5000 Plus MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists are designed to test the knowledge and proficiency of laboratory professionals who work in the field of clinical laboratory science. These questions cover a wide range of topics related to laboratory science, including anatomy, physiology, microbiology, chemistry, and hematology.
1401 to 1450 MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologist Exam Preparation
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Questions 1401 to 1450
The screening test for congenital hypothyroidism is based upon:
- a) TSH level in the newborn
- b) Thyroid-binding globulin level in the newborn
- c) Iodine level in the newborn
- d) All thyroxine (T4) level in the newborn
Which of the following is secreted by the placenta and used for the early detection of pregnancy?
- a) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
- b) Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
- c) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
- d) Progesterone
In amniotic fluid, the procedure used to detect hemolytic disease of the newborn is:
- a) Measurement of absorbance at 450 nm
- b) Creatinine
- c) Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio
- d) Estriol
During a normal pregnancy, quantitative human chorionic gonadotropin levels peak at how many weeks after the last menstrual period?
- a) 2-4
- b) 8-10
- c) 14-16
- d) 18-20
Which of the following steroids is an adrenal cortical hormone?
- a) Angiotensinogen
- b) Aldosterone
- c) Epinephrine
- d) Growth hormone
What common substrate is used in the biosynthesis of adrenal steroids, including androgens and estrogens?
- a) Cortisol
- b) Catecholamines
- c) Progesterone
- d) Cholesterol
The major action of angiotensin II is:
- a) Increased pituitary secretion of vasopressin
- b) Increased parathormone secretion by the parathyroid
- c) Decreased adrenal secretion of aldosterone
- d) Increased vasoconstriction
The urinary excretion product measured as an indicator of epinephrine production is:
- a) Dopamine
- b) Dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA)
- c) Homovanillic acid
- d) Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)
Which of the following hormones regulates normal blood calcium levels?
- a) Thyroxine
- b) Estriol
- c) Parathyroid hormone
- d) Growth hormone
A diagnosis of primary adrenal insufficiency requires demonstration of:
- a) Decreased urinary 17-keto and 17-hydroxysteroids
- b) Decreased cortisol production
- c) Impaired response to ACTH stimulation
- d) Increased urinary cortisol excretion after metyrapone
The screen for adrenal cortical hyperfunction with the greatest sensitivity and specificity is:
- a) 24 hour free cortisol
- b) Plasma cortisol
- c) Urinary 17-hydroxycorticosteroids
- d) Plasma corticosterone
Aldosterone is released by the adrenal cortex upon stimulation by:
- a) Renin
- b) Angiotensinogen
- c) Angiotensin I
- d) Angiotensin II
Clinical assays for tumor markers are most important for:
- a) Screening for the presence of cancer
- b) Monitoring the course of a known cancer
- c) Confirming the absence of disease
- d) Identifying patients at risk for cancer
Detection of which of the following substances is most useful to monitor the course of a patient with testicular cancer?
- a) Alpha-fetoprotein
- b) Carcinoembryonic antigen
- c) Prolactin
- d) Testosterone
Increased concentrations of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in adults are most characteristically associated with:
- a) Hepatocellular carcinoma
- b) Alcoholic cirrhosis
- c) Chronic active hepatitis
- d) Multiple myeloma
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is most likely to be produced in a malignancy involving the:
- a) Brain
- b) Testes
- c) Colon
- d) Bone
Which of the following is useful in the detection and management of carcinoma of the prostate?
- a) Total prostate-specific antigen
- b) Prostatic acid phosphatase
- c) Human chorionic gonadotropin
- d) Alpha-fetoprotein
Which of the following statements most correctly describes the utility of clinical laboratory assays for tumor markers?
- a) Tumor markers are useful to screen asymptomatic patients for tumors
- b) Tumor markers are highly specific
- c) Tumor markers indicate the likelihood of an individual developing a tumor
- d) Tumor markers are useful in tracking the efficacy of treatment
Cancer antigen 125 (CA 125) is a tumor marker associated with:
- a) Breast carcinoma
- b) Colon cancer
- c) Lung cancer
- d) Ovarian and endometrial carcinoma
In addition to carcinoma of the prostate, elevated prostate-specific antigen (PSA) can occur due to:
- a) Aspirin therapy
- b) Exogenous steroid use
- c) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
- d) Statin therapy (cholesterol lowering drug)
Blood glucose levels are directly regulated by the hormone:
- a) Hydrocortisone
- b) Insulin
- c) Thyroxin
- d) ACTH
According to Landsteiner, when a specific antigen is present on blood cells, the corresponding antibody:
- a) May or may not be present depending on the agglutinogens present
- b) Is present in the serum
- c) Is present in the blood cells
- d) Is absent from the serum
Metabolic acidosis can be detected by testing urine for the presence of:
- a) Glucose
- b) Uric acid
- c) Ketone bodies
- d) Protein
The major cation found in the extracellular fluid is:
- a) Chloride
- b) Bicarbonate
- c) Sodium
- d) Potassium
Who is credited with proposing the most readily acceptable theory of ABO inheritance?
- a) Levine
- b) Landsteiner
- c) Weiner
- d) Bernstein
Safranin in a Gram stain is used as a:
- a) Primary stain
- b) Secondary stain
- c) Mordant
- d) Decolorizer
Antihuman serum globulin reagent:
- a) Is produced in laboratory animals
- b) Is produced in humans
- c) Never detects complement-dependent antibodies
- d) Occurs naturally in most humans
Streptococcus pneumoniae:
- a) Grows best at slightly acid pH
- b) Is motile
- c) Is consistently gram-positive even in old cultures
- d) Capsules are produced by virulent strains
The type of anemia usually associated with severe burns is:
- a) Macrocytic
- b) Microcytic
- c) Aplastic
- d) Hemolytic
A substance that produces a prolonged prothrombin time when given orally is:
- a) Heparin
- b) Protamine sulfate
- c) Salicylate
- d) Coumadin
The principle involved in some automated blood cell counters is based on the:
- a) Amount of hemoglobin in the red cell
- b) Size of the particle being counted
- c) Weight of the hemoglobin in the red cell
- d) Value of the cell indices
On an automated blood cell counter, the two parameters affected by a high background count would be:
- a) Hct and WBC
- b) RBC and WBC
- c) RBC and Hgb
- d) WBC and Hgb
Leukemia may be suspected when a manual hematocrit determination reveals:
- a) Hemolysis
- b) A heavy buffy coat
- c) Icteric plasma
- d) A high hematocrit
A mother is Rh(D) negative. The father is homozygous Rh(D) positive. All of their offspring will be:
- a) Homozygous Rh(D) positive
- b) Heterozygous Rh(D) positive
- c) 50% Rh(D) positive and 50% Rh(D) negative
- d) Erythroblastotic
The quantity of inactivated serum used for qualitative VDRL test is:
- a) 0.05 mL
- b) 0.10 mL
- c) 0.15 mL
- d) 0.02 mL
Hansel’s stain is appropriate for:
- a) Phagocytic neutrophils
- b) Leukocytes in spinal fluid
- c) Nasal secretion for eosinophils
- d) Circulating eosinophils
As a general rule, when a blood cell matures:
- a) The cell decreases in size
- b) There is no change in the cell’s size
- c) The nucleus increases in size
- d) The cell increases in size
An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as being:
- a) Packed with hemoglobin
- b) Variable in shape
- c) Markedly bluish in color
- d) Markedly pale in central color
Freezing point depression measurements are part of which one of the following urine test procedures?
- a) Refractive index
- b) Osmolality
- c) Hydrometry
- d) Specific gravity
When performing automated cell counts, most automated cell counted instruments:
- a) Count nucleated red blood cells with leukocytes
- b) Count nucleated red blood cells with platelets
- c) Do not count nucleated red blood cells
- d) Count nucleated red blood cells with erythrocytes
The egg of the Schistosoma characterized by a pronounced lateral spine is:
- a) Schistosoma mansoni
- b) Schistosoma haematobium
- c) Schistosoma japonicum
- d) Schistosoma hepatica
Fibrinogen determinations are performed on:
- a) Serum only
- b) Plasma only
- c) Either serum or plasma
- d) Any body fluid
A flagellate frequently found in the urine of female patients is:
- a) Trichomonas tenax
- b) Trichomonas hominis
- c) Trichomonas vaginalis
- d) Entamoeba coli
Unconjugated bilirubin is also known as:
- a) Biliverdin
- b) Total bilirubin
- c) Conjugated bilirubin
- d) Prehepatic bilirubin
According to Landsteiner, when a specific antigen is present on blood cells, the corresponding antibody:
- a) May or may not be present depending on the agglutinogens present
- b) Is present in the serum
- c) Is present in the blood cells
- d) Is absent from the serum
A reactive fluorescent treponemal antibody (FTA-AB) test:
- a) Indicates no infection
- b) Is positive during the chancre stage
- c) Confirms the presence of treponemal antibodies
- d) Indicates the severity of infection
The screening or presumptive test for the osmotic fragility of red cells is normal when hemolysis begins in:
- a) 0.50% NaCl
- b) 0.90% NaCl
- c) 1.34% NaCl
- d) 0.85% NaCl
Most methods for the determination of blood creatinine are based on the reaction of creatinine and:
- a) Sulfuric acid
- b) Alkaline picrate
- c) Ammonium hydroxide
- d) Acetic anhydride
Hansel’s stain is appropriate for:
- a) Nasal secretion for eosinophils
- b) Circulating eosinophils
- c) Phagocytic neutrophils
- d) Leukocytes in spinal fluid
Brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue are stains used for counting:
- a) Platelets
- b) Reticulocytes
- c) Howell-Jolly bodies
- d) Malaria
Answer Key Summary
The questions are typically designed to assess the technical skills and knowledge required for the laboratory profession, including the ability to analyze laboratory test results, perform laboratory procedures, and maintain laboratory equipment.
To prepare for these MCQs, candidates should have a thorough understanding of the key concepts and principles of laboratory science. They should also be familiar with common laboratory equipment and procedures, as well as laboratory safety protocols.
Candidates may also benefit from studying specific laboratory science textbooks or taking online courses that cover the material tested in the MCQs. Additionally, practicing sample MCQs and reviewing the answers can help candidates identify areas where they may need to improve their knowledge or skills.
Overall, the MCQs for lab technologists are designed to be challenging and comprehensive, requiring candidates to demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the field of laboratory science.
