5000 Plus MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists are designed to test the knowledge and proficiency of laboratory professionals who work in the field of clinical laboratory science. These questions cover a wide range of topics related to laboratory science, including anatomy, physiology, microbiology, chemistry, and hematology.
2701 to 2750 MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologist Exam Preparation
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Questions 2701 to 2750
Probiotic organism used______?
- a) E coli
- b) Bifido bacteria
- c) Staphylococcus
- d) Salmonella
Sleeping sickness is caused by______?
- a) House fly
- b) Sand fly
- c) Tick
- d) Reduvid bug
Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by______?
- a) M. Kansasii
- b) M. ulcerans
- c) M. chelonae
- d) M. smegmatis
Donovanosis, true is______?
- a) Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
- b) Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic
- c) Penicillin is drug of choice
- d) Characterized by painful genital ulcers
CD4 count in normal healthy adult is______?
- a) 500
- b) 200
- c) 1000
- d) 300
A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is_____?
- a) India ink preparation
- b) Methanamine silver stain
- c) Ziehl-Neelsen stain
- d) Pyte-ferraco stain
Most fungi of medical importance belongs to_____?
- a) Zygomycetes
- b) Ascomycetes
- c) Basidiomycetes
- d) Deuteromycetes
A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents_______?
- a) Allo
- b) ISO
- c) Xeno
- d) Auto
Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?
- a) Adjuvant
- b) Proteins
- c) Polysaccharides
- d) Lipids
In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except______?
- a) Hemolysis
- b) Malabsorption
- c) Spleen sequestration
- d) Bone marrow depression
Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?
- a) Trench fever
- b) Relapsing fever
- c) Q fever
- d) Epidemic typhus
Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito_______?
- a) Sporozoite
- b) Gametocyte
- c) Merozoite
- d) Zygote
Schuffner’s dots are seen in infection due to_____?
- a) Plasmodium falciparum
- b) Plasmodium vivax
- c) Plasmodium malariae
- d) Plasmodium ovale
Man is the only reservoir for_______?
- a) Salmonella
- b) Camphylobacter jejuni
- c) histolytica
- d) Y. enterocolitica
A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed crescent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour. Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?
- a) Plasmodium vivax
- b) Plasmodium malariae
- c) Plasmodium falciparum
- d) Plasmodium ovale
Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is________?
- a) Brain
- b) Liver
- c) Spleen
- d) Lungs
Delhi boil refer to________?
- a) Solar Keratosis
- b) Malignant pustule
- c) L. Tropica sore
- d) Venereal ulcer
Madura mycosis produces_____?
- a) Brown to black granules
- b) White to yellow granules
- c) Red granules
- d) No granules
Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5µm in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of______?
- a) Histoplasmosis
- b) Rhinosporodiosis
- c) Phaeohypomycosis
- d) Chromoblastomycosis
Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection______?
- a) Microscopic examination of skin scrapings
- b) KOH staining
- c) Wood light examination
- d) All of the above
The following statement is true regarding fungal infection______?
- a) Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal
- b) Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man
- c) albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals
- d) Candida infection is usually endogenous
Common name for Trichuris trichura_______?
- a) Round worm
- b) Whip worm
- c) Tape worm
- d) Seat worm
Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______?
- a) Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver
- b) Hematoxylin and Eosin
- c) KOH wet mount
- d) Periodic Acid Schiff
Leishmania is cultured in __ media ?
- a) Chocolate agar
- b) NNN
- c) Tellurite
- d) Sabouraud
Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_______?
- a) Causes filariasis
- b) Body is slender and long
- c) Terminal nuclei absent
- d) Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Kolmer test is a screening test done for______?
- a) Syphilis
- b) Tuberculosis
- c) Gonorrhea
- d) Lymphoma
Cysticercosis cellulosae is caused by______?
- a) T. Solium
- b) Echinococcus granulosus
- c) T. Saginata
- d) Nana
Malaria pigment is______?
- a) Bilurubin
- b) Haemoglobin
- c) Iron
- d) Haematin-globin pigment
In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_____?
- a) Sporozoite
- b) Merozoite
- c) Hypnozoite
- d) Gametocyte
Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstrating______?
- a) Cysts in the sterile pus
- b) Trophozoites in the pus
- c) Cysts in the intestine
- d) Trophozoites in the feces
Parasitic inflammation would show predominantly______?
- a) Lymphocytes
- b) Neutrophils
- c) Eosinophils
- d) Basophils
Megaloblastic anemia is caused by____?
- a) Dog tapeworm
- b) Hookworm
- c) Fish tapeworm
- d) Threadworm
L.D bodies are seen in______?
- a) Kala-azar
- b) Toxoplasmosis
- c) Malaria
- d) Sleeping sickness
Hydatid cyst is_____?
- a) Parasitic in nature
- b) Fungal
- c) Congenital
- d) Viral
Candida albicans causes all of the following except______?
- a) Endocarditis
- b) Mycetoma
- c) Meningitis
- d) Oral thrush
Candida is most often implicated in causation______?
- a) Conjunctivitis
- b) Tenea capitis
- c) Desert rheumatism
- d) Thrush
Pseudohyphae are seen in_____?
- a) Alternaria
- b) Aspergillus
- c) Osporium
- d) Candida albicans
A sporangium contains_____?
- a) Spherules
- b) Sporangiospores
- c) Chlamydospores
- d) Oidia
Aflatoxins are produced by_______?
- a) Aspergillus Niger
- b) Aspergillus fumigatus
- c) Aspergillus flavus
- d) All of the above
Germ tubes are formed mainly by____?
- a) Candida albicans
- b) Candida stellatoidea
- c) Candida tropicalis
- d) Candida pseudotropicalis
Fungal infection of human beings is called as______?
- a) Mucorsis
- b) Mycosis
- c) Fungosis
- d) Micromia
Which of the following is true about amoebic liver disease ?
- a) Left lobe of liver is commonly involved
- b) Portal system is the main filtration system
- c) Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
- d) Non-suppurative form is the serious form of extra intestinal amoebiasis
Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine?
- a) Tuberculosis (BCG)
- b) Typhoid
- c) Varicella Zoster virus
- d) Cholera
Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose______?
- a) Anaphylaxis
- b) Arthus reaction
- c) Serum sickness
- d) Contact dermatitis
Anaphylaxis refers to the____?
- a) Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
- b) Severe reaction following primary injection of protein solutions
- c) State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
- d) Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens
Which of the following is not used as disinfectant______?
- a) 1-2% cetrimide
- b) 100% alcohol
- c) 2% Lysol
- d) 5% chloroxylene
Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes_____?
- a) NK Cells
- b) Cytotoxic T cells
- c) B cells
- d) Memory B cells
Chemotactic cytokine is______?
- a) IL-1
- b) IL-6
- c) IL-8
- d) TNF
Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by_____?
- a) Direct microscopy
- b) Culture
- c) ELISA
- d) DNA probe
The cell wall deficient bacteria______?
- a) Rickettsiae
- b) Mycoplasma
- c) Chlamydiae
- d) Ehrlichiae
Answer Key Summary
The questions are typically designed to assess the technical skills and knowledge required for the laboratory profession, including the ability to analyze laboratory test results, perform laboratory procedures, and maintain laboratory equipment.
To prepare for these MCQs, candidates should have a thorough understanding of the key concepts and principles of laboratory science. They should also be familiar with common laboratory equipment and procedures, as well as laboratory safety protocols.
Candidates may also benefit from studying specific laboratory science textbooks or taking online courses that cover the material tested in the MCQs. Additionally, practicing sample MCQs and reviewing the answers can help candidates identify areas where they may need to improve their knowledge or skills.
Overall, the MCQs for lab technologists are designed to be challenging and comprehensive, requiring candidates to demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the field of laboratory science.
