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MCQ’s Chapter 29 (Lab)

Some of Common Questions and Answers for Laboratory Technicians and Technologists.

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MCQs Chapter 29
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Questions 1401 to 1450

  1. The screening test for congenital hypothyroidism is based upon:
    1. TSH level in the newborn
    2. Thyroid-binding glubulin level in the newborn
    3. Iodine level in the newborn
    4. Al thyroxine (t4) level in the newborn
  2. Which of the following is secreted by the placents and used for the early detection of pregnancy?
    1. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
    2. Human chronic gonadotropin (HCG)
    3. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
    4. Progesterone
  3. In amniotic fluid, the procedure used to detect hemolytic disease of the newborn is:
    1. Measurement of absorbance at 450 nm
    2. Creatinine
    3. Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio
    4. Estriol
  4. During a normal pregnancy, quantitative human chorionic gonadotropin levels peak at how many weeks after the last menstrual period?
    1. 2-4
    2. 8-10
    3. 14-16
    4. 18-20
  5. Whi the following steroids is an adrenal cortical hormone?
    1. Angiotensinogen
    2. Aldosterone
    3. Epinephrine
    4. Growth hormone
  6. What common substrate is used in the biosynthesis of adrenal steroids, including androgens and estrogens?
    1. Cortisol
    2. Catecholamines
    3. Progesterone
    4. Cholesterol
  7. The major action of angiotensin II is:
    1. Increased pituitary secretion of vasopressin
    2. Increased parathormone secretion by the parathyroid
    3. Decreased adrenal secretion of aldosterone
    4. Increased vasoconstriction
  8. The urinary excretion product measured as an indicator of epinephrine production is:
    1. Dopamine
    2. Dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA)
    3. Homovanillic acid
    4. Vanillymandelic acid (VMA)
  9. Which of the following hormones regulates normal blood calcium levels?
    1. Thyroxine
    2. Estriol
    3. Parathyroid hormone
    4. Growth hormone
  10. A diagnosisof primary adrenal insufficiency requires  demonstration of:
    1. Decreased urinary 17-keto and 17-hydroxysteroids
    2. Decreased cortisol production
    3. Impaired response to ACTH stimulation
    4. Increased urinary cortisol excretion after metyrapone
  11. The screen for adrenal cortical hyperfunction with the greatest sensitivity and specificity is:
    1. A 24 hour free cortisol
    2. Plasma cortisol
    3. Urinary 17-hydroxycorticosteroids
    4. Plasma corticosterone
  12. Aldosterone is released by the adrenal cortex upon stimulation by:
    1. Renin
    2. Angiotensinogen
    3. Angiotensin I
    4. Angiotensin II
  13. Clinical assays for tumor markers are most important for:
    1. Screeening for the presence of cancer
    2. Monitoring the course of a known cancer
    3. Confirming the abscence of disease
    4. Identifying patients at risk for cancer
  14. Detection of which of the following substances is most useful to monitor the course of a patient with testicular cancer?
    1. Alpha-fetoprotein
    2. Carcinoembryonic antigen
    3. Prolactin
    4. Testosterone
  15. Increased concentrations of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in adults are most characteristically associated with:
    1. Hepatocellular carcinoma
    2. Alcoholic cirrhosis
    3. Chronic active hepatitis
    4. Multiple myeloma
  16. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is most likely to be produced in a malignany involving the:
    1. Brain
    2. Testes
    3. Colon
    4. Bone
  17. Which of the following is useful in the detection and management of carcinoma of the prostate?
    1. Total prostate-specific antigen
    2. Prostatic acid phosphatase
    3. Human chronic gonadotropin
    4. Alpha-fetoprotein
  18. Which of the following statements most correctly describes the utility of clinical laboratory assays for tumor markers?
    1. Tumor markers are useful to screen asymptomatic patients for tumors
    2. Tumor markers are highly specific
    3. Tumor markers indicate the likelihgood of an indvidual developing a tumor
    4. Tumor markers are useful in tracking the effcacy of treatment
  19. Cancer antigen 125 (CA 125) is a tumor marker associated with:
    1. Breast carcinoma
    2. Colon cancer
    3. Lung cancer
    4. Ovarian and endometrial carcinoma
  20. In addition to carcinoma of the prostate, elevated prostate-specific antigen (PSA) can occur due to:
    1. Aspirin therapy
    2. Exogenous steroid use
    3. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
    4. Statin therapy (cholesterol lowering drug)
  21. Blood glucose levels are directly regulated by the hormone
    1. Hydrocortisone
    2. Insulin
    3. Thyroxin
    4. ACTH
  22. According to Landsteiner, when a specific antigen is present on blood cells, the corresponding antibody
    1. May or may not be present depending on the agglutinogens present
    2. Is present in the serum
    3. Is present in the blood cells
    4. Is absent from the serum
  23. Metabolic acidosis can be detected by testing urine for the presence of 
    1. Glucose
    2. Uric acid
    3. Ketone bodies
    4. Protein
  24. The major cation found in the extra cellular fluid is 
    1. Chloride
    2. Bicarbonate
    3. Sodium
    4. Potassium
  25. Who is credited with processing the most readily acceptable theory of ABO inheritance?
    1. Levine
    2. Landsteiner
    3. Weiner
    4. Bernstein
  26. Safranin in a Gram stain is used as a 
    1. Primary stain
    2. Secondary stain
    3. Mordant
    4. Decolorizer
  27. Antihuman serum globulin reagent 
    1. Is produced in laboratory animals
    2. Is produced in humans
    3. Never detects complement-dependent antibodies
    4. Occurs naturally in most humans
  28. Strepococcus pneumoniae
    1. Grows best at slightly acid pH
    2. Is motile
    3. Is consistently gram-positive even in old cultures
    4. Capsules are produced by virulent strians
  29. The type of anemia usually associated with severe burns is 
    1. Macrocytic
    2. Microcytic
    3. Aplastic
    4. Hemolytic
  30. A substance that produces a prolonged prothrombin time when given orally is 
    1. Heparin
    2. Protamine sulfate
    3. Saliclate
    4. Coumadin
  31. The principle involved in some automated blood cell counters is based on the 
    1. Amount of hemoglobin in the red cell
    2. Size of the particle being counted
    3. Weight of the hemoglobin in the red cell
    4. Value of the cell indices
  32. On an automated blood cell counter, the two parameters affected by a high background count would be
    1. Hct and WBC
    2. RBC and WBC
    3. RBC and Hgb
    4. WBC and Hgb
  33. Leukemia may be suspected when a manual hematocrit determination reveals 
    1. Hemolysis
    2. A heavy buffy coat
    3. Icteric plasma
    4. A high hematocrit
  34. A mother is Rh(D) negative. The father is homozygous Rh(D) positive. All of their offspring will be
    1. Homozygous Rh(D) positive
    2. Heterozygous Rh(D) positive
    3. 50% Rh(D) positive and 50% Rh(D)negative
    4. Erythroblastotic
  35. The quantity of inactivated serum used for qualitative VDRL test is 
    1. 0.05 mL
    2. 0.10 mL
    3. 0.15 mL
    4. 0.02 mL
  36. Hansel’s stain is appropriate for 
    1. Phagocytic neutrophils
    2. Leukocytes in spinal fluid
    3. Nasal secrection for eosinophiles
    4. Circulating eosinophiles
  37. As a general rule, when a blood cell matures
    1. The cell decreases in size
    2. There is no change in the cell’s size
    3. The nucleus increases in size
    4. The cell increases in size
  38. An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as being
    1. Packed with hemoglobin
    2. Variable in shape
    3. Markedly bluish in color
    4. Markedly pale in central color
  39. Freezing point depression measurements are part of which one of the following urine test procedures?
    1. Refractive index
    2. Osmolality
    3. Hydrometry
    4. Specific gravity
  40. When performing automated cell counts, most automated cell counted instruments
    1. Count nucleated red blood cells with leukocytes
    2. Count nucleated red blood cells with platelets
    3. Do not count nucleated red blood cells
    4. Count nucleated red blood cells with erythrocytes
  41. The egg of the Schistosoma characterized by a pronounced lateral spine is 
    1. Schistosoma mansoni
    2. Schistosoma haematobium
    3. Schistosoma japonicum
    4. Schistosoma hepatica
  42. Fibrinogen determinations are performed on 
    1. Serum only
    2. Plasma only
    3. Either serum or plasma
    4. Any body fluid
  43. A fladellate frequently found in the urine of female patients is 
    1. Trichomonas tenax
    2. Trichomonas hominis
    3. Trichomonas vaginalis
    4. Entamoeba coli
  44. Unconjugated bilirubin is also known as
    1. Biliverdin
    2. Total bilirubin
    3. Conjugated bilirubin
    4. Prehepatic bilirubin
  45. According to Landsteiner, when a specific antigen is present on blood cells, the corresponding antibody
    1. May or may not be present depending on the agglutinogens present
    2. Is present in the serum
    3. Is present in the blood cells
    4. Is absent from the serum
  46. A reactive fluorescent treponemal antibody (FTA-AB) test
    1. Indicates no infection
    2. Is positive during the chancre stage
    3. Confirms the presence of treponemal antibodies
    4. Indicates the severity of infection
  47. The screenign or presumptive test for the osmotic fragility of red cells is normal when hemolysis begins in 
    1. 0.50% NaCl
    2. 0.90% NaCl
    3. 1.34% NaCl
    4. 0.85% NaCl
  48. Most methods for the determination of blood creatinine are based on the reaction of creatinine and 
    1. Sulfuric acid
    2. Alkaline picrate
    3. Ammonium hydroxide
    4. Acetic anhydride
  49. Hansel’s stain is appropriate for 
    1. Nasal secrection for eosinophiles
    2. Circulating eosinophiles
    3. Phagocytic neutrophils
    4. Leukocytes in spinal fluid
  50. Brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue are stains used for counting
    1. Platelets
    2. Reticulocytes
    3. Howell-Jolly bodies
    4. Malaria

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