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MCQ’s Chapter 33 (Lab)

Some of Common Questions and Answers for Laboratory Technicians and Technologists.

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MCQs Chapter 33
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Questions 1601 to 1650

  1. Each of the following events involves recombinantion of DNA EXCEPT:
    1. Transduction of a chromosomal gene
    2. Integration of a temperate bacteriophage
    3. Transposition of a mobile genetic element
    4. Conjugation, eg, transfer of an R (resistance) factor
  2. Mutations in katG gene of Mycobacterium tuberculosis are responsible for resistance to: isoniazid (INH)11XDR TB is defined as
    1. Strain resistant to more than one drug (excluding co resistance to INH and rif)
    2. resistant to two most effective first-line therapeutic drugs, isoniazid and rifampin irrespective of resistance to any other drug
    3. MDR TB that also is resistant to fluoroquinolones and at least one of the three injectable second-line drugs used to treat TB (amikacin, kanamycin, or capreomycin)
    4. MDR TB that is resistant to either one of the injectable second line drugs or second-line therapeutic fluoroquinolones
  3. A case of leprosy with good Cell mediated immunity usually presents as following form of disease
    1. Tuberculoid
    2. Lepromatous
    3. Indeterminate
    4. Borderline
  4. Which of the following environmental factors do NOT increase the probability that M tuberculosis will be transmitted?
    1. Inadequate local or general ventilation that results in insufficient dilution or removal of infectious droplet nuclei.
    2. Improper specimen handling procedures that generate infectious droplet nuclei.
    3. Recirculation of air containing infectious droplet nuclei.
    4. Negative pressure in an infectious TB patient’s room.
    5. Exposure in small enclosed spaces.
  5. Tubercular Granulomas are made up of
    1. damaged tissue cells and bacilli only
    2. fibrous and damaged tissue and bacilli only
    3. organized aggregates of immune cells that surround foci of infected tissues
    4. necrotic tissue and damaged tissue and bacilli only
  6. MDR TB is defined as resistance to
    1. more than three anti tubercular drugs
    2. fluoroquinolones and at least one of the three injectable second-line drugs used to treat TB
    3. Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide and Rifampicin
    4. isoniazid and rifampin irrespective of resistance to any other drug
  7. Swimming pool granuloma is caused by
    1. M. chelonei
    2. M. marinum
    3. M. tuberculosis
    4. M. ulcerancs
  8. Cord growth seen on mycobacterial culture is characteristic of
    1. Saprophytic strains
    2. Virulent strains
    3. Avirulent strains
    4. Atypical mycobacteria
  9. Buruli ulcer is caused by
    1. M. marinum
    2. M. chelonei
    3. M. ulcerancs
    4. M. tuberculosis
  10. The scientist who discovered M. tuberculosis was:
    1. Louis Pasteur
    2. Jean-Antoine Villemin
    3. Robert Koch
    4. Calmette and Guerin
  11. The mother of a 4-year-old child notes that her child is sleeping poorly and scratching his anal area. You suspect the child may have pinworms. Which one of the following is the BEST method to make that diagnosis?
    1. Examine a blood smear for the presence of microfilaria
    2. Examine the stool for the presence of cysts
    3. Determine the titer of IgE antibody against the organism
    4. Examine the stool for the presence of trophozoites
    5. Examine transparent adhesive tape for the presence of eggs
  12. Each of the following statements concerning Schistosoma haematobium is correct EXCEPT:
    1. S. haematobium infection predisposes to bladder carcinoma.
    2. S. haematobium is acquired by humans when cercariae penetrate the skin.
    3. Snails are intermediate hosts of S. haematobium.
    4. S. haematobium eggs have no spine.
  13. A 34-year-old woman presents to her physician with complaints of midepigastric pain. She describes the pain as moderate, occasionally waking her at night, and improving immediately following meals. A urease breath test was positive. Which of the following correctly describes the causal agent?
    1. Gram-negative rod; aerobic
    2. Gram-negative rod; facultative anaerobe
    3. Gram-negative curved rod; microaerophilic 11
    4. Gram-positive rod; aerobic
    5. Gram-positive rod; microaerophilic
  14. Cholera toxin effects are mediated by stimulation of which of the following second messengers:
    1. cGMP
    2. Ca++ calmodulin
    3. cAMP 11
    4. IP3/DAG
  15. An infant presents to the emergency department due to difficulty breathing, constipation, and anorexia. Upon examination, the physician notes flaccid paralysis. A toxin screen of the stool identified the agent. What is the mechanism of action of the toxin?
    1. ADP ribosylation of eukaryotic elongation factor 2 (eEF-2)
    2. ADP ribosylation of Gi
    3. Blocks release of inhibitory transmitters GABA and glycine
    4. ADP ribosylation of GTP-binding protein
    5. Blocks release of acetylcholine
  16. A group of 6 college students undertake to climb Mt. Rainier outside Seattle on their spring break. They pack food and camping provisions except for water, which they obtain from the many fresh water mountain streams that arise at the summit. The adventure takes a little over a week to accomplish, and all return safely in good spirits to their classes the following week. Within the first week after their return, 5 of the 6 students report to the infirmary with profuse diarrhea and tenesmus. Each affected student experiences weakness and weight loss, and stool samples submitted to the lab are yellow, greasy, and foul smelling. What attribute of this parasite imparts its pathogenicity?
    1. Encystment
    2. Lytic enzymes
    3. Toxic metabolites
    4. Flagella
    5. Ventral sucking disc
  17. Each of the following statements concerning Strongyloides stercoralis is correct EXCEPT:
    1. S. stercoralis produces filariform larvae.
    2. Migrating larvae of S. stercoralis induce a marked eosinophilia.
    3. S. stercoralis is acquired by ingestion of eggs.
    4. S. stercoralis undergoes a free-living life cycle in soil.
  18. Each of the following statements concerning exotoxins is correct EXCEPT:
    1. Botulism is caused by a toxin that hydrolyzes lecithin (lecithinase), thereby destroying nerve cells.
    2. Some strains of Escherichia coli produce an enterotoxin that causes diarrhea.
    3. Cholera toxin acts by stimulating adenylate cyclase.
    4. Diphtheria is caused by an exotoxin that inhibits protein synthesis by inactivating an elongation factor.
  19. Each of the following statements concerning Ascaris lumbricoides is correct EXCEPT:
    1. A. lumbricoides can cause pneumonia.
    2. Both dogs and cats are intermediate hosts of A. lumbricoides.
    3. A. lumbricoides is transmitted by ingestion of eggs.
    4. A. lumbricoides is one of the largest nematodes.
  20. Which of the following ‘Vibrios’ is most commonly associated with ear infections:
    1. V. parahemolyticus
    2. V. fulnifcus
    3. Vibrio fluvialis
    4. V. alginolyticus
  21. A 4-year-old boy presents to his pediatrician with intense perianal itching. His mother explains that the child has also been extremely irritable during the day and has not been sleeping well at night. Eggs with a flattened side were identified by the laboratory technician from a piece of scotch tape brought in by the parent. Infection with which of the following organisms is most likely?
    1. Echinococcus granulosus
    2. Trichuris trichiura
    3. Enterobius vermicularis
    4. Ascaris lumbricoides
    5. Entamoeba histolytica
  22. An HIV-positive patient with a CD4+ count of 47 presents with diarrhea. Acidfast structures are found in the stool. From this finding, which of the following is true?
    1. Even with the best treatment, the infection may be unrelenting
    2. Infection will resolve only with a combination of antituberculous drugs, and then it may take weeks
    3. Infection is short lasting and self-resolving and requires no treatment
    4. Infection could have been prevented by avoiding cat feces and undercooked or raw meat
    5. If treated with antibiotics, the infection should resolve in 3-6 days
  23. Five days ago a 65-year-old woman with a lower urinary tract infection began taking ampicillin. She now has a fever and severe diarrhea. Of the organisms listed, which one is MOST likely to be the cause of the diarrhea?
    1. Bacteroides fragilis
    2. Proteus mirabilis
    3. Bordetella pertussis
    4. Clostridium difficile
  24. Children at day care centers in the United States have a high rate of infection with which one of the following?
    1. Ascaris lumbricoides
    2. Enterobius vermicularis
    3. Entamoeba histolytica
    4. Necator americanus
  25. A 32-year-old man who recently visited Nepal on business presents to the emergency department with profuse watery diarrhea flecked with mucus, and severe dehydration. Which of the following correctly describes the causal agent?
    1. Gram-negative curved rod; toxin that increases cAMP
    2. Gram-negative rod; toxin that inhibits protein synthesis
    3. Gram-negative rod; toxin that increases cAMP
    4. Intoxication with a heat labile toxin that blocks the release of acetylcholine
    5. Gram-negative curved rod; toxin that inhibits protein synthesis
  26. Each of the following statements concerning Diphyllobothrium latum is correct EXCEPT:
    1. D. latum has operculated eggs.
    2. D. latum causes a megaloblastic anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency.
    3. D. latum is a tapeworm that has a scolex with a circle of hooks. 11
    4. D. latum is transmitted by undercooked fish.
  27. Each of the following statements concerning gram-negative rods is correct EXCEPT:
    1. E. coli ferments lactose, whereas the enteric pathogens Shigella and Salmonella do not.
    2. Escherichia coli is part of the normal flora of the colon; therefore, it does not cause diarrhea.
    3. Klebsiella pneumoniae, although a cause of pneumonia, is part of the normal flora of the colon.
    4. Proteus species are highly motile organisms that are found in the human colon and cause urinary tract infections.
  28. Each of the following parasites passes through the lung during human infection EXCEPT:
    1. Wuchereria bancrofti
    2. Ascaris lumbricoides
    3. Necator americanus
    4. Strongyloides stercoralis
  29. Pigs or dogs are the source of human infection by each of the following parasites EXCEPT:
    1. Trichinella spiralis
    2. Ascaris lumbricoides
    3. Echinococcus granulosus
    4. Taenia solium
  30. Endotoxin of which gram negative bacteria have no part in pathogenesis of disease:
    1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    2. E. coli
    3. Klebsiella
    4. Vibrio cholera
  31. In the U.S., a baby has the greatest chance of acquiring which virus in utero?
    1. Rubella virus
    2. Hepatitis B virus
    3. Herpes simplex virus
    4. Respiratory syncytial virus
    5. Cytomegalovirus
  32. Which one of the following is the BEST explanation for the selective action of acyclovir (acycloguanosine) in herpes simplex virus (HSV)-infected cells?
    1. Acyclovir binds specifically to viral receptors only on the surface of the HSV-infected cell.
    2. Acyclovir selectively inhibits the RNA polymerase in the HSV virion.
    3. Acyclovir specifically blocks the matrix protein of HSV, thereby preventing release of progeny HSV.
    4. Acyclovir is phosphorylated by a virus-encoded phosphokinase only within HSV-infected cells.
  33. Varicella-zoster virus and herpes simplex virus share many characteristics. Which one of the following characteristics is NOT shared?
    1. Linear, double-stranded DNA genome
    2. Inapparent disease, manifested only by virus shedding, is common
    3. Vesicular rash
    4. Persistence of latent virus after recovery from acute disease
  34. A 24-year-old primiparous woman in her eighth month of gestation develops a positive IgM titer to Toxoplasma gondii for the first time. She should be advised by her physician that
    1. a newborn with a positive anti-Toxoplasma IgG response should be treated with anti-parasitics
    2. major organ damage can be reversed by prompt treatment of the newborn
    3. this child and all future fetuses are likely to be infected
    4. retinochoroiditis can be prevented by drug treatment of an infant with a positive IgM response
    5. future infections can be avoided by proper vaccination and worming of cats
  35. Which one of the following outcomes is MOST common following a primary herpes simplex virus infection?
    1. Persistent asymptomatic viremia
    2. Persistent cytopathic effect in infected cells
    3. Complete eradication of virus and virus-infected cells
    4. Establishment of latent infection
  36. Which one of the following statements about genital herpes is LEAST accurate?
    1. Initial disease episodes are generally more severe than recurrent episodes.
    2. Multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusions are found in the lesions.
    3. Genital herpes can be transmitted in the absence of apparent lesions.
    4. Acyclovir reduces the number of recurrent disease episodes by eradicating latently infected cells.
  37. Each of the following statements concerning Toxoplasma gondii is correct EXCEPT:
    1. T. gondii can be transmitted across the placenta to the fetus.
    2. T. gondii can be transmitted by cat feces.
    3. T. gondii can cause encephalitis in immunocompromised patients.
    4. T. gondii can be diagnosed by finding trophozoites in the stool.
  38. Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) is distinct from HSV-2 in several different ways. Which one of the following is the LEAST accurate statement?
    1. HSV-1 causes lesions above the umbilicus more frequently than HSV-2 does.
    2. Infection by HSV-1 is not associated with any tumors in humans.
    3. Antiserum to HSV-1 neutralizes HSV-1 much more effectively than HSV-2.
    4. HSV-1 causes frequent recurrences, whereas HSV-2 infection rarely recurs.
  39. Herpes simplex virus and cytomegalovirus share many features. Which one of the following features is LEAST likely to be shared?
    1. Important cause of morbidity and mortality in the newborn
    2. Important cause of serious disease in immunosuppressed individuals
    3. Congenital abnormalities due to transplacental passage
    4. Mild or inapparent infection
  40. A 6-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a fever and a lacy body rash. Her mother says that yesterday the rash was only on her face, but by this morning, had spread to her trunk and extremities. Which of the following agents is most likely?
    1. Rubella
    2. Varicella zoster virus
    3. Parvovirus B19
    4. Measles
    5. HHV-6
  41. The neuraminidase of influenza virus exhibit all the following properties EXCEPT
    1. lowers the viscosity of the mucous film in the respiratory tract
    2. forms a spike structure composed of four identical monomers, each with enzyme activity
    3. facilitates release of virus particles from infected cells
    4. is embedded in the outer surface of the viral envelope
    5. attaches with the sialic acid receptor present in upper respiratory tract
  42. Internationally accepted naming convention is used for the nomenclature of Influenza Virus. WHO has reported the outbreak of A/duck/X/Y/Z (H1N1) influenza virus? What does X denotes in this nomenclature?
    1. Strain Id
    2. Year of isolation
    3. Origin
    4. Type
  43. Which of the following statements concerning antigenic drift in influenza viruses is correct?
    1. It results in major antigenic changes
    2. It results in new sub types over time
    3. It is due to frame shift mutations in viral genes
    4. It is exhibited by only influenza A viruses
    5. It affects predominantly the matrix protein
  44. A 42 year old man developed a “flu-like” syndrome with fever, sore throat, headache, and myalgia. Viral culture was ordered for laboratory confirmation of influenza. Which of the following would be the best specimen for isolating virus responsible for the infection?
    1. Blood
    2. Vesicle fluid
    3. Stool
    4. Saliva
    5. Nasopharyngeal washing
  45. All of the following is responsible for the genetic diversity of Influenza A virus EXCEPT
    1. RNA Virus
    2. Ability to grow in many species
    3. Ability to attach in sialic acid receptor
    4. Segmented genome
  46. What virus commonly undergoes both antigenic shifts and antigenic drifts?
    1. Influenza
    2. HIV
    3. Rabies
    4. Rotavirus
    5. Ebola
  47. The type specific antigen (A, B or C) of influenza viruses is found on which viral constituent?
    1. Hemagglutinin
    2. Lipid in viral envelope
    3. Major structural protein
    4. Nucleocapsid
    5. Neuraminidase
  48. Which of the following statements reflects the pathogenesis of influenza virus?
    1. Pneumonia is not associated with secondary bacterial infections
    2. The virus frequently establishes persistent infections in the lung
    3. The virus enters the host in airborne droplets
    4. Viral infection does not kill cells in the respiratory tract
    5. Viremia is common
  49. Influenza virus contains hemagglutinin and neuraminidase. What does these represent?
    1. Proteins found in the nucleus of influenza virus
    2. Proteins that surround each segment of the nucleic acid in influenza
    3. Glycoproteins on influenza virus that contribute to virulence
    4. Glycoprotein receptors on influenza’s target cells
    5. Exotoxins produced by the influenza virus

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