5000 Plus MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists are designed to test the knowledge and proficiency of laboratory professionals who work in the field of clinical laboratory science. These questions cover a wide range of topics related to laboratory science, including anatomy, physiology, microbiology, chemistry, and hematology.
3251 to 3300 MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologist Exam Preparation
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Questions 3251 to 3300
The utilization of light energy to drive the synthesis of ATP is called as
- a) Photolysis
- b) Photophosphorylation
- c) Photosynthesis
- d) Respiration
During cyclic phosphorylation NADP is formed or not.
- a) No NADP formation
- b) No NADP utilization
- c) NADP is converted into NADPH
- d) All are correct
Cyclic phosphorylation is generally present in
- a) Cyanobacteria
- b) Algae
- c) Bacteria
- d) Plants
Non-cyclic photophosphorylation is also known as
- a) Oxygenic photosynthesis
- b) Photosynthesis
- c) Anoxygenic photosynthesis
- d) Photophosphorylation
The number of ATP molecules formed during cyclic phosphorylation are
- a) One
- b) Two
- c) Four
- d) Six
Artificial transformation in laboratory is carried out by treating the cells with
- a) MgCl2
- b) CaCl2
- c) NaCl
- d) HCl
The process of formation of mesozygote is called
- a) Meromixis
- b) Exozygote
- c) Mitosis
- d) Meiosis
Which of the following organisms requires tryptophan for growth?
- a) H. influenza
- b) Vibrio
- c) Gonococci
- d) S. typhi
Tubercular bacilli grow best in
- a) Absence of O2
- b) Presence of CO2
- c) Presence of O2
- d) None of these
Mycotoxins are formed during the end of
- a) Lag phase
- b) Log phase
- c) Death phase
- d) Stationary phase
The suitable temperature to transport viral culture is
- a) 30°C
- b) 5°C
- c) 25°C
- d) 45°C
- e) None of these
Growth curve does not include following phases of bacteria
- a) Decline phase
- b) Stationary phase
- c) Lag phase
- d) Synchronous growth
Bacteria are more sensitive to antibiotics at which phase of growth curve?
- a) Decline phase
- b) Stationary phase
- c) Lag phase
- d) Log phase
A peculiar cytochrome is observed in bacteria and it can react with molecular oxygen, what is it?
- a) Cyt b
- b) Cyt c
- c) Cyt d
- d) Cyt o
The genetic material in HIV is
- a) ds DNA
- b) ss DNA
- c) ss RNA
- d) None of these
Which one of the following mutagens act only on replicating DNA?
- a) Ethidium bromide
- b) Nitrosogeranidine
- c) Acridine orange
- d) None of above
Poly A tail is frequently found in
- a) Histone in RNA
- b) Bacterial RNA
- c) Eukaryotic RNA
- d) tRNA
Which of the following is an example of RNA virus?
- a) SV 40
- b) T4 phage
- c) Tobacco mosaic virus
- d) Adeno virus
Genomic DNA is extracted, broken into fragments of reasonable size by a restriction endonuclease and then inserted into a cloning vector to generate chimeric vectors. The cloned fragments are called
- a) Clones
- b) Genomic library
- c) mRNA
- d) None of these
Transgenic animals are produced when GH gene fused with
- a) MT gene
- b) GH
- c) GRF
- d) FIX
In which medium the hybridoma cells grow selectively?
- a) Polyethylene glycol
- b) Hypoxanthine aminopterin thymine
- c) Hypoxanthine-guanin phosphoribosyl transferase
- d) Both second and third
The enzymes which are commonly used in genetic engineering are
- a) Exonuclease and ligase
- b) Restriction endonuclease and polymerase
- c) Ligase and polymerase
- d) Restriction endonuclease and ligase
A successful hybridoma was produced by fusing
- a) Plasma cells and plasmids
- b) Plasma cells and myeloma cells
- c) Myeloma cells and plasmids
- d) Plasma cells and bacterial cells
The technique involved in comparing the DNA components of two samples is known as
- a) Monoclonal antibody techniques
- b) Genetic fingerprinting
- c) Recombinant DNA technology
- d) Polymerase chain reaction
Plasmids are ideal vectors for gene cloning as
- a) They can be multiplied by culturing
- b) They can be multiplied in the laboratory using enzymes
- c) They can replicate freely outside the bacterial cell
- d) They are self replicating within the bacterial cell
Humans normally have 46 chromosomes in skin cells. How many autosomes would be expected in a kidney cell?
- a) 46
- b) 23
- c) 47
- d) 44
Pasteur effect is due to
- a) Change from aerobic to anaerobic
- b) Providing oxygen to anaerobically respiring structures
- c) Rapid utilization of ATP
- d) Nonsynthesis of ATP
A mechanism that can cause a gene to move from one linkage group to another is
- a) Translocation
- b) Inversion
- c) Crossing over
- d) Duplication
The smallest unit of genetic material that can undergo mutation is called
- a) Gene
- b) Cistron
- c) Replicon
- d) Muton
The two chromatids of metaphase chromosome represent
- a) Replicated chromosomes to be separated at anaphase
- b) Homologous chromosomes of a diploid set
- c) Non-homologous chromosomes joined at the centromere
- d) Maternal and paternal chromosomes joined at the centromere
Malate dehydrogenase enzyme is a
- a) Transferase
- b) Hydrolase
- c) Isomerase
- d) Oxido reductase
In E.Coli att site is in between
- a) Gal and biogenes
- b) Bio and niacin genes
- c) Gal and B genes
- d) None of these
The best vector for gene cloning
- a) Relaxed control plasmid
- b) Stringent control plasmid
- c) Both a and b
- d) None of these
A gene that takes part in the synthesis of polypeptide is
- a) Structural gene
- b) Regulator gene
- c) Operator gene
- d) Promoter gene
DNA replicates during
- a) G1 – phase
- b) S – phase
- c) G2 – phase
- d) M – phase
A human cell containing 22 autosome and a ‘Y’ chromosome is probably a
- a) Male somatic cell
- b) Zygote
- c) Female somatic cell
- d) Sperm cell
Crossing-over most commonly occurs during
- a) Prophase I
- b) Prophase II
- c) Anaphase I
- d) Telophase II
DNA-replication is by the mechanism of
- a) Conservative
- b) Semiconservative
- c) Dispersive
- d) None of the above
Production of RNA from DNA is called
- a) Translation
- b) RNA splicing
- c) Transcription
- d) Transposition
Nucleic acids contain
- a) Alanine
- b) Adenine
- c) Lysine
- d) Arginine
What are the structural units of nucleic acids?
- a) N-bases
- b) Nucleosides
- c) Nucleotides
- d) Histones
The most important function of a gene is to synthesize
- a) Enzymes
- b) Hormones
- c) RNA
- d) DNA
One of the genes present exclusively on the X-chromosome in humans is concerned with
- a) Baldness
- b) Red-green colour blindness
- c) Facial hair/moustache in males
- d) Night blindness
Peptide linkages are formed in between
- a) Nucleotides
- b) Amino acids
- c) Glucose molecules
- d) Sucrose
The nucleic acid of polio viruses is
- a) DNA
- b) RNA – (+) type
- c) t-RNA
- d) m-RNA
Rabies virus is
- a) Naked RNA virus
- b) Naked DNA virus
- c) Enveloped RNA virus
- d) Enveloped DNA virus
Example for DNA virus
- a) Polio virus
- b) Adeno virus
- c) Echo virus
- d) Poty virus
In genetic engineering breaks in DNA are formed by enzymes known as
- a) Restriction enzymes
- b) Ligases
- c) Nucleases
- d) Hydralases
DNA transfer from one bacterium to another through phages is termed as
- a) Transduction
- b) Induction
- c) Transfection
- d) Infection
Microorganisms usually make acetyl CO-A by oxidizing
- a) Acetic acid
- b) Pyruvic acid
- c) a-ketoglutaric acid
- d) Fumaric acid
Answer Key Summary
The questions are typically designed to assess the technical skills and knowledge required for the laboratory profession, including the ability to analyze laboratory test results, perform laboratory procedures, and maintain laboratory equipment.
To prepare for these MCQs, candidates should have a thorough understanding of the key concepts and principles of laboratory science. They should also be familiar with common laboratory equipment and procedures, as well as laboratory safety protocols.
Candidates may also benefit from studying specific laboratory science textbooks or taking online courses that cover the material tested in the MCQs. Additionally, practicing sample MCQs and reviewing the answers can help candidates identify areas where they may need to improve their knowledge or skills.
Overall, the MCQs for lab technologists are designed to be challenging and comprehensive, requiring candidates to demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the field of laboratory science.
