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MCQ’s Chapter 6 (Medical Students)

Some of Common Questions and Answers for Doctors and Medical Students.

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MCQs Chapter 6

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Questions 251 to 300

  1. What is the most common mole found in adults?
    1. Junctional nevus
    2. Compound nevus
    3. Intradermal nevus
    4. Congenital nevus
  2. What condition is associated with acanthosis nigricans?
    1. Type 2 diabetes and gastric adenocarcinoma
    2. Rubella
    3. Varicella zoster
    4. Basal cell carcinoma
  3. What disorder is characterised by an initial ‘herald patch’ which is then followed by scaly erythematous plaques usually in a ‘Christmas tree’ distribution?
    1. Pityriasis rosea
    2. Herpes
    3. Varicella zoster virus
    4. Erysipelas
  4. What is the infective agent implicated in acne?
    1. Staphylococcus aureus
    2. Streptococcus pyogenes
    3. Staphylococcus epidermidis
    4. Propionibacterium acnes
  5. What is a precursor to squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)?
    1. Keratoacanthoma
    2. Actinic keratosis
    3. Leser-Trélat sign
    4. Measles
  6. What is Leser-Trélat sign?
    1. Sudden appearance of multiple seborrhoeic keratoses and is an indicator of a gastrointestinal tract carcinoma.
    2. A left supraclavicular node associated with gastric carcinoma
    3. Metastasis of gastric carcinoma to the periumbilical region
    4. Metastasis of gastric carcinoma to the bilateral ovaries
  7. What skin condition is caused by poxvirus?
    1. Verruca
    2. Molluscum contagiosum
    3. Impetigo
    4. Cellulitis
  8. An elderly lady presents to her doctor with a raised, round discoloured plaque, ‘stuck on appearance’ on her face. What skin condition is this?
    1. Rubella
    2. Seborrheic keratosis
    3. Basal cell carcinoma
    4. Melasma
  9. What is the grading system for prostatic cancer?
    1. Breslow thickness
    2. Bloom Richardson
    3. Gleason
    4. Fuhrman
  10. What is priapism?
    1. Inability to void the bladder
    2. Abnormal curvature of the penis
    3. Painful erection lasting > 4 hours
    4. Cyst due to a dilated testicular duct
  1. What area does prostate cancer spread to most frequently?
    1. Brain
    2. Lung
    3. Pancreas
    4. Lumbar spine
  2. What tumour is characterised by findings of ‘Schiller Duval bodies’ on histology and raised levels of AFP on blood tests?
    1. Yolk sac tumour
    2. Embryonal carcinoma
    3. Teratoma
    4. Sertoli cell tumour
  3. What is the most common congenital male reproductive disorder?
    1. Hydrocoele
    2. Testicular torsion
    3. Peyronie’s disease
    4. Cryptorchidism
  4. What are the risk factors for developing germ cell tumours?
    1. Orchitis
    2. Hydrocoele and varicocele
    3. Klinefelter syndrome and cryptorchidism
    4. Hypospadias and epispadias
  5. How does testicular torsion typically present?
    1. Sudden pain in the scrotum and an absent cremasteric reflex
    2. Swelling of the scrotum and fever
    3. A painless testicular mass that cannot be transilluminated
    4. ‘Bag of worms’ appearance of the scrotum
  6. Are testicular tumours usually biopsied?
    1. Yes
    2. No
  7. What type of testicular tumour fits this description? A homogenous and painless mass with the absence of haemorrhage. On histology, findings include large cells in lobules with clear cytoplasm ‘fried egg appearance’.
    1. Teratoma
    2. Choriocarcinoma
    3. Leydig cell tumour
    4. Seminoma
  8. What is the causative agent of condyloma acuminatum?
    1. Chlamydia trachomatis
    2. HPV 6 or 11
    3. HSV
    4. E-coli
  9. Do varicoceles typically appear on the right side or the left side?
    1. Right
    2. Left
  10. What is hypospadias?
    1. Opening of urethra on the ventral surface of the penis
    2. Opening of urethra on dorsal surface of the penis
    3. Inflammation of the testicles
    4. Benign warty growth on genital skin
  11. What is the best description for the area of the prostate that the carcinoma usually affects?
    1. Posterior and peripheral region
    2. Anterior and peripheral region
    3. Periurethral region
    4. Entire anterior region
  12. The vocal cords are attached anteriorly by the arytenoid cartilage.
    1. True
    2. False
  13. The bridge of the nose is made out of cartilage.
    1. True
    2. False
  14. Waldeyer’s ring is the ring that surrounds the tympanic membrane.
    1. True
    2. False
  15. The superior part of the tympanic membrane is known as the pars flaccida.
    1. True
    2. False
  16. The bones of the ear from the outside to inside are:
    • Incus
    • Stapes
    • Malleus
      1. True
      2. False
  17. The ‘cone of light’ is a reflection of light on the tympanic membrane that points superiorly.
    1. True
    2. False
  18. The Eustachian tube connects the eye to the nose.
    1. True
    2. False
  19. The tensor tympani is the only muscle present in the inner ear.
    1. True
    2. False
  20. The tongue is partially innervated by the facial nerve
    1. True
    2. False
  1. The cochlea is responsible for balance.
    1. True
    2. False
  2. A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with a 4cm mobile anterior neck mass. A fine needle aspirate is performed which reveals cells with ‘orphan Annie eye’ nuclei and psammoma bodies.
    What is the most likely diagnosis?
    1. Thyroglossal duct cyst
    2. Follicular carcinoma
    3. Medullary carcinoma
    4. Papillary carcinoma
    5. Lingual thyroid
  3. What is the most common type of thyroid carcinoma?
    1. Follicular carcinoma
    2. Papillary carcinoma
    3. Medullary carcinoma
    4. Anaplastic carcinoma
  4. Which of the following features is NOT typical for Graves disease?
    1. Hyperplasia of the follicles
    2. Scalloping of the colloid
    3. Irregular shaped follicles
    4. Infiltration of mononuclear cells into retro-orbital connective tissues
    5. Extensive infiltration of the mononuclear cells into the thyroid parenchyma
  5. A 37-year-old woman presents to the clinic with 2 days of sudden onset pain in the anterior neck radiating to the jaw. She is otherwise well having reported a full recovery from a ‘cold’ a week ago.
    What findings are NOT consistent with her diagnosis?
    1. Plasma cells aggregating around damaged thyroid follicles
    2. Dense fibrosis of the thyroid gland
    3. Neutrophilic infiltration of the thyroid
    4. Formation of microabscesses
    5. Multinucleated giant cells encapsulating colloid fragments
  6. A 62-year-old gentleman presents to the clinic with a 5cm painless neck mass as well as diarrhoea for the past 3 months. A biopsy is taken and he is subsequently diagnosed with medullary carcinoma.
    Which of the following features is consistent with a medullary carcinoma?
    1. Grossly soft and tender mass
    2. Diagnosis of MEN-1 syndrome
    3. Haematologic metastatic spread
    4. High levels of calcitonin
    5. Localised amyloid deposits
  7. Which of the following features is NOT consistent with follicular carcinoma?
    1. Malignant proliferation of follicular cells
    2. Follicular carcinomas are diagnosed via fine needle aspiration
    3. More common in women than men
    4. Commonly have PI-3K/AKT signalling pathway mutations
    5. Uniform cells forming small colloid containing follicles
  8. A 46-year-old female presents to the preadmission clinic and is found to have a 3cm anterolateral firm painless neck mass along with a minor decrease in calcium serum levels.
    What is the most likely diagnosis?
    1. Anaplastic carcinoma
    2. Medullary carcinoma
    3. Follicular carcinoma
    4. Papillary carcinoma
    5. Parathyroid carcinoma
  9. Which of the following features are NOT consistent with anaplastic carcinoma?
    1. Large, pleomorphic giant cells
    2. Occasional osteoclast-like multinucleated giant cells
    3. Spindle cells
    4. Poor prognosis
    5. Positive thyroglobulin markers
  10. What thyroid cancer has the worst prognosis? (choose the answer that shows the correct descending order, the first being the cancer with the worst prognosis and the last being the one with the best prognosis)
    1. anaplastic > medullary > follicular > papillary
    2. anaplastic > medullary > papillary > follicular
    3. anaplastic > papillary > medullary > follicular
    4. medullary > anaplastic > papillary > follicular
    5. medullary > anaplastic > follicular > papillary
  11. An 18-year-old female presents with a painless 1cm mass in the anterior neck region. A biopsy is taken revealing fluid contained within pseudostratified columnar epithelium.
    What is the most likely diagnosis?
    1. Follicular adenoma
    2. Branchial cyst
    3. Thyroglossal duct cyst
    4. Thyroid cystitis
    5. Parotid tumour
  12. Conjoint tendon is formed by ?
    1. External and internal oblique
    2. External oblique and transversus abdominis
    3. Internal oblique and transversus abdominis
    4. Internal oblique
  13. Multiple bilateral dentigerous cysts are seen in ?
    1. Down’s syndrome
    2. Maroteaux lamy syndrome
    3. Teacher collin syndrome
    4. Gorlin Goltz syndrome
  14. COC is now called as?
    1. Odontogenic ghost cell tumor
    2. Dentinogenic ghost cell tumor
    3. Keratcysticodontogenic tumour
    4. A & C
  15. Facial nerve paralysis is common with?
    1. Pleomorphic adenoma
    2. Epidermoid carcinoma
    3. Warthin’s stumour
    4. Lymphoepithelial carcinoma
  16. The most aggressive and destructive cyst is ?
    1. Periapical cyst
    2. Dentigerous cyst
    3. Globulomaxillary cyst
    4. Nasopalatine cyst
  17. Standard treatment of ameloblastoma ?
    1. Segmental resection with 1 cm of normal bone
    2. Enbloc resection
    3. Enucleation
    4. Enucleation with cauterization
  18. The most common odontogenic cyst is ?
    1. Primordial cyst
    2. Dentigerous cyst
    3. Radicular cyst
    4. Mucocele
  19. Cyst arising from dental lamina ?
    1. Radicular cyst
    2. Paradental cyst
    3. Eruption cyst
    4. Glandular odontogenic cyst
  20. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour is characterized histologically by ? (1)
    1. Polyhedral epithelial cells
    2. Tubular / duct like cells
    3. Stellate shaped cells
    4. Stratified squamous epithelial cells

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