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MCQ’s Chapter 30 (Lab)

Some of Common Questions and Answers for Laboratory Technicians and Technologists.

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MCQs Chapter 30

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Questions 1451 to 1500

  1. Supravital staining of red cells with a deficiency of G-6-PD will demonstrate the presence of 
    1. Rubriblasts
    2. Howell-Jolly bodies
    3. Heniz bodies
    4. Plasmodium species
  2. A donor who recently tested positive for HBsAg should be deferred
    1. For 5 years
    2. For 1 year
    3. For 6 months
    4. Permanently
  3. The end-product of purine metabolism is
    1. Uric acid
    2. Creatine
    3. Creatinine
    4. Urea
  4. Water-soluble pigments are produced by
    1. Yeasts
    2. Staphylococcus epidermidis
    3. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    4. Group A streptococcus
  5. Alkaline phosphatase is GREATLY elevated in 
    1. Kidney disease
    2. Obstructive jaundice
    3. Liver disease
    4. Myocardial infarction
  6. A floatation method for concentration of ova and cysts used
    1. Zinc chloride
    2. Concentrated formalin
    3. Ammonium sulfate
    4. Zinc sulfate
  7. The organism that can cause rheumatic fever and/or glomerular nephritis is 
    1. Staphylococcus aureus
    2. Staphylococcus haemolyticus
    3. Streptococcus pyogenes
    4. Streptococcus viridans
  8. In the formation of urine, the function of the glomerulus is 
    1. Secretion
    2. Re-absorption of water
    3. Selective re-absorption
    4. Simple filtration
  9. Metabolic acidosis can be detected by testing urine for the presence of 
    1. Protein
    2. Uric acid
    3. Glucose
    4. Ketone bodies
  10. A substance that produces a prolonged prothrombin time when given orally is 
    1. Protamine sulfate
    2. Coumadin
    3. Heparin
    4. Saliclate
  11. Which one of the following is characteristic of any antigen?
    1. Produced by action of antibody
    2. High molecular weight
    3. Foreign to animal
    4. High order of specificity
  12. A variety of media may be safely stored for months is care is taken to 
    1. Retain their moisture
    2. Avoid exposing them to light
    3. Maintain them at room temperature
    4. Maintain them in an incubator
  13. The ketone bodies include acetoacetic acid, acetone, and 
    1. Acetic acid
    2. Oxaloacetic acid
    3. Lactic acid
    4. 3-hydroxy butyric acid
  14. The accepted and usual time and temperature used for the inactivation of serum is 
    1. 25 C for 1 hour
    2. 37 C for 30 min
    3. 56 C for 30 min
    4. 56 C for 10 min
  15. When using white blood cell pipets for performing a white cell count, blood is diluted
    1. 1:200
    2. 1:10
    3. 1:50
    4. 1:20
  16. The degree that a procedure deviates from a known value or from a calculated mean value is known as
    1. Stardard deviation
    2. Coefficient variation
    3. Percent deviation
    4. Quality control
  17. Which of the following tests is specific for urinary glucose?
    1. Dip stick
    2. Benedict’s
    3. Clinitest
    4. Pandy
  18. Dilute normal urine is usually
    1. Dark yellow
    2. Reddish-yellow
    3. Amber
    4. Pale yellow
  19. The principle involved in some automated blood cell counters is based on the 
    1. Amount of hemoglobin in the red cell
    2. Value of the cell indices
    3. Weight of the hemoglobin in the red cell
    4. Size of the particle being counted
  20. All of the following influence glomerular filtration EXCEPT
    1. Hyperglycemia and renal tubule malfunction
    2. Decreased renal blood flow and cardiac failure
    3. Renal or urinary calculi and decreased renal blood flow
    4. Cardiac failure and renal or urinary calculi
  21. To determine if a patient is A1 or A2, the blood is typed with 
    1. Dolichos biflorus serum
    2. Anti-A serum
    3. Anti-AB serum
    4. Anti-A2 serum
  22. Who is credited with processing the most readily acceptable theory of ABO inheritance?
    1. Levine
    2. Bernstein
    3. Weiner
    4. Landsteiner
  23. On most automated cell counted, background counts are made using
    1. Lysing reagent only
    2. Diluting fluid
    3. Distilled water
    4. Highly-diluted blood
  24. Blood group A individuals have
    1. Anti-B in their serum
    2. Antigen A and B on their red cells
    3. Anti-A in their serum
    4. Anti-O in their serum
  25. The ketone test area on a dip stick is impregnated with 
    1. Alkaline copper
    2. Ferric chloride
    3. 2,4 dichloraniline
    4. Nitroprusside
  26. Which of the following tests is used to measure capillary fragility?
    1. Prothrombin time
    2. Bleeding time
    3. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
    4. Tourniquet
  27. Most of the plasma thyroxine (T4) is
    1. Free
    2. Bound to cholesterol
    3. Bound to globulin
    4. Bound to albumin
  28. The etiologic agent of chancroid is 
    1. Haemophilus aegyptius
    2. Bordetella pertussis
    3. Haemophilus influenzae
    4. Haemophilus ducreyi
  29. WHich one of the following is a function of gamma globulin?
    1. Transports glucose
    2. Regulates body temperature
    3. Performs as fibrinogen for blood coagulation
    4. Provides humoral immunity
  30. During the maturation of a blood cell, the nuclear chromatin pattern becomes
    1. Finer
    2. More acidic
    3. Less dense
    4. More dense
  31. Cerebral spinal fluid patients with post-cerebral hemmorrhage appears
    1. Light yellow or straw colored
    2. Bright red
    3. Greeen
    4. Clear (colorless)
  32. Freezing point depression measurements are part of which one of the following urine test procedures?
    1. Hydrometry
    2. Refractive index
    3. Osmolality
    4. Specific gravity
  33. The infective stage of the hookworm is the 
    1. Rhabditiform larva with a short buccal cavity
    2. Filariform larva with a notched tail
    3. Filariform larva with a pointed tail
    4. Rhabditiform larva with a long buccal cavity
  34. Enterobius vermilcularis is a 
    1. Hookworm
    2. Flat worm
    3. Filarial worm
    4. Pinworm
  35. Sodium is responsible for the maintenance of 
    1. Blood coagulation
    2. Osmotic pressure of body fluids
    3. Cardiac muscle contractions
    4. Salt intake
  36. In Taenia saginata, the larval stage develops in 
    1. Man
    2. Swine
    3. Fish
    4. Cattle
  37. When performing automated cell counts, most automated cell counted instruments
    1. Count nucleated red blood cells with leukocytes
    2. Do not count nucleated red blood cells
    3. Count nucleated red blood cells with erythrocytes
    4. Count nucleated red blood cells with platelets
  38. Antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is NOT used in performing
    1. Reverse typing
    2. Immunoglobulin testing
    3. D(u) testing
    4. Autoagglutination tests
  39. The mother of a 4-year-old child notes that her child is sleeping poorly and scratching his anal area. You suspect the child may have pinworms. Which one of the following is the BEST method to make that diagnosis?
    1. Examine the stool for the presence of trophozoites
    2. Determine the titer of IgE antibody against the organism
    3. Examine a blood smear for the presence of microfilaria
    4. Examine transparent adhesive tape for the presence of eggs
    5. Examine the stool for the presence of cysts
  40. Larval stage of Taenia saginata is called
    1. hydatid cyst
    2. cysticercus cellulosae
    3. cysticercoid
    4. cysticercus bovis
  41. A 4-year-old boy presents to his pediatrician with intense perianal itching. His mother explains that the child has also been extremely irritable during the day and has not been sleeping well at night. Eggs with a flattened side were identified by the laboratory technician from a piece of scotch tape brought in by the parent. Infection with which of the following organisms is most likely?
    1. Ascaris lumbricoides
    2. Entamoeba histolytica
    3. Echinococcus granulosus
    4. Trichuris trichiura
    5. Enterobius vermicularis
  42. Four weeks after his arrival from Africa, a 24-year-old graduate student presents with blood in his urine. Microscopic examination of his urine reveals the presence of eggs with terminal spines. In the interview he admits that he has been working on his family’s rice field occasionally since his early childhood. The most likely etiologic agent of his complaint is
    1. Schistosoma japonicum
    2. Entamoeba histolytica
    3. Schistosoma haematobium
    4. Fasciolopsis buski
    5. Schistosoma mansoni
  43. Each of the following parasites is transmitted by eating inadequately cooked fish or seafood EXCEPT:
    1. Clonorchis sinensis
    2. Ancylostoma duodenale
    3. Paragonimus westermani
    4. Diphyllobothrium latum
  44. Each of the following parasites is transmitted by eating inadequately cooked fish or seafood EXCEPT:
    1. Clonorchis sinensis
    2. Ancylostoma duodenale
    3. Paragonimus westermani
    4. Diphyllobothrium latum
  45. Each of the following statements concerning neisseriae is correct EXCEPT:
    1. They produce IgA protease as a virulence factor.
    2. They are oxidase-positive.
    3. They are gram-negative diplococci.
    4. They grow best under anaerobic conditions.
  46. Several pathogens are transmitted either during gestation or at birth. Which one of the following is LEAST likely to be transmitted at these times?
    1. Haemophilus influenzae
    2. Treponema pallidum
    3. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
    4. Chlamydia trachomatis
  47. A 30-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus is found to have a positive serologic test for syphilis (VDRL test). She denies having had sexual contact with a partner who had symptoms of a venereal disease. The next best step would be to:
    1. Perform a fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorbed (FTA-ABS) test on a specimen of her serum
    2. Reassure her that the test is a false-positive reaction related to her autoimmune disorder
    3. Trace her sexual contacts for serologic testing
    4. Treat her with penicillin
  48. Each of the following is associated with the Lancefield group B streptococci (S. agalactiae) EXCEPT:
    1. Vaginal carriage in 5% to 25% of normal women of childbearing age
    2. Neonatal sepsis and meningitis
    3. Pyoderma (impetigo)
    4. Beta-hemolysis
  49. Each of the following statements concerning gonorrhea is correct EXCEPT:
    1. Gonococcal conjunctivitis of the newborn rarely occurs in the United States, because silver nitrate or erythromycin is commonly used as prophylaxis.
    2. A presumptive diagnosis can be made by finding gram-negative kidney bean-shaped diplococci within neutrophils in a urethral discharge.
    3. Infection in men is more frequently symptomatic than in women.
    4. The definitive diagnosis can be made by detecting antibodies to Neisseria gonorrhoeae in the patient’s serum.
  50. Each of the following statements concerning chlamydial genital tract infections is correct EXCEPT:
    1. There is no vaccine against these infections.
    2. Infection can persist after administration of penicillin.
    3. Symptomatic infections can be associated with urethral or cervical discharge containing many polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
    4. Infection can be diagnosed by finding antichlamydial antibody in a serum specimen.

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