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5000 Plus MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists are designed to test the knowledge and proficiency of laboratory professionals who work in the field of clinical laboratory science. These questions cover a wide range of topics related to laboratory science, including anatomy, physiology, microbiology, chemistry, and hematology.

MCQs for Lab Technician

951 to 1000 MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologist Exam Preparation

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Questions 951 to 1000

Go to Mock Test Chapter 20
  1. Urinary crystal having coffin lid appearance is :
    1. Uric acid
    2. Triple phosphate ✔
    3. Calcium oxalate
    4. Urate
  2. Drepanocytes are seen in:
    1. Alcoholism
    2. Thalassaemia
    3. Uremia
    4. Sickle celi anaemia ✔
  3. Urobilinogen is completely absent in :
    1. Obstructive jaundice ✔
    2. Haemolytie jaundice
    3. Hepatic jaundice
    4. Physiological jaundice
  4. Non specific PAS staining is encountered after this fixation :
    1. Mercuric chloride
    2. Potassium dichromate
    3. Osmium tetroxide
    4. Glutaraldehyde ✔
  5. DIC is a complication of :
    1. Acute promyelocytic leukaemia ✔
    2. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
    3. Hairy cell leukaemia
    4. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
  6. Black coloured urine is a feature of :
    1. Phenyl ketonuria
    2. Alkaptonuria ✔
    3. Urinary tract infections
    4. Keto acidosis
  7. Glanzmann’s disease is associated with :
    1. Defective platelet aggregation ✔
    2. Defective platelet adhesion
    3. Normal clot retraction
    4. None of these
  8. Length of wintrobes haematocrit tube :
    1. 9cm
    2. 19cm
    3. l1 cm ✔
    4. 12cm
  9. Betke-Kleihauer method ia used to detect :
    1. HbA
    2. HbF ✔
    3. HbC
    4. None of these
  10. Green coloured vacutainer tube contains :
    1. Fluoride
    2. EDTA
    3. Citrate
    4. Heparin ✔
  1. Coulter counter is based on:
    1. Impedence method ✔
    2. Light reflection
    3. Light refraction
    4. All the above
  2. The stain used to demonstrate Barr Body :
    1. H& Estain
    2. Reliculin stain
    3. PAS stain
    4. Shorr stain ✔
  3. Glycosidic linkage in maltose is :
    1. Alpha 1-4 linkage ✔
    2. Beta 1-4 linkage
    3. Alpha 1-6 linkage
    4. Alpha 1-2 linkage
  4. Bence Johns protein is seen in:
    1. Nephrotic syndrome
    2. Multiple myeloma ✔
    3. Cirrhosis of liver
    4. Hepatitis
  5. Amino acids involved in creatinine synthesis :
    1. Glycine
    2. Arginine
    3. Methionine
    4. All the above ✔
  6. Cocci arranged in packets of eight :
    1. Micrococci
    2. Gonococci ✔
    3. Sarcina
    4. Pneumococci
  7. Which among the following is a best marker of myocardial ischemia?
    1. ALP
    2. GGT
    3. Cystanin C
    4. CKMB (mass) ✔
  8. Microalbuminuria is defined as:
    1. < 10 mg Albumin/day
    2. 30-300 mg Albumin/day ✔
    3. 1-3 gm Albumin/day
    4. > 1-3 mg Albumin/day
  9. Leukemia may be suspected when a manual hematocrit determination reveals
    1. A high hematocrit
    2. Hemolysis
    3. A heavy buffy coat ✔
    4. Icteric plasma
  10. A donor who recently tested positive for HBsAg should be deferred
    1. Permanently ✔
    2. For 5 years
    3. For 6 months
    4. For 1 year
  11. Which of the following enzymes are present in heart muscle? 1. lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) (LD) 2. creatinine phosphokinase (CPK) (CK) 3. serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT)
    1. 1,2, and 3 ✔
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 only
    4. 2 and 3 only
  12. Antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is NOT used in performing
    1. D(u) testing
    2. Reverse typing ✔
    3. Autoagglutination tests
    4. Immunoglobulin testing
  13. The principle involved in some automated blood cell counters is based on the
    1. Weight of the hemoglobin in the red cell
    2. Size of the particle being counted ✔
    3. Value of the cell indices
    4. Amount of hemoglobin in the red cell
  14. In serologic tests for syphulis, reagin reactivity may result from an acute or chronic infection such as
    1. Infectious hepatitis
    2. Lupus erythematosus ✔
    3. Helicobacter pylori
    4. Pneumonia
  15. Most of the plasma thyroxine (T4) is
    1. Bound to albumin
    2. Free
    3. Bound to cholesterol
    4. Bound to globulin ✔
  16. Which one of the following may detect a hemolytic transfusion reaction?
    1. Serum haptoglobin ✔
    2. Pre-transfusion bilirubin
    3. Urine porphyrins
    4. Post-transfusion red blood count and hemoglobin
  17. A trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica usually contains
    1. Red blood cells int he cytoplasm ✔
    2. A coarse, granular, blunt pseudopod
    3. Bacteria and coarse granules in the cytoplasm
    4. Eccentrically located endosome in the nucleus
  18. Beer’s law states that the darker the color produced, the more light absorbed in the specimen; the more light absorbed, the
    1. Lower the concentration of the analyte
    2. Longer the wavelength required
    3. Higher the concentration of the analyte ✔
    4. More light transmitted
  19. In using a urinometer to measure specific gravity, the correction facotr for each 3 degrees C higher or lower than calibration temperature is
    1. +/- 1.001
    2. +/- 0.001 ✔
    3. +/- 0.100
    4. +/- 0.010
  20. A mother is Rh(D) negative. The father is homozygous Rh(D) positive. All of their offspring will be
    1. Homozygous Rh(D) positive
    2. Heterozygous Rh(D) positive ✔
    3. Erythroblastotic
    4. 50% Rh(D) positive and 50% Rh(D)negative
  1. The organism that can cause rheumatic fever and/or glomerular nephritis is
    1. Staphylococcus haemolyticus
    2. Streptococcus pyogenes ✔
    3. Streptococcus viridans
    4. Staphylococcus aureus
  2. A reactive fluorescent treponemal antibody (FTA-AB) test
    1. Indicates the severity of infection
    2. Confirms the presence of treponemal antibodies ✔
    3. Indicates no infection
    4. Is positive during the chancre stage
  3. The end-product of purine metabolism is
    1. Creatine
    2. Uric acid ✔
    3. Creatinine
    4. Urea
  4. Sodium is responsible for the maintenance of
    1. Blood coagulation
    2. Osmotic pressure of body fluids ✔
    3. Salt intake
    4. Cardiac muscle contractions
  5. The type of anemia usually associated with severe burns is
    1. Microcytic
    2. Macrocytic
    3. Hemolytic ✔
    4. Aplastic
  6. Hansel’s stain is appropriate for
    1. Phagocytic neutrophils
    2. Nasal secrection for eosinophiles ✔
    3. Circulating eosinophiles
    4. Leukocytes in spinal fluid
  7. Bordet-Gengou and Eugon agar base with fresh blood is used for the isolation of
    1. Pasteurello
    2. Bordetella ✔
    3. Haemophilus
    4. Yersinia
  8. When a patient has been sensitized, which of the following tests would be used to help identify the antibody that is attached to the patient’s cells IN VIVO?
    1. Elution ✔
    2. Direct anti-human globulin test
    3. Indirect anti-human globulin test
    4. D(u)
  9. Cell/antibody mixtures used in tube testing to determine ABO Group should be centrifuged for
    1. 15-30 seconds @ 1000 ✔
    2. 5 min @ 5000
    3. 2 min @ 2000
    4. 3 min @ 3000
  10. Which of the following tests is used to measure capillary fragility?
    1. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
    2. Prothrombin time
    3. Bleeding time
    4. Tourniquet ✔
  11. According to the Lancefield scheme of classifying the Streptococcus species, the neterococci are placed in group
    1. A
    2. B
    3. C
    4. D ✔
  12. During the crossmatch procedure, a negative rsult on the addition of Coombs control cells indicated that the
    1. Antiglobulin reagent is detecting antibody globulin, indicating adequate washing during the crossmatch procedures.
    2. Crossmatch is incompatible
    3. Antiglobulin reagent is inactivated, neutralized, or not added to the test. ✔
    4. Crossmatch is compatible and the blood may be infused
  13. Alkaline phosphatase is GREATLY elevated in
    1. Liver disease
    2. Kidney disease
    3. Obstructive jaundice ✔
    4. Myocardial infarction
  14. Fibrinogen determinations are performed on
    1. Serum only
    2. Any body fluid
    3. Either serum or plasma
    4. Plasma only ✔
  15. The infective stage of the hookworm is the
    1. Filariform larva with a pointed tail ✔
    2. Rhabditiform larva with a short buccal cavity
    3. Filariform larva with a notched tail
    4. Rhabditiform larva with a long buccal cavity
  16. Antihuman serum globulin reagent
    1. Is produced in humans
    2. Never detects complement-dependent antibodies
    3. Is produced in laboratory animals ✔
    4. Occurs naturally in most humans
  17. Fungi are commonly identified on their basis of their
    1. Solubility in 20% potassium hydroxide
    2. Serologic and biochemical characteristics
    3. Staining properties with polychrome dyes
    4. Sporulation and the arrangement of spores on the hyphae ✔
  18. Brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue are stains used for counting
    1. Howell-Jolly bodies
    2. Reticulocytes ✔
    3. Malaria
    4. Platelets
  19. Osmolality of a solution is determined by measuring
    1. Freezing point depression ✔
    2. Ionic strength
    3. Refractive index
    4. Specific gravity
  20. Enterobius vermilcularis is a
    1. Filarial worm
    2. Flat worm
    3. Hookworm
    4. Pinworm ✔
Go to Mock Test Chapter 20
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Chapter 21 >>

The questions are typically designed to assess the technical skills and knowledge required for the laboratory profession, including the ability to analyze laboratory test results, perform laboratory procedures, and maintain laboratory equipment.

To prepare for these MCQs, candidates should have a thorough understanding of the key concepts and principles of laboratory science. They should also be familiar with common laboratory equipment and procedures, as well as laboratory safety protocols.

Candidates may also benefit from studying specific laboratory science textbooks or taking online courses that cover the material tested in the MCQs. Additionally, practicing sample MCQs and reviewing the answers can help candidates identify areas where they may need to improve their knowledge or skills.

Overall, the MCQs for lab technologists are designed to be challenging and comprehensive, requiring candidates to demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the field of laboratory science.

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