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5000 Plus MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists are designed to test the knowledge and proficiency of laboratory professionals who work in the field of clinical laboratory science. These questions cover a wide range of topics related to laboratory science, including anatomy, physiology, microbiology, chemistry, and hematology.

MCQs for Lab Technician

1451 to 1500 MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologist Exam Preparation

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Questions 1451 to 1500

Go to Mock Test Chapter 30
  1. Supravital staining of red cells with a deficiency of G-6-PD will demonstrate the presence of
    1. Rubriblasts
    2. Howell-Jolly bodies
    3. Heniz bodies ✔
    4. Plasmodium species
  2. A donor who recently tested positive for HBsAg should be deferred
    1. For 5 years
    2. For 1 year
    3. For 6 months
    4. Permanently ✔
  3. The end-product of purine metabolism is
    1. Uric acid ✔
    2. Creatine
    3. Creatinine
    4. Urea
  4. Water-soluble pigments are produced by
    1. Yeasts
    2. Staphylococcus epidermidis
    3. Pseudomonas aeruginosa ✔
    4. Group A streptococcus
  5. Alkaline phosphatase is GREATLY elevated in
    1. Kidney disease
    2. Obstructive jaundice ✔
    3. Liver disease
    4. Myocardial infarction
  6. A floatation method for concentration of ova and cysts used
    1. Zinc chloride
    2. Concentrated formalin
    3. Ammonium sulfate
    4. Zinc sulfate ✔
  7. The organism that can cause rheumatic fever and/or glomerular nephritis is
    1. Staphylococcus aureus
    2. Staphylococcus haemolyticus
    3. Streptococcus pyogenes ✔
    4. Streptococcus viridans
  8. In the formation of urine, the function of the glomerulus is
    1. Secretion
    2. Re-absorption of water
    3. Selective re-absorption
    4. Simple filtration ✔
  9. Metabolic acidosis can be detected by testing urine for the presence of
    1. Protein
    2. Uric acid
    3. Glucose
    4. Ketone bodies ✔
  10. A substance that produces a prolonged prothrombin time when given orally is
    1. Protamine sulfate
    2. Coumadin ✔
    3. Heparin
    4. Saliclate

  1. Which one of the following is characteristic of any antigen?
    1. Produced by action of antibody
    2. High molecular weight
    3. Foreign to animal
    4. High order of specificity ✔
  2. A variety of media may be safely stored for months is care is taken to
    1. Retain their moisture ✔
    2. Avoid exposing them to light
    3. Maintain them at room temperature
    4. Maintain them in an incubator
  3. The ketone bodies include acetoacetic acid, acetone, and
    1. Acetic acid
    2. Oxaloacetic acid
    3. Lactic acid
    4. 3-hydroxy butyric acid ✔
  4. The accepted and usual time and temperature used for the inactivation of serum is
    1. 25 C for 1 hour
    2. 37 C for 30 min
    3. 56 C for 30 min ✔
    4. 56 C for 10 min
  5. When using white blood cell pipets for performing a white cell count, blood is diluted
    1. 1:200
    2. 1:10
    3. 1:50
    4. 1:20 ✔
  6. The degree that a procedure deviates from a known value or from a calculated mean value is known as
    1. Stardard deviation ✔
    2. Coefficient variation
    3. Percent deviation
    4. Quality control
  7. Which of the following tests is specific for urinary glucose?
    1. Dip stick ✔
    2. Benedict’s
    3. Clinitest
    4. Pandy
  8. Dilute normal urine is usually
    1. Dark yellow
    2. Reddish-yellow
    3. Amber
    4. Pale yellow ✔
  9. The principle involved in some automated blood cell counters is based on the
    1. Amount of hemoglobin in the red cell
    2. Value of the cell indices
    3. Weight of the hemoglobin in the red cell
    4. Size of the particle being counted ✔
  10. All of the following influence glomerular filtration EXCEPT
    1. Hyperglycemia and renal tubule malfunction ✔
    2. Decreased renal blood flow and cardiac failure
    3. Renal or urinary calculi and decreased renal blood flow
    4. Cardiac failure and renal or urinary calculi
  11. To determine if a patient is A1 or A2, the blood is typed with
    1. Dolichos biflorus serum ✔
    2. Anti-A serum
    3. Anti-AB serum
    4. Anti-A2 serum
  12. Who is credited with processing the most readily acceptable theory of ABO inheritance?
    1. Levine
    2. Bernstein
    3. Weiner
    4. Landsteiner ✔
  13. On most automated cell counted, background counts are made using
    1. Lysing reagent only
    2. Diluting fluid ✔
    3. Distilled water
    4. Highly-diluted blood
  14. Blood group A individuals have
    1. Anti-B in their serum ✔
    2. Antigen A and B on their red cells
    3. Anti-A in their serum
    4. Anti-O in their serum
  15. The ketone test area on a dip stick is impregnated with
    1. Alkaline copper
    2. Ferric chloride
    3. 2,4 dichloraniline
    4. Nitroprusside ✔
  16. Which of the following tests is used to measure capillary fragility?
    1. Prothrombin time
    2. Bleeding time
    3. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
    4. Tourniquet ✔
  17. Most of the plasma thyroxine (T4) is
    1. Free
    2. Bound to cholesterol
    3. Bound to globulin ✔
    4. Bound to albumin
  18. The etiologic agent of chancroid is
    1. Haemophilus aegyptius
    2. Bordetella pertussis
    3. Haemophilus influenzae
    4. Haemophilus ducreyi ✔
  19. WHich one of the following is a function of gamma globulin?
    1. Transports glucose
    2. Regulates body temperature
    3. Performs as fibrinogen for blood coagulation
    4. Provides humoral immunity ✔
  20. During the maturation of a blood cell, the nuclear chromatin pattern becomes
    1. Finer
    2. More acidic
    3. Less dense
    4. More dense ✔

  1. Cerebral spinal fluid patients with post-cerebral hemmorrhage appears
    1. Light yellow or straw colored ✔
    2. Bright red
    3. Greeen
    4. Clear (colorless)
  2. Freezing point depression measurements are part of which one of the following urine test procedures?
    1. Hydrometry
    2. Refractive index
    3. Osmolality ✔
    4. Specific gravity
  3. The infective stage of the hookworm is the
    1. Rhabditiform larva with a short buccal cavity
    2. Filariform larva with a notched tail
    3. Filariform larva with a pointed tail ✔
    4. Rhabditiform larva with a long buccal cavity
  4. Enterobius vermilcularis is a
    1. Hookworm
    2. Flat worm
    3. Filarial worm
    4. Pinworm ✔
  5. Sodium is responsible for the maintenance of
    1. Blood coagulation
    2. Osmotic pressure of body fluids ✔
    3. Cardiac muscle contractions
    4. Salt intake
  6. In Taenia saginata, the larval stage develops in
    1. Man
    2. Swine
    3. Fish
    4. Cattle ✔
  7. When performing automated cell counts, most automated cell counted instruments
    1. Count nucleated red blood cells with leukocytes ✔
    2. Do not count nucleated red blood cells
    3. Count nucleated red blood cells with erythrocytes
    4. Count nucleated red blood cells with platelets
  8. Antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is NOT used in performing
    1. Reverse typing ✔
    2. Immunoglobulin testing
    3. D(u) testing
    4. Autoagglutination tests
  9. The mother of a 4-year-old child notes that her child is sleeping poorly and scratching his anal area. You suspect the child may have pinworms. Which one of the following is the BEST method to make that diagnosis?
    1. Examine the stool for the presence of trophozoites
    2. Determine the titer of IgE antibody against the organism
    3. Examine a blood smear for the presence of microfilaria
    4. Examine transparent adhesive tape for the presence of eggs ✔
    5. Examine the stool for the presence of cysts
  10. Larval stage of Taenia saginata is called
    1. hydatid cyst
    2. cysticercus cellulosae
    3. cysticercoid
    4. cysticercus bovis ✔
  11. A 4-year-old boy presents to his pediatrician with intense perianal itching. His mother explains that the child has also been extremely irritable during the day and has not been sleeping well at night. Eggs with a flattened side were identified by the laboratory technician from a piece of scotch tape brought in by the parent. Infection with which of the following organisms is most likely?
    1. Ascaris lumbricoides
    2. Entamoeba histolytica
    3. Echinococcus granulosus
    4. Trichuris trichiura
    5. Enterobius vermicularis ✔
  12. Four weeks after his arrival from Africa, a 24-year-old graduate student presents with blood in his urine. Microscopic examination of his urine reveals the presence of eggs with terminal spines. In the interview he admits that he has been working on his family’s rice field occasionally since his early childhood. The most likely etiologic agent of his complaint is
    1. Schistosoma japonicum
    2. Entamoeba histolytica
    3. Schistosoma haematobium ✔
    4. Fasciolopsis buski
    5. Schistosoma mansoni
  13. Each of the following parasites is transmitted by eating inadequately cooked fish or seafood EXCEPT:
    1. Clonorchis sinensis
    2. Ancylostoma duodenale ✔
    3. Paragonimus westermani
    4. Diphyllobothrium latum
  15. Each of the following statements concerning neisseriae is correct EXCEPT:
    1. They produce IgA protease as a virulence factor.
    2. They are oxidase-positive.
    3. They are gram-negative diplococci.
    4. They grow best under anaerobic conditions. ✔
  16. Several pathogens are transmitted either during gestation or at birth. Which one of the following is LEAST likely to be transmitted at these times?
    1. Haemophilus influenzae ✔
    2. Treponema pallidum
    3. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
    4. Chlamydia trachomatis
  17. A 30-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus is found to have a positive serologic test for syphilis (VDRL test). She denies having had sexual contact with a partner who had symptoms of a venereal disease. The next best step would be to:
    1. Perform a fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorbed (FTA-ABS) test on a specimen of her serum ✔
    2. Reassure her that the test is a false-positive reaction related to her autoimmune disorder
    3. Trace her sexual contacts for serologic testing
    4. Treat her with penicillin
  18. Each of the following is associated with the Lancefield group B streptococci (S. agalactiae) EXCEPT:
    1. Vaginal carriage in 5% to 25% of normal women of childbearing age
    2. Neonatal sepsis and meningitis
    3. Pyoderma (impetigo) ✔
    4. Beta-hemolysis
  19. Each of the following statements concerning gonorrhea is correct EXCEPT:
    1. Gonococcal conjunctivitis of the newborn rarely occurs in the United States, because silver nitrate or erythromycin is commonly used as prophylaxis.
    2. A presumptive diagnosis can be made by finding gram-negative kidney bean-shaped diplococci within neutrophils in a urethral discharge.
    3. Infection in men is more frequently symptomatic than in women.
    4. The definitive diagnosis can be made by detecting antibodies to Neisseria gonorrhoeae in the patient’s serum. ✔
  20. Each of the following statements concerning chlamydial genital tract infections is correct EXCEPT:
    1. There is no vaccine against these infections.
    2. Infection can persist after administration of penicillin.
    3. Symptomatic infections can be associated with urethral or cervical discharge containing many polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
    4. Infection can be diagnosed by finding antichlamydial antibody in a serum specimen. ✔
Go to Mock Test Chapter 30
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Chapter 31 >>

The questions are typically designed to assess the technical skills and knowledge required for the laboratory profession, including the ability to analyze laboratory test results, perform laboratory procedures, and maintain laboratory equipment.

To prepare for these MCQs, candidates should have a thorough understanding of the key concepts and principles of laboratory science. They should also be familiar with common laboratory equipment and procedures, as well as laboratory safety protocols.

Candidates may also benefit from studying specific laboratory science textbooks or taking online courses that cover the material tested in the MCQs. Additionally, practicing sample MCQs and reviewing the answers can help candidates identify areas where they may need to improve their knowledge or skills.

Overall, the MCQs for lab technologists are designed to be challenging and comprehensive, requiring candidates to demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the field of laboratory science.

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