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MCQ’s Chapter 24 (Lab)

Some of Common Questions and Answers for Laboratory Technicians and Technologists.

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MCQs Chapter 24

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Questions 1151 to 1200

  1. Lithium therapy is widely used in the treatment of?  
    1. Hypertension
    2. Hyperactivity
    3. Aggression
    4. Manic-depression
  2. An arterial blood specimen submitted for blood gas analysis was obtained at 8:30 am but was not received in the laboratory until 11:00 am. The technologist should?  
    1. Perform the test immediately upon receipt
    2. Perform the test only if the specimen was submitted in ice water
    3. Request a venous blood specimen
    4. Request a new arterial specimen be obtained
  3. The anticonvulsant used to control tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizures is?  
    1. Digoxin
    2. Acetaminophen
    3. Lithium
    4. Phenytoin
  4. A carbonate salt used to control manic-depressive disorders is?
    1. Acetaminophen
    2. Lithium
    3. Phenytoin
  5. A potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L is obtained. Before reporting the results, the first step the technologist should take is to?  
    1. Check the serum for hemolysis
    2. Rerun the test
    3. Check the age of the patient
    4. Do nothing, simply report the result
  6. Specimens for blood gas determination should be drawn into a syringe containing?  
    1. No preservatives
    2. Heparin
    3. EDTA
    4. Oxalate
  7. The measurement of light scattered by particles in the sample is the principle of?  
    1. Spectrophotometer
    2. Fluorometry
    3. Nephelometry
    4. Atomic absorption
  8. Coulometry is used to measure?  
    1. Chloride
    2. PH
    3. Bicarbonate
    4. Ammonia
  9. The measurement of the amount of electricity passing between two electrodes in an electro-chemical cell is the principle of:
    1. Electrophoresis
    2. Amperometry
    3. Nephelometry
    4. Coulometry
  10. Which of the following lipid results would be expected to be falsely elevated on a serum specimen from a nonfasting patient?
    1. Cholesterol
    2. Triglyceride
    3. HDL
    4. LDL
  11. Turbidity in serum suggests elevation of?  
    1. Cholesterol
    2. Total protein
    3. Chylomicrons
    4. Albumin
  12. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay techniques (EMIT) differ from all other types of enzyme immunoassays in that?
    1. Lysozyme is the only enzyme used to label the hapten molecule
    2. No separation of bound and free antigen is required
    3. Inhibition of the enzyme label is accomplished with polyethyleneglycol
    4. Antibody absorption to polystyrene tubes precludes competition to labeled and unlabeled antigen
  13. The TRH stimulation test is useful in assessing which of the following?  
    1. TRH concentration
    2. Iodine deficiency
    3. Depression
    4. Hyperthyroidism
  14. Clinical assays for tumor markers are most important for?  
    1. Screening for the presence of cancer
    2. Monitoring the course of a known cancer
    3. Confirming the absence of disease
    4. Identifying patients at risk for cancer
  15. The following results were obtained in a creatinine clearance evaluation: Urine concentration:                                   84 mg/dL Urine volume:                                   1440 mL/24hr Serum concentration:                     1.4 mg/dL Body surface area:                          1.60 m2 (average = 1.73m2) The creatinine clearance in mL/min is:
    1. 6
    2. 22
    3. 60
    4. 65
  16. TSH is produced by the?  
    1. Hypothalamus
    2. Pituitary Gland
    3. Adrenal Cortex
    4. Thyroid
  17. Estrogen and progesterone receptor assays are useful in assessing prognosis in which of the following?
    1. Ovarian Cancer
    2. Breast Cancer
    3. Endometriosis
    4. Amenorrhea
  18. Cerebrospinal fluid for glucose assay should be?  
    1. Refrigerated
    2. Analyzed immediately
    3. Heated to 56 degrees Celsius
    4. Stored at room temperature after centrifugation
  19. An analgesic that alleviates pain without causing loss of consciousness is?
    1. Digoxin
    2. Acetaminophen
    3. Lithium
    4. Phenytoin
  20. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) are both elevated in which of the following diseases?
    1. Muscular dystrophy
    2. Viral hepatitis
    3. Pulmonary emboli
    4. Infectious mononucleosis
  21. Urobilinogen is formed in the?
    1. Kidney
    2. Spleen
    3. Liver
    4. Intestine
  22. Insufficient centrifugation will result in:
    1. A false increase in Hct value
    2. A false decrease in Hct value
    3. No effect on Hct value
    4. All of the above depending on the patient
  23. Erythrocytes that vary in size from the normal 6-8 um are described as exhibiting:
    1. Anisocytosis
    2. Hypochromia
    3. Poikilocytosis
    4. Pleocytosis
  24. Which of the following is the preferable site for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy in an adult?
    1. Iliac crest
    2. Sternum
    3. Tibia
    4. Spinous processes of the vertebra
  25. Mean cell volume (MCV) is calculated using the following:
    1. (Hgb/RBC)x10
    2. (Hct/RBC)x10
    3. (Hct/Hgb)x100
    4. (Hgb/RBC)x100
  26. What term describes the change in shape of erythrocytes seen on a Wright’s-stained peripheral blood smear:
    1. Poikilocytosis
    2. Anisocytosis
    3. Hypochromia
    4. Polychromasia
  27. Calculate the mean cell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) using the following values: Hgb: 15 g/dL RBC: 4.50 x 10^6/uL Hct: 47 mL/dL
    1. 9.5% (.095)
    2. 10.4% (.104)
    3. 31.9% (.319)
    4. 33.3% (.333)
  28. A manual white blood cell count was performed. A total of 36 cells were counted in all 9-mm^2 squares of a Neubauer-ruled hemacytometer. A 1:10 dilution was used. White is the WBC?
    1. 0.4×10^9/L
    2. 2.5×10^9/L
    3. 4.0×10^9/L
    4. 8.0×10^9/L
  29. When an erythrocyte containing iron granules is stained with Prussian blue, the cell is called a:
    1. Spherocyte
    2. Leptocyte
    3. Schistocyte
    4. Siderocyte
  30. A 7.0 mL etheylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) tube is received in teh lab containing only 2.0 mL of blood. If the lab is using manual techniques, which of the following tests will most likely be erroneous?
    1. RBC count
    2. Hemoglobin
    3. Hct
    4. WBC count
  31. A 1:200 dilution of a patient sample was made and 336 red cells were counted in an area of 0.2 mm^2. What is the RBC count?
    1. 1.68 x 10^12/L
    2. 3.36 x 10^12/L
    3. 4.47 x 10^12/L
    4. 6.66 x 10^12/L
  32. What phagocytic cells produce lysozymes that are bacteriocidal?
    1. Eosinophils
    2. Lymphocytes
    3. Platelets
    4. Neutrophils
  33. If a patient has a retic count of 7% and a Hct of 20% what is the corrected retic count?
    1. 1.4%
    2. 3.1%
    3. 3.5%
    4. 14%
  34. A decreased osmotic fragility test would be associated with which of the following conditions?
    1. Sickle cell anemia
    2. Hereditary spherocytosis
    3. Hemolytic disease of the newborn
    4. Acquired hemolytic anemia
  35. What effect would using a buffer at pH 6.0 have on a Wright’s-stained smear?
    1. Red cells would be stained too pink
    2. White cell cytoplasm would be stained too blue
    3. Red cells would be stained too blue
    4. Red cells would lyse on the slide
  36. Which of the following erythrocyte inclusions can be visualized with supravital stain but cannot be detected on a Wright’s stained blood smear?
    1. Basophilic stippling
    2. Heinz bodies
    3. Howell Jolly bodies
    4. Siderotic granules
  37. A falsely elevated Hct is obtained. Which of the following calculated values will not be affected?
    1. MCV
    2. MCH
    3. MCHC
    4. Red cell distribution width (RDW)
  38. A Miller disk is an ocular device used to facilitate counting of:
    1. Platelets
    2. Reticulocytes
    3. Sickle cells
    4. Nucleated red blood cells
  39. RBC indices obtained on a patient are as follows: MCV: 88 um^3 MCH: 30 pg MCHC: 34% The RBC on the peripheral smear would appear:
    1. Microcytic, hypochromic
    2. Microcytic, normochromic
    3. Normocytic, normochromic
    4. Normocytic, hypochromic
  40. All of the following factors may influence the ESR except:
    1. Blood drawn in a sodium citrate tube
    2. Anisocytosis, poikilocytosis
    3. Plasma proteins
    4. Caliber of the tube
  41. What staining method is used most frequently to stain and count reticulocytes?
    1. Immunofluorescence
    2. Supravital staining
    3. Romanowsky staining
    4. Cytochemical staining
  42. The Coulter principle for counting cells is based upon the fact that:
    1. Isotonic solutions conduct electricity better than cells do
    2. Conductivity varies proportionally to the number of cells
    3. Cells conduct electricity better than saline does
    4. Isotonic solutions cannot conduct electricity
  43. A correction is necessary for WBC counts when nucleated RBC are seen on the peripheral smear because:
    1. The WBC count would be falsely lower
    2. The RBC count is too low
    3. Nucleated RBC’s are counted as leukocytes
    4. Nucleated RBC’s are confused with giant platelets
  44. Using a Coulter counter analyzer, an increased RDW should correlate with:
    1. Spherocytosis
    2. Anisocytosis
    3. Leukocytosis
    4. Presence fo NRBCs
  45. Given the following values, which set of red blood cell indicies suggests spherocytosis?
    1. MCV 76 um^3 MCH 19.9 pg MCHC 28%
    2. MCV 90 um^3 MCH 30.5 pg MCHC 32.5%
    3. MCV 80 um^3 MCH 36.5 pg MCHC 39%
    4. MCV 81 um^3 MCH 29 pg MCHC 34%
  46. Which of the following statistical terms reflects the best index of precision?
    1. Mean
    2. Median
    3. Coefficient of variation
    4. Standard deviation
  47. Which of the following is considered a normal hemoglobin?
    1. Carboxyhemoglobin
    2. Methemoglobin
    3. Sulfhemoglobin
    4. Deoxyhemoglobin
  48. Which condition will shift the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the right?
    1. Acidosis
    2. Alkalosis
    3. Multiple blood transfusions
    4. Increased quantities of hemoglobin S or C
  49. Which is the major type of leukocyte seen in the peripheral smear of a patient with aplastic anemia?
    1. Segmented neutrophil
    2. Lymphocyte
    3. Monocyte
    4. Eosinophil
  50. What is the normal WBC differential lymphocyte percentage (range) in the adult population?
    1. 20-50%
    2. 10-20%
    3. 5-10%
    4. 50-70%

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