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MCQ’s Chapter 12 (Lab)

Some of Common Questions and Answers for Laboratory Technicians and Technologists.

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MCQs Chapter 12
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Questions 551 to 600

  1. Hydroxyurea:
    • decreases nitric oxide
    • increases neutrophil and monocytes
    • inhibits DNA synthesis by acting as a ribonucleotide
    • reductase inhibitor
  2. Hydroxyurea increases the serum uric acid levels.
    • True
    • False
  3. Decitabine increases the fetal hemoglobin production by inducing methylation of DNA and thus prevents the switch from gamma to beta-globin production.
    • True
    • False
  4. Hypocupremia is seen in
    • osetoporosis, nephrotic disease
    • sprue, cliac disease
    • cardiovascular disease, colon cancer
    • All of the above
  5. Wilsons disease can cause liver problems
    • True
    • False
  6. What are the treatment options for wilson’s disease?
    • Pencillamine
    • Trientine
    • Potassium disulfide
    • Zinc
    • All of Above
  7. Aplasia can occur because of riboflavin deficiency?
    • True
    • False
  8. Angular stomatitis.cheilosis is a symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency?
    • True
    • False
  9. Antimalarial drugs and high dose birth control will increase riboflavin.
    1. True
    2. False
  10. Which test can be used to detect hemolytic anemia ?
    1. Coombs test
    2. Genetic testing
    3. Peripheral blood smear (PBS)
    4. Schilling test

  1. Which anemia is classified as not being able to use iron properly to synthesize hemoglobin because of a inherited cause.
    • Iron deficiency anemia
    • hypochromic anemia
    • aplastic anemia
  2. Apalstic anemia can be induced by drugs such as Litium, acetazolamide and aspirtin
    1. True
    2. False
  3. This fatal disorder results from clot/thrombus formation in the blood ciruclation
    • thromboembolism
    • DVT
    • PAD
    • Pulmonary embolism
    • All of the above
  4. Homan’s sign is classified as pain behind the knee
    • True
    • False
  5. Patients that are sensitive to aspirin can take:
    • Sulfinpyrazone
    • Clopidogrel
    • Ticlopidine
    • All of Above
  6. What is the life span of RBC
    • 200
    • 120
    • 100
    • 80
  7. This drug can potentiate the effect of prostacyclins to antagonize platelet stickiness and therefore decreases platelet adhesion to thrombogenic surfaces.
    • Sulfinpyrazone
    • Dipyridamole
    • ticlopidine
  8. Which drug can be given as a prophylaxis  for cadriovascular effects ?
    • Ticlopidine
    • Clopidogrel
    • dipyridamol
  9. Which drug can increase intracellular levels of cAMP by inhibiting cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase ?
    • Sildenafil
    • Ticlopidine
    • Clopidogrel
    • dipyridamol
  10. Warfarin should be used with caution in the following:
    • Alcoholic liver disease
    • Gastrointestinal bleeding
    • recent neurosugery
    • Liver impairment
  11. Isozymes of 2C can greatly effect warfarin
    • True
    • False
  12. absolute lymphocytosis (>5000/mm^3) without adenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, thrombocytopenia is what stage in CLL prognosis Scoring-Rai Staging System?
    • Stage 0
    • Stage I
    • Stage II
    • Stage III
    • Stage IV
  13. Conventional treatment is ______ for Rai stage II
    • Antibiotics
    • chemotherapy
    • Antivirals
    • rest
  14. In patients with low numbers of neoplastic cells, sometimes due to treatment, PCR to amplify DNA can improve sensitivity, and detect signs of relapse.
    1. True
    2. False
  15. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is most common leukemia in what kind of people? Slide 4
    • young adults
    • older adults
  16. absolute lymphocytosis &nbsp;and thrombocytopenia( < 100,000/mm^3) with or without lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, or anemia &nbsp;is what stage in CLL prognosis Scoring-Rai Staging System ?
    • Stage 0
    • Stage I
    • Stage II
    • Stage III
    • Stage IV
  17. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia is characterized by peripheral blood and bone marrow _____.
    • lymphocytopenia
    • lymphocytosis
  18. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia is characterized by gradual accumulation of small mature ______ cells.
    1. T
    2. B
    3. NK
  19. Which of the following is the most mature normoblast ?
    • Orthochromic Normoblast
    • Basophilic Normoblast
    • Pronormoblast
    • Polychromatic Normoblast
  20. absolute lymphocytosis with either hepatomegaly or splenomegaly with or without lymphadenopathy is what stage in CLL prognosis Scoring-Rai Staging System ?
    • Stage 0
    • Stage I
    • Stage II
    • Stage III
    • Stage IV
  1. absolute lymphocytosis without lymphadenopathy without hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, or thrombocytopenia is what stage in CLL prognosis Scoring-Rai Staging System ?
    • Stage 0
    • Stage I
    • Stage II
    • Stage III
    • Stage IV
  2. IN Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia the Lymphocyte appearance: small or slightly larger than normal, hyper-condensed(almost ________ appearing. nuclear chromatin patter, bare nuclei called “smudge cells” are common.
    • soccer-ball
    • basketball
    • football
    • tennis-ball
  3. Which of the following forms of Hb molecule has the lowest affinity for oxygen?
    • Tense
    • Relaxed
    • Arterial
    • Venous
  4. What is the recommended cleaner for removing all oil from objective lens ?
    • 70 % alcohol or lens cleaner
    • Xylene
    • Water
    • Benzene
  5. Intravascular hemolysis is the result of trauma to RBCs while in the circulation
    • True
    • False
  6. A 1:20 dilution was made in a unopette, with glacial acetic acid as the diluent. The four corner squares on BOTH sides of the hemacytometer are counted for a total of 100 cells. What is the total WBC (x10^9/L.?
    • 0.25
    • 2.5
    • 5
    • 10
  7. The shape of a cell is maintained by which of the following?
    • Microtubules
    • Spindle Fibers
    • Ribosomes
    • Centrioles
  8. At which month of fetal development does the bone marrow ecome the primary site of hematopoiesis ?
    • 2nd
    • 5th
    • End of 6th month
    • End of 7th month
  9. Which types of cells develop from yolk sacs (Mesoblastic phase) ?
    • Hb F, Hg A2, and Hg A
    • Gower 1 and Gower 2 Hgb
    • Portland Hgb
    • Only Erythroblasts
  10. Normal Adult Hb A contains the following polypeptide chains:
    • alpha and beta
    • alpha and epsilon
    • alpha and delta
    • alpha and brotherton
  11. Allergic reactions are frequently associated with an increase in the prescence of :
    • Lymphocytes
    • Neutrophils
    • Monocytes
    • Eosinophils
  12. Lipid exchange between the RBC membrane and the plasma occurs:
    • To replace lost lipids in the membrane
    • To provide a mechanism for excretion of lipid-soluble RBC waste products
    • To ensure symmetry between the composition of the interior and exterior lipid layers
    • To provide lipid-soluble nutrients to the RBC
  13. After the microscope has been adjusted for Kohler illumination, light intensity should never be regulated by using the…
    • Rheostat
    • Neutral density filter
    • Kohler magnifier
    • Condenser
  14. Which of the followong types of microscopy is valuable in the identification of crystals that are able to rotate light ?
    • Compound brightfield
    • Darkfield
    • Polarizing
    • Phase-contrast
  15. During the Medullary Phase of hematopoietic development, which bone is the first to show hematopoietic activity ?
    • Femur
    • Iliac Crest
    • Skull
    • Clavicle
  16. Given the following values, calculate the RPI Observed reticulocyte count – 6% Hct- 30%
    • 2
    • 3
    • 4
    • 5
  17. The lipids of the RBC membrane are arranged:
    • In chains beneath a protein exoskeleton
    • So that the hydrophobic portions are facing the plasma
    • In a hexagonal lattice
    • In two layers that are not symmetric in composition
  18. The hexose monophosphate pathway activity increases the RBC source of
    • Glucose and lactic acid
    • 2,3-BPG and methemoglobin
    • NADPH and reduced glutathione
    • ATP and other purine metabolites
  19. Which single feature of normal RBC’s is most responsible for limiting their life span ?
    • Loss of mitochondria
    • Increased flexibility of the cell membrane
    • Reduction of Hb iron
    • Loss of nucleus
  20. In the Iron cycle, the transferrin receptor carries:
    • Iron out of duodenal cells from the intestinal lumen
    • Iron out of duodenal cells into the plasma
    • transferrin-bound iron in the plasma
    • transferrin-bound iron into erythrocytes

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