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MCQ’s Chapter 27 (Lab)

Some of Common Questions and Answers for Laboratory Technicians and Technologists.

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MCQs Chapter 27
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Questions 1301 to 1350

  1. All of the following are associated with hemolytic anemia except:
    1. Methemoglobinemia
    2. Hemoglobinuria
    3. Hemoglobinemia
    4. Increased haptoglobin
  2. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is best characterized by which of the following?
    1. Increased levels of plasma C3
    2. Spherocytic red cells
    3. Decreased osmotic fragility
    4. Decreased unconjugated bilirubin
  3. “Bite cells” are usually seen in patients with:
    1. Rh null trait
    2. Chronic granulomatous disease
    3. G6PD deficiency
    4. PK deficiency
  4. The morphological classification on anemias is based on which of the following:
    1. M:E ratio
    2. Prussian blue stain
    3. RBC indicies
    4. Reticulocyte count
  5. Which of the following is a common finding in aplastic anemia?
    1. A monoclonal disorder
    2. Tumor infiltration
    3. Peripheral blood pancytopenia
    4. Defective DNA synthesis
  6. Congenital dyserythropoietic anemias (CDAs) are characterized by:
    1. Bizarre multinucleated erythroblasts
    2. Cytogenetic disorders
    3. Megaloblastic erythropoiesis
    4. An elevated M:E ratio
  7. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is characterized by:
    1. Target cells and cabot rings
    2. Toxic granulation and Dohle bodies
    3. Pappenheimer bodies and basophilic stippling
    4. Schistocytes and nucleated RBCs
  8. Which antibiotics are most often implicated in the development of aplastic anemia?
    1. Sulfonamides
    2. Penicillin
    3. Tertrcycline
    4. Chloramphenicol
  9. Sickle cell disorders are:
    1. Hereditary, intracorpuscular RBC defect
    2. Hereditary, extracorpuscular RBC defect
    3. Acquired, intracorpuscular RBC defects
    4. Acquired, extracorpuscular RBC defects
  10. Which of the following conditions may produce spherocytes in a peripheral smear?
    1. Pelger-Huet anomaly
    2. Pernicious anemia
    3. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
    4. Sideroblastic anemia
  11. A patient’s peripheral smear reveals numerous NRBC’s marked variation of red cell morphology, and pronounced polychromasia. In addition to a decreased Hgb and decreased Hct values, what other CBC parameters may be anticipated?
    1. Reduced platelets
    2. Increased MCHC
    3. Increased MCV
    4. Decreased red cell distribution width (RDW)
  12. What red cell inclusions may be seen in the peripheral blood smear of a patient postsplenectomy?
    1. Toxic granulation
    2. Howell-Jolly bodies
    3. Malarial parasite
    4. Siderotic granules
  13. Reticulocytosis usually indicates:
    1. Response to inflammation
    2. Neoplastic process
    3. Aplastic anemia
    4. Red cell regeneration
  14. Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis (HP) is a red cell membrance defect characterized by:
    1. Increased pencil-shaped cells
    2. Increased oval macrocytes
    3. Misshappen budding fragmented cells
    4. Bite cells
  15. Following overnight fasting, hypoglycemia in adults is defined as glucose of:  
    1. A <_70 mg/dl (<_3.9 mmol/L)
    2. B <_60 mg/dl (<3.3 mmol/L)
    3. C <_55 mg/dl (<_3.0 mmol/L)
    4. D <_45 mg/dl (<2.5 mmol/L)
  16. The preparation of a patient for standard for glucose tolerance testing should include:
    1. A high carbohydrate diet for 3 days
    2. A low carbohydrate diet for 3 days
    3. Fasting for 48 hours prior to testing
    4. Bed rest for 3 days
  17. If a fasting glucose was 90 mg/dl, which of the following 2hr postprandial glucose results would most closely represent normal glucose metabalism
    1. 55 mg/dl (3.0 mmol/L)
    2. 100 mg/dl (5.5 mmol/L)
    3. 180 mg/dl (9.9 mmol/L)
    4. 260 mg/dl (14.3 mmol/L)
  18. A healthy person with a blood glucose of 80 mg/dl (4.4 mmol/L) would have a simultaneously determined cerebrospinal fluid glucose value of:
    1. 25 mg/dl (1.4 mmol/L)
    2. 50 mg/dl (2.3 mmol/L)
    3. 100 mg/dl (5.5 mmol/L)
    4. 150 mg/dl (8.3 mmol/L)
  19. Cerebrospinal fluid for glucose assay should be:
    1. Refrigerated
    2. Analyzed immediately
    3. Heated to 56 degrees celsius
    4. Stored at room temperature
  20. Which of the following 2 hr postprandial glucose values demonstrates unequivocal hyperglycemia diagnostic for biabetes mellitus
    1. 160 mg/dl (8.8 mmol/L)
    2. 170 mg/dl (9.4 mmol/L)
    3. 180 mg/dl (9.9 mmol/L)
    4. 200 mg/dl (11. mmol/L)
  21. Serum levels that define hypoglycemia in pre-term or low birth weight infants are:
    1. The same as adults
    2. Lower than adults
    3. The same as a normal full-term infant
    4. Higher than a normal full-term infant
  22. The conversion of glucose or other hexoses into lactate or pyruvate is called:
    1. Glycogenesis
    2. Glycolysis
    3. Gluconeogenesis
    4. Glycogenolysis
  23. Which of the following values obtained during a glucose tolerance test are diagnosticof diabetes mellitus?
    1. 2hr specimen= 150 mg/dl
    2. Fasting plasma glucose= 126 mg/dl
    3. Fasating plasma glucose= 110 mg/dl
    4. 2hr specimen = 180 mg/dl
  24. The glycated hemoglobin value represents the integrated values of glucose concentration during the preceding:
    1. 1-3 weeks
    2. 4-5 weeks
    3. 6-8 weeks
    4. 16-20 weeks
  25. Monitoring long-term glucose control in patients with adult onset diabetes mellitus can best be accomplished by measuring:
    1. Weekly fasting 7am serum glucose
    2. Glucose tolerance testing
    3. 2hr postprandial serum glucose
    4. Hemoglobin A1c
  26. The glycosylated hemoglobin levels in a hemolysate reflect the:
    1. Average blood glucose levels of the past 2-3 months
    2. Average blood glucose levels for the past week
    3. Blood glucose level at the time the sample drawn
    4. Hemoglobin a1c level at the time the sample is drawn
  27. Which of the following hemoglobins has a glucose-6-phosphate on the amino-terminal valine of the beta chain:
    1. S
    2. C
    3. A2
    4. A1c
  28. A person with hemolytic anemia will:
    1. Show a decrease in glycated hgb value
    2. Show an increase in glycated hgb value
    3. Show lil or no change in glycated hgb value
    4. Demonstrate an elevated hgb A1
  29. In using ion-exchange chromotographic methods, falsely increased levels of hgb A1c might be demonstrated in the presence of:
    1. Iron defiency anemia
    2. Pernicious anemia
    3. Thalassemias
    4. Hgb S
  30. An increase in serum acetone is indicative of a defect in the metabolism of:
    1. Carbohydrates
    2. Fat
    1. Urea nitrogen
    2. Uric acid
  31. What is the best method to diagnose lactase deficiency?
    1. H2 breath test
    2. Plasma adolase lvl
    3. LDH level
    4. D-xylose test
  32. The expected blood gas results for a patient in chronic renal failure would match the pattern of:
    1. Metabolic acidosis
    2. Respiratory acidosis
    3. Metabolic alkalosis
    4. Respiratory alkalosis
  33. Severe diarrhea causes
    1. Metabolic acidosis
    2. Repiratory acidosis
    3. Metabolic alkalosis
    4. Respiratory alkalosis
  34. Factors that contribute to a PCO2 electrode requiring 60-120 seconds to reach equilibrium include the:
    1. Diffusion characteristics of the membrane
    2. Actual blood pO2
    3. Type of calibrating standard (ie, liquid or humidified gas)
    4. Potential of the polarizing mercury cell
  35. An emphysema patient suffering from fluid accumulation in the alveolar spaces is the likely to be in what metabolic state?
    1. Respiratory acidosis
    2. Respiratoy alkalosis
    3. Metabolic acidosis
    4. Metabolic alkalosis
  36. At blood ph  7.40, what is the ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid?
    1. 15:1
    2. 20:1
    3. 25:1
    4. 30:1
  37. The referance range for the pH of arterial blood measured at 37 degree celsius is:
    1. 7.28-7.34
    2. 7.33-7.37
    3. 7.35-7.45
    4. 7.45-7.50
  38. Metabolic acidosis is described as a (n):
    1. Increase in CO2 content and PCO2 with a decreased pH
    2. Decrease in CO2 content with an increased pH
    3. Increase in CO2 with an increased pH
    4. Decrease in CO2 content and PCO2 with a decreased pH
  39. A common cause of respiratory alkalosis is:
    1. Vomiting
    2. Starvation
    3. Asthma
    4. Hyperventilation
  40. Acidosis and alkalosis are best defined as fluctuations in blood pH and CO2 content due to changes in:
    1. Bohr effect
    2. O2 content
    3. Bicarbonate buffer
    4. Carbonic anhydrase
  41. Select the test which evaluates renal tubular function:
    1. IVP
    2. Creatinine clearance
    3. Osmolarity
    4. Microscopic urinalysis
  42. The degree to which the kidney concentrates the glomerular filtrate can be determined by:
    1. Urine creatine
    2. Serum creatine
    3. Cratinine clearance
    4. Urine to serum osmolality ratio
  43. Osmolal gap is aa difference between:
    1. The ideal and real osmolality values
    2. Calculated and measured osmolality values
    3. Plasma and water osmolality values
    4. Molality and molarity at 4 degres celsius
  44. The most important buffer pair in plasma is the
    1. Phosphate/biphosphate pair
    2. Hemoglobin/imidazole pair
    3. Bicarbonate/carbonic acid pair
    4. Sulfate/bisulfate pair
  45. Quantitation of Na+ and K+ by ion-selective electrode is the standard method because:
    1. Dilution is required for flame photometry
    2. There is no lipoprotein interference
    3. Of advances in electrochemistry
    4. Of the abscence of an internal standard
  46. Most of the carbon dioxide present in blood in the form of:
    1. Dissolved CO^2
    2. Carbonate
    3. Bicarbonate ion
    4. Carbonic acid
  47. Serum “anion gap” is increased in patients with:
    1. Renal tubular acidosis
    2. Diabetic alkalosis
    3. Metabolic acidosis due to diarrhea
    4. Lactic acidosis
  48. The anion gap is useful for quality control of laboratory results for:
    1. Amino acids and proteins
    2. Blood gas analyses
    3. Sodium, potassium, chloride, and total CO2
    4. Calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium
  49. The buffering capacity of blood is maintained by a reversible exchange process between bicarbonate and:
    1. Sodium
    2. Potassium
    3. Calcium
    4. Chloride
  50. In respiratory acidosis, a compensatory mechanism is the increase in :
    1. Respiratory rate
    2. Ammonia formation
    3. Blood PCO2
    4. Plasma bicarbonate concentration

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