1 ml of a standard reagent, the resulting dilution of the standard reagent would be:
    1. 1:2
    2. 1:3
    3. 1:4
    4. 3:1
    5. 4:1
  24. The more specific immunoassay procedure for serum HCG utilizes antisera against whivh subunit of HCG?
    1. Alpha
    2. Gamma
    3. Chorionic
    4. Beta
  25. Which of the following describes the relationship between test data and analyte concentration in the classical competitive binding immunoassay:
    1. Directly proportional
    2. Indirectly proportional
    3. Relative
    4. Non-specific
  26. A serologic test for syphilis that depends upon the detection of cardiolipin-lecithin-cholesterol antigen is:
    1. FTA-ABS
    2. RPR
    3. MHA-TP
    4. TPI
  27. An important use of non-terponemal antibody (NTA) testing is in:
    1. Establishing the diagnosis of acute active syphilis
    2. Establishing the diagnosis of chronic syphilis
    3. Evaluating the success of therapy
    4. Determining the prevalence of disease in the general population
  28. The serologic test for syphilis recommended for detecting antibody in cerebrospinal fluid is
    1. Non-treponemal antibody
    2. CSF-VDRL
    3. FTA-ABS
    4. MHA-TP
  29. In direct fluorescent antibody screening for the diagnosis of primary syphilis, which of the following labels is used?
    1. Antibody for the presence of spirochetes in the chancre
    2. Antibody for the presence of spirochetes in the skin rash
    3. Antigen for the presence of circulating antibodies
    4. Antigen for the presence of antibodies in situ
  30. The initial immune response following fetal infection with rubella is in the production of:
    1. IgG antibody
    2. IgA antibody
    3. IgM antibody
    4. Both IgG and IgA antibody
  31. A 26 year old nurse developed fatigue, a low-grade fever, polyarthralgias and urticaria. Two months earlier she has cared for a patient with hepatitis. Which of the following findings are liely to be observed in this nurse?
    1. A negative hepatitis B surface antigen test
    2. Elevated AST and ALT activites
    3. A positive rheumatoid factor
    4. A positive Monospot test
  32. The rapid rise, elevated level, and prolonged production of antibody following a repeat exposure to antigen is called:
    1. Hypersensitivity
    2. Arthus reaction
    3. Anamestic response
    4. Primary response
  33. The antigen marker most closely associated with transmissibility of HBV infection is:
    1. HBs
    2. Hbe
    3. HBc
    4. HBV
  34. Which of the following causes 90% of post-transfusion hepatitis?
    1. HAV
    2. HBV
    3. HCV
    4. HDV
  35. Detection of which of the following substances is most useful to monitor the course of a patient with testicular cancer?
    1. Carcinoembryonic antigen
    2. Prolactin
    3. Testosterone
    4. 17-ketosteroids
    5. Alpha-fetoprotein
  36. When testing a patient for HIV antibody, which of the following is used to confirm a positive screening test?
    1. Radioimmunoassay
    2. Western blot
    3. Immunofluorescence
    4. ELISA
  37. A false-negative cold agglutinin test may result if:
    1. The specimen is centrifuged at room temperature
    2. The cold agglutinin demonstrates anti-I specificity
    3. The specimen is refrigerated prior to serum separation
    4. Adult human O red cells are used in the assay
  38. The cold agglutinin test is used for the diagnosis of infection with
    1. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    2. Legionella pneumophilia
    3. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
    4. Klebsiella pneumoniae
  39. Antigenic determinants for the RA factor are found on the patient’s own:
    1. IgG
    2. IgA
    3. IgE
    4. IgM
  40. The causative agent for rheumatoid arthritis is:
    1. An antigen
    2. An antibody
    3. A virus
    4. Bacterial cells
  41. Which of the following diseases is associated with a high circulating concentration of T3 and T4, but a low concentration of TSH?
    1. Rheumatoid Arthritis
    2. Graves’ Disease
    3. Hashimoto’s Disease
    4. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
  42. The Rheumatoid Factor:
    1. Agglutinates inert substance
    2. Precipitates inert substance
    3. Hemolyzes red blood cells
    4. Agglutinates gamma globulin coated inert substance
  43. Infectious mononucleosis is a disease caused by a
    1. Virus
    2. Bacterium
    3. Fungus
    4. Spirochete
  44. Heterophile antibody of infectious mononucleosis is absorbed by:
    1. Guinea pig kidney
    2. Beef erythrocyte
    3. Both
    4. Neither
  45. Which one of the following disorders is associted with autoantibodies to phospholipid?
    1. Rheumatoid Arthritis
    2. Gravees Disease
    3. Hashimoto’s Disease
    4. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
  46. Which of the following forms of exposure places a technologist at the highest risk for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
    1. Aersol
    2. Ingestion
    3. Needlestick
    4. Splash
  47. The most prevalent job related disease hazard in clinical laboratories is:
    1. Tuberculosis
    2. Hepatitis
    3. AIDs
    4. Meningitis
  48. How many kinds of DNA viruses exist in nature?
    1. Two kinds 
    2. Four kinds 
    3. Five kinds 
    4. Six kinds 
  49. Which of these is more complex than viruses?
    1. Euglena
    2. Satellites 
    3. Viroids 
    4. Prions
  50. Which of these is not a viral disease?
    1. Influenza
    2. Tuberculosis
    3. Polio
    4. Hepatitis

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