Chapter 21 – MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists

5000 Plus MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists are designed to test the knowledge and proficiency of laboratory professionals who work in the field of clinical laboratory science. These questions cover a wide range of topics related to laboratory science, including anatomy, physiology, microbiology, chemistry, and hematology.

1001 to 1050 MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologist Exam Preparation

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Questions 1001 to 1050

1001. The modified Griess nitrite test, when positive to any degree, is virtually dianostic of
      1. Phenylalanine in the urine
      2. Significant bacteriuria (10(5) organisms per milliliter of urine) ✔
      3. Bilirubin in the urine
      4. Any bacteriuria (10(1) to 10(5) organisms per milliliter of urine)
1002. According to Landsteiner, when a specific antigen is present on blood cells, the corresponding antibody
      1. Is present in the serum
      2. Is absent from the serum ✔
      3. May or may not be present depending on the agglutinogens present
      4. Is present in the blood cells
1003. Carbohydrates are organic compounds of 1. carbon 2. hydrogen 33. oxygen
      1. 1 and 2 only
      2. 2 and 3 only
      3. 1,2, and 3 ✔
      4. 1 and 3 only
1004. The etiologic agent of chancroid is
      1. Haemophilus aegyptius
      2. Haemophilus ducreyi ✔
      3. Bordetella pertussis
      4. Haemophilus influenzae
1005. Who is credited with processing the most readily acceptable theory of ABO inheritance?
      1. Landsteiner ✔
      2. Bernstein
      3. Levine
      4. Weiner
1006. Blood group A individuals have
      1. Anti-O in their serum
      2. Antigen A and B on their red cells
      3. Anti-A in their serum
      4. Anti-B in their serum ✔
1007. Which one of the following methods could be used to study protein abnormality?
      1. Isoenzyme electrophoresis
      2. Blood viscosity studies
      3. Electrophoresis of penicilliamine-treated serum
      4. Immunoelectrophoresis ✔
1008. Clot retraction can be employed as an indicator of
      1. Factor VII deficiency
      2. Platelet function ✔
      3. Factor X deficiency
      4. Hemophilia
1009. A trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica usually contains
      1. A coarse, granular, blunt pseudopod
      2. Bacteria and coarse granules in the cytoplasm
      3. Red blood cells int he cytoplasm ✔
      4. Eccentrically located endosome in the nucleus
1010. Cerebral spinal fluid patients with post-cerebral hemmorrhage appears
      1. Greeen
      2. Bright red
      3. Clear (colorless)
      4. Light yellow or straw colored ✔

1011. Which stage of the coagulation process would be affected by a deficiency of Factor VIII?
      1. First ✔
      2. Third
      3. Second
      4. Fourth
1012. Which organisms are described as minute, very plemorphic, sometimes coccobacillary, gram-negative rods that must have media enriched with X and V factors?
      1. Haemophilus influenzae ✔
      2. Escherichia coli
      3. Listeria monocytogenes
      4. Bacillus anthracis
1013. According to Landsteiner, when a specific antigen is present on blood cells, the corresponding antibody
      1. Is present in the blood cells
      2. Is present in the serum
      3. Is absent from the serum ✔
      4. May or may not be present depending on the agglutinogens present
1014. The screenign or presumptive test for the osmotic fragility of red cells is normal when hemolysis begins in
      1. 0.50% NaCl ✔
      2. 0.90% NaCl
      3. 1.34% NaCl
      4. 0.85% NaCl
1015. Most methods for the determination of blood creatinine are based on the reaction of creatinine and
      1. Acetic anhydride
      2. Sulfuric acid
      3. Alkaline picrate ✔
      4. Ammonium hydroxide
1016. Which one fo the following test differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other types of staphlococci?
      1. Oxidase
      2. Fibrinolysin
      3. Catalase
      4. Coagulase ✔
1017. Bordet-Gengou and Eugon agar base with fresh blood is used for the isolation of
      1. Yersinia
      2. Pasteurello
      3. Haemophilus
      4. Bordetella ✔
1018. The type of anemia usually associated with severe burns is
      1. Macrocytic
      2. Hemolytic ✔
      3. Microcytic
      4. Aplastic
1019. All of the following influence glomerular filtration EXCEPT
      1. Cardiac failure and renal or urinary calculi
      2. Hyperglycemia and renal tubule malfunction ✔
      3. Renal or urinary calculi and decreased renal blood flow
      4. Decreased renal blood flow and cardiac failure
1020. The major cation found in the extra cellular fluid is
      1. Chloride
      2. Potassium
      3. Sodium ✔
      4. Bicarbonate
1021. On an automated blood cell counter, the two parameters affected by a high background count would be
      1. WBC and Hgb
      2. RBC and WBC ✔
      3. Hct and WBC
      4. RBC and Hgb
1022. To determine if a patient is A1 or A2, the blood is typed with
      1. Anti-A serum
      2. Anti-AB serum
      3. Anti-A2 serum
      4. Dolichos biflorus serum ✔
1023. Metabolic acidosis can be detected by testing urine for the presence of
      1. Protein
      2. Uric acid
      3. Ketone bodies ✔
      4. Glucose
1024. Freezing point depression measurements are part of which one of the following urine test procedures?
      1. Specific gravity
      2. Hydrometry
      3. Refractive index
      4. Osmolality ✔
1025. The ketone test area on a dip stick is impregnated with
      1. Alkaline copper
      2. Ferric chloride
      3. Nitroprusside ✔
      4. 2,4 dichloraniline
1026. When a patient has been sensitized, which of the following tests would be used to help identify the antibody that is attached to the patient’s cells IN VIVO?
      1. Indirect anti-human globulin test
      2. D(u)
      3. Direct anti-human globulin test
      4. Elution ✔
1027. On most automated cell counted, background counts are made using
      1. Lysing reagent only
      2. Highly-diluted blood
      3. Distilled water
      4. Diluting fluid ✔
1028. Beer’s law states that the darker the color produced, the more light absorbed in the specimen; the more light absorbed, the
      1. Longer the wavelength required
      2. Higher the concentration of the analyte ✔
      3. More light transmitted
      4. Lower the concentration of the analyte
1029. Alkaline phosphatase is GREATLY elevated in
      1. Myocardial infarction
      2. Liver disease
      3. Obstructive jaundice ✔
      4. Kidney disease
1030. Osmolality of a solution is determined by measuring
      1. Ionic strength
      2. Refractive index
      3. Freezing point depression ✔
      4. Specific gravity

1031. The egg of the Schistosoma characterized by a pronounced lateral spine is
      1. Schistosoma haematobium
      2. Schistosoma hepatica
      3. Schistosoma japonicum
      4. Schistosoma mansoni ✔
1032. Reticulocytes contain
      1. Howell-Jolly bodies
      2. DNA remnants
      3. Basophilic granules
      4. RNA remnants ✔
1033. Enterobius vermilcularis is a
      1. Flat worm
      2. Filarial worm
      3. Hookworm
      4. Pinworm ✔
1034. Strepococcus pneumoniae
      1. Capsules are produced by virulent strians ✔
      2. Is motile
      3. Is consistently gram-positive even in old cultures
      4. Grows best at slightly acid pH
1035. The end-product of purine metabolism is
      1. Creatinine
      2. Uric acid ✔
      3. Creatine
      4. Urea
1036. Which one of the following methods could be used to study protein abnormality?
      1. Immunoelectrophoresis ✔
      2. Isoenzyme electrophoresis
      3. Electrophoresis of penicilliamine-treated serum
      4. Blood viscosity studies
1037. Sodium is responsible for the maintenance of
      1. Cardiac muscle contractions
      2. Blood coagulation
      3. Salt intake
      4. Osmotic pressure of body fluids ✔
1038. In serologic tests for syphulis, reagin reactivity may result from an acute or chronic infection such as
      1. Infectious hepatitis
      2. Pneumonia
      3. Helicobacter pylori
      4. Lupus erythematosus ✔
1039. A variety of media may be safely stored for months is care is taken to
      1. Maintain them in an incubator
      2. Avoid exposing them to light
      3. Maintain them at room temperature
      4. Retain their moisture ✔
1040. Which of the following tests is specific for urinary glucose?
      1. Pandy
      2. Benedict’s
      3. Clinitest
      4. Dip stick ✔
1041. The cystic stage of development has NOT been demonstrated in which of the following organisms?
      1. Iodamoeba butschlii
      2. Balantidium coli
      3. Endolimax nana
      4. Trichomonas vaginalis ✔
1042. The distance between the ruled surface and cover slip of the hemacytometer is
      1. 1.0 mm
      2. 0.1 cm
      3. 0.1 mm ✔
      4. 1.0 cm
1043. Which one of the following hemoglobin determination methods is recommended by the International Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards and the National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards?
      1. Methemoglobin
      2. Oxyhemoglobin
      3. Sulfhemoglobin
      4. Cyanmethemoglobin ✔
1044. The ketone bodies include acetoacetic acid, acetone, and
      1. Lactic acid
      2. 3-hydroxy butyric acid ✔
      3. Acetic acid
      4. Oxaloacetic acid
1045. In Taenia saginata, the larval stage develops in
      1. Cattle ✔
      2. Fish
      3. Swine
      4. Man
1046. Rh immune globulin is given to an Rh (D)
      1. Positive mother who has an Rh(D) negative husband
      2. Negative mother who has delivered an Rh(D) positive fetus ✔
      3. Negative mother with an Rh(D) negative fetus
      4. Positive mother with an Rh(D) negative fetus
1047. If test results are within +/-2 standard deviations, the ratio of test results beyond the +/-2 SD limit will be 1 out of
      1. 20 ✔
      2. 3
      3. 5
      4. 300
1048. Fungi are commonly identified on their basis of their
      1. Serologic and biochemical characteristics
      2. Staining properties with polychrome dyes
      3. Sporulation and the arrangement of spores on the hyphae ✔
      4. Solubility in 20% potassium hydroxide
1049. During the maturation of a blood cell, the nuclear chromatin pattern becomes
      1. More dense ✔
      2. Less dense
      3. Finer
      4. More acidic
1050. The degree that a procedure deviates from a known value or from a calculated mean value is known as
      1. Percent deviation
      2. Stardard deviation ✔
      3. Quality control
      4. Coefficient variation

The questions are typically designed to assess the technical skills and knowledge required for the laboratory profession, including the ability to analyze laboratory test results, perform laboratory procedures, and maintain laboratory equipment.

To prepare for these MCQs, candidates should have a thorough understanding of the key concepts and principles of laboratory science. They should also be familiar with common laboratory equipment and procedures, as well as laboratory safety protocols.

Candidates may also benefit from studying specific laboratory science textbooks or taking online courses that cover the material tested in the MCQs. Additionally, practicing sample MCQs and reviewing the answers can help candidates identify areas where they may need to improve their knowledge or skills.

Overall, the MCQs for lab technologists are designed to be challenging and comprehensive, requiring candidates to demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the field of laboratory science.

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