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MCQ’s Chapter 34 (Lab)

Some of Common Questions and Answers for Laboratory Technicians and Technologists.

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MCQsChapter 34
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Questions 1651 to 1700

  1. All of the following statements correctly describes the properties of Influenza A virus EXCEPT
    1. Single stranded positive sense RNA virus
    2. Viral transcription occurs in the nucleus
    3. Mature virion are released by budding
    4. Attaches to cell-surface sialic acid
  2. Which of the following items could be sterilized by dry heat sterilization?
    1. glass pipette
    2. Intravenous (IV) solution
    3. Plastic IV bags
    4. plastic petri dishes
    5. rubber gloves
  3. Which factor has an impact on the effectiveness of a disinfectant?
    1. the disinfectant solution is more potent after several uses
    2. using soap in the sanitization process is desirable
    3. items should be placed in the disinfectant bath wet
    4. evaporation can alter the chemical makeup of the solution
  4. Which of the following substances can sterilize?
    1. Chlorine
    2. Alcohol
    3. Cetylpyridinium chloride
    4. Silver nitrate
    5. Ethylene oxide
  5. Which of the following process does not kill bacterial endospores?
    1. Autoclave
    2. Incineration
    3. Pasteurization
    4. Hot air sterilization
  6. The most suitable way of sterilization of oils and fats is:
    1. Pasteurization
    2. Autoclaving
    3. Hot air oven
    4. Tyndallisation
  7. Any process that destroys the non-spore-forming contaminants on inanimate objects is:
    1. antisepsis
    2. Disinfection
    3. degermation
    4. sterilization
  8. Which is a form of cold sterilization
    1. Infrared rays
    2. Gamma rays
    3. UV rays
    4. Steam sterilization
  9. Browne’s tube is used as indicator for efficacy of:
    1. Ultraviolet rays
    2. Filtration
    3. Heat sterilization
    4. Chemical sterilization
  10. Identify the term that is used to ensure surgical instruments are free from micro-organisms:
    1. Debrided
    2. Disinfected
    3. Sterilization
    4. Cleaned
  11. All of the following are sporicidal except
    1. glutaraldehyde
    2. alcohol
    3. formaldehyde
    4. stabilized hydrogen peroxide
    5. ethylene oxide
  12. The lowest temperature that kills all microorganisms in a liquid suspension in 10 minutes is known as the
    1. thermal death time
    2. thermal death temperature
    3. thermal death point
    4. decimal reduction time
    5. D value
  13. The time in minutes at a specific temperature needed to kill a population of cells is the
    1. D value
    2. thermal death temperature
    3. decimal reduction time
    4. F value
    5. thermal death point
  14. Which of the following is commonly used in the laboratory setting to provide a measure of protection against transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
    1. germicidal soap
    2. bleach
    3. hot air
    4. iodine
  15. Which of the following method is best to sterilize heat labile solutions?
    1. Autoclave
    2. Hot Air Oven
    3. Membrane filtration
    4. Pasteurization
  16. Which of the following scientist introduced the “Sterilization” technique?
    1. Louis Pasteur
    2. Joseph Lister
    3. John Needham
    4. Robert Koch
  17. Sharp instruments should not be sterilized by:
    1. Autoclaving
    2. Hot air ovens
    3. Boiling
    4. Chemical disinfectants
  18. Which of the following methods of infection control requires the use of an autoclave?
    1. irradiation
    2. sanitization
    3. disinfection
    4. sterilization
  19. Which of the following is permissible in ultrasonic cleaning?
    1. place all instruments together in the special bath
    2. remove the instruments from the ultrasonic cleaner and immediately wrap in a towel without rinsing
    3. place all instruments with hinges or ratchets in the ultrasonic cleaner in the closed position
    4. reuse the ultrasonic cleaning solution for several baths
  20. Which of the following methods is useful for sterilization of antisera?
    1. Autoclaving
    2. Tyndallisation
    3. Hot air oven
    4. Filtration
  21. Tyndallization is a type of
    1. Pasteurization
    2. Boiling
    3. Intermittent sterilization
    4. Dry heat
  22. Which of the following disinfectants acts by disrupting microbial membranes?
    1. Aldehydes
    2. Sterilizing gases
    3. Heavy metals
    4. Halogens
    5. Cationic detergents
  23. Which of the following is most effective for sterilizing mattresses and plastic Petri plates?
    1. Glutaraldehyde
    2. Chlorine
    3. Ultraviolet radiation
    4. Ethylene oxide
    5. Autoclave
  24. Each of the following statements concerning the killing of bacteria is correct EXCEPT:
    1. Iodine kills by causing the formation of thymine dimers in bacterial DNA.
    2. An autoclave uses steam under pressure to reach the killing temperature of 121°C.
    3. A 70% solution of ethanol kills more effectively than absolute (100%) ethanol.
    4. The pasteurization of milk kills pathogens but allows many organisms and spores to survive.
  25. Which of the following is bactericidal?
    1. Membrane filtration
    2. Ionizing radiation
    3. Freeze-drying
    4. Deep freezing
  26. Identify the term that can describe a disinfectant that can inhibit the growth of fungi:
    1. fungistatic
    2. microbiostatic
    3. microbicidal
    4. fungicidal 11
  27. A 13-year-old boy from India was brought to the emergency room with a prolapsed rectum. Examination of the rectum reveals small worms that resemble whips attached to the mucosa. A stool sample reveals eggs that are barrel shaped, with bipolar plugs. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
    1. Trichuris trichiura
    2. Echinococcus granulosus
    3. Ascaris lumbricoides
    4. Giardia lamblia
    5. Enterobius vermicularis
    6. Entamoeba histolytica
  28. Pigs or dogs are the source of human infection by each of the following parasites EXCEPT:
    1. Echinococcus granulosus
    2. Ascaris lumbricoides
    3. Trichinella spiralis
    4. Taenia solium
  29. Each of the following statements concerning hookworm infection is correct EXCEPT:
    1. Hookworm infection is acquired by humans when filariform larvae penetrate the skin.
    2. Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding the trophozoite in the stool.
    3. Hookworm infection is caused by Necator americanus.
    4. Hookworm infection can cause anemia.
  30. Each of the following statements concerning trichinosis is correct EXCEPT:
    1. Trichinosis is caused by a protozoan that has both a trophozoite and a cyst stage in its life cycle.
    2. Eosinophilia is a prominent finding.
    3. Trichinosis is acquired by eating undercooked pork.
    4. Trichinosis can be diagnosed by seeing cysts in muscle biopsy specimens.
  31. Each of the following parasites passes through the lung during human infection EXCEPT:
    1. Strongyloides stercoralis
    2. Necator americanus
    3. Ascaris lumbricoides
    4. Wuchereria bancrofti
  32. Children at day care centers in the United States have a high rate of infection with which one of the following?
    1. Ascaris lumbricoides
    2. Entamoeba histolytica
    3. Enterobius vermicularis
    4. Necator americanus
  33. At a school nurse’s request, a clinic in rural South Carolina sees a 9-year-old girl who appears listless and inattentive, although hearing and visual testing has been within normal limits. The physician finds the child thin, with the “potbelly” of malnutrition, and orders a fecal exam and CBC. The CBC reveals a microcytic, hypochrornic anemia, and the fecal exam detects brown, oval nematode eggs approximately 65 microns in size, too numerous to count. What was the most likely means by which this child was infected?
    1. Ingestion of larvae
    2. Skin penetration by larvae
    3. Ingestion of ova
    4. Ingestion of cysts in muscle
    5. Mosquito transmission of sporozoites
  34. Each of the following parasites is transmitted by eating inadequately cooked fish or seafood EXCEPT:
    1. Paragonimus westermani
    2. Clonorchis sinensis
    3. Diphyllobothrium latum
    4. Ancylostoma duodenale
  35. A 4-year-old boy presents to his pediatrician with intense perianal itching. His mother explains that the child has also been extremely irritable during the day and has not been sleeping well at night. Eggs with a flattened side were identified by the laboratory technician from a piece of scotch tape brought in by the parent. Infection with which of the following organisms is most likely?
    1. Echinococcus granulosus
    2. Enterobius vermicularis
    3. Entamoeba histolytica
    4. Trichuris trichiura
    5. Ascaris lumbricoides
  36. The mother of a 4-year-old child notes that her child is sleeping poorly and scratching his anal area. You suspect the child may have pinworms. Which one of the following is the BEST method to make that diagnosis?
    1. Determine the titer of IgE antibody against the organism
    2. Examine a blood smear for the presence of microfilaria
    3. Examine transparent adhesive tape for the presence of eggs
    4. Examine the stool for the presence of cysts
    5. Examine the stool for the presence of trophozoites
  37. Each of the following statements concerning Ascaris lumbricoides is correct EXCEPT:
    1. A. lumbricoides is one of the largest nematodes.
    2. A. lumbricoides can cause pneumonia.
    3. A. lumbricoides is transmitted by ingestion of eggs.
    4. Both dogs and cats are intermediate hosts of A. lumbricoides.
  38. Each of the following statements concerning Strongyloides stercoralis is correct EXCEPT:
    1. Migrating larvae of S. stercoralis induce a marked eosinophilia.
    2. S. stercoralis is acquired by ingestion of eggs.
    3. S. stercoralis undergoes a free-living life cycle in soil.
    4. S. stercoralis produces filariform larvae.
  39. Each of the following organisms is an important cause of urinary tract infections EXCEPT:
    1. Proteus mirabilis
    2. Escherichia coli
    3. Klebsiella pneumoniae
    4. Bacteroides fragilis
  40. A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with intense pain in her lower back and a burning sensation upon urination. A urine culture was taken and plated on MacConkey agar. Gram-negative rods that did not ferment lactose were identified. Which virulence factor of the causal agent is most important to pathogenesis?
    1. Coagulase
    2. Catalase
    3. Capsule
    4. Exotoxin
    5. Urease
  41. A 65-year-old man develops dysuria and hematuria. A Gram stain of a urine sample shows gram-negative rods. Culture of the urine on EMB agar reveals lactose-negative colonies without evidence of swarming motility. Which one of the following organisms is MOST likely to be the cause of his urinary tract infection?
    1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    2. Enterococcus faecalis
    3. Escherichia coli
    4. Proteus vulgaris
  42. A 9-year-old child develops glomerulonephritis a week after she was treated for a sore throat. The causal agent is identified by serotyping of the
    1. capsule
    2. teichoic acids
    3. M proteins
    4. outer membrane proteins
    5. pili
  43. A 4-year-old girl has papular and pustular lesions on her face. The lesions are exuding a honey-colored serous fluid. You make a clinical diagnosis of impetigo. A Gram stain of the exudate reveals gram-positive cocci in chains, and a culture reveals ß-hemolytic colonies on blood agar. For which one of the following sequelae is she MOST at risk?
    1. Bloody diarrhea
    2. Paralysis of the facial nerve (Bell’s palsy)
    3. Red blood cells and albumin in her urine
    4. Blurred vision
  44. A 70-year-old man is found to have a hard mass in his prostate, which is suspected to be a carcinoma. Twenty-four hours after surgical removal of the mass, he develops fever to 39°C and has several shaking chills. Of the organisms listed, which one is LEAST likely to be involved?
    1. Legionella pneumophila
    2. Escherichia coli
    3. Enterococcus faecalis
    4. Klebsiella pneumoniae
  45. Acute glomerulonephritis is a nonsuppurative complication that follows infection by which one of the following organisms?
    1. Streptococcus pyogenes
    2. Enterococcus faecalis
    3. Streptococcus agalactiae
    4. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  46. A 60-year-old woman is hospitalized following a stroke and develops a highgrade fever with chills. She is catheterized due to urinary incontinence and receives cephalosporin for treatment of pneumonia. Blood cultures and Gram stain are performed by the laboratory. The organisms isolated are gram-positive cocci that are catalase-negative and capable of growth in 6.5% sodium chloride. Which of the following is the most likely causal agent?
    1. Staphylococcus aureus
    2. Enterococcus faecalis
    3. Viridans streptococci
    4. Streptococcus pyogenes
    5. Staphylococcus epidermidis
  47. A 27-year-old woman, after returning home from her honeymoon, has developed urinary frequency, dysuria, and urgency. Her urine is grossly bloody. Which lab data are most likely to define the causal agent?
    1. A gram-positive bacillus grown on a low oxidation-reduction medium
    2. An optochin-resistant, catalase-negative, gram-positive coccus
    3. A gram-negative diplococcus, which is oxidase positive but does not ferment maltose
    4. A gram-positive coccus, which is catalase positive and coagulase negative
    5. A gram-negative bacterium capable of reducing nitrates to nitrites
  48. Four weeks after his arrival from Africa, a 24-year-old graduate student presents with blood in his urine. Microscopic examination of his urine reveals the presence of eggs with terminal spines. In the interview he admits that he has been working on his family’s rice field occasionally since his early childhood. The most likely etiologic agent of his complaint is
    1. Schistosoma haematobium
    2. Schistosoma japonicum
    3. Entamoeba histolytica
    4. Schistosoma mansoni
    5. Fasciolopsis buski
  49. The first vaccine for human use produced using recombinant DNA technology was the:
    1. Hepatitis A vaccine
    2. Polio vaccine
    3. AIDS vaccine
    4. MMR vaccine
    5. Hepatitis B vaccine
  50. Disease caused by which one of the following bacteria can be prevented by a toxoid vaccine?
    1. Haemophilus influenzae
    2. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    3. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
    4. Salmonella typhi
    5. Neisseria meningitidis

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