Simulate real exam conditions with our Laboratory Determinations in Hemostasis mock test! This timed practice exam features 160 carefully curated MCQs covering the entire scope of laboratory science certifications—including ASCP MLS, AMT MLT/MT, AIMS, CSMLS, IBMS, HAAD/DOH, DHA, and MOH. Track your progress, review performance analytics, and conquer time management challenges. Detailed answer keys help you understand mistakes and boost confidence. Perfect for final readiness checks!
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ASCP MLS Exam MCQs Chapter 9
Simulate real exam conditions with our comprehensive Laboratory Determinations in Hemostasis mock test ! This timed quiz features 160 expertly designed MCQs that cover key concepts in blood coagulation physiology—perfect for students and professionals preparing for certifications like ASCP MLS, AMT MLT/MT, AIMS, CSMLS, IBMS, HAAD/DOH, DHA, and MOH . Track your progress, analyze your performance, and fine-tune your time management skills. With detailed answer keys and explanations , this mock test is the perfect tool for final exam readiness and boosting your confidence before the real test day.
🔹 Simulate the Real Exam : Beat test-day nerves with timed conditions.
🔹 Track Your Progress : Review performance analytics to identify strengths and weaknesses.
🔹 Master Time Management : Sharpen your pacing skills under pressure.
🔹 Learn from Mistakes : Detailed answer explanations help you refine your understanding.
Ideal for final readiness checks , this mock test ensures you walk into the exam prepared, confident, and ready to excel! 🚀
Read MCQs Article: Free ASCP MLS Exam Practice Questions: Part 9 – (Laboratory Determinations)
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ASCP Exam Questions
What is a common cause of inhibitor development in hemophilia A patients?
Factor VIII inhibitors (neutralizing antibodies) develop in ~30% of severe hemophilia A patients (FVIII <1%) due to:
Replacement therapy with exogenous FVIII , which the immune system recognizes as “foreign.”
The risk is highest in high-risk genotypes (e.g., large F8 gene deletions, nonsense mutations).
Inhibitors render FVIII infusions ineffective, increasing bleeding risk.
Why Not the Others? A) Viral infection – May trigger immune responses but is not a primary cause of inhibitors.
B) Vaccination – No proven link to inhibitor development.
D) Iron deficiency – Unrelated to inhibitor formation.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A normal PT and aPTT with clinical bleeding may be due to:
PT and aPTT test the plasma coagulation pathways (extrinsic, intrinsic, and common).
If both are normal , the bleeding disorder is likely not due to a clotting factor deficiency (e.g., not vitamin K deficiency, hemophilia, or DIC).
Platelet function defects (e.g., von Willebrand disease, aspirin use, or thrombocytopenia) can cause bleeding without affecting PT/aPTT because platelets are involved in primary hemostasis (clot formation at the vessel level).
Why not the others? A) Vitamin K deficiency → Prolongs PT (affects Factors II, VII, IX, X).
C) Factor IX deficiency → Prolongs aPTT (Hemophilia B).
D) DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation) → Typically prolongs both PT and aPTT due to factor consumption.
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ASCP Exam Questions
An aggregation study reveals enhanced platelet response to low-dose ristocetin but normal response to high-dose ristocetin. What is the likely diagnosis?
Enhanced response to low-dose ristocetin suggests increased platelet agglutination due to abnormal von Willebrand factor (VWF) with heightened affinity for platelet GPIb (seen in Type 2B or 2M VWD ).
Normal response to high-dose ristocetin rules out severe deficiencies (Type 3 VWD) or global dysfunction (Type 1 VWD).
Type 2B VWD is most likely, where mutant VWF binds platelets spontaneously , causing thrombocytopenia and paradoxical aggregation at low ristocetin doses.
Why not others?
A) Type 1 VWD shows reduced aggregation at all ristocetin doses (quantitative VWF deficiency).
C) Type 3 VWD has no aggregation (absent VWF).
D) Normal platelets show no enhanced response to low-dose ristocetin .
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ASCP Exam Questions
The primary cause of prolonged thrombin time:
The thrombin time (TT) is most sensitive to heparin , which directly inhibits thrombin and prevents fibrinogen → fibrin conversion. While other factors can prolong TT, heparin is the most common and primary cause in clinical practice.
Key Reasons: Heparin (C) → Directly binds and inactivates thrombin, markedly prolonging TT .
Low fibrinogen (B) → Can prolong TT but is less common than heparin interference.
Factor V deficiency (A) & Protein C defect (D) → Do not affect TT (they influence PT/aPTT).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which test is most useful to monitor heparin therapy?
aPTT is the standard test for monitoring unfractionated heparin (UFH) therapy because heparin potentiates antithrombin , which primarily inhibits Factor Xa and thrombin (IIa) in the intrinsic pathway .
The aPTT reflects heparin’s anticoagulant effect, with a therapeutic range typically 1.5–2.5x the control value .
Why Not the Others? A) PT (Prothrombin Time) → Measures the extrinsic pathway; insensitive to heparin .
C) Fibrinogen → Assesses fibrinogen levels but does not reflect heparin activity.
D) Thrombin Time (TT) → Too sensitive to heparin (often prolonged even at low doses) but not used for routine monitoring .
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ASCP Exam Questions
Given :
1. dRVVT screen = 75 sec, PNP = 35 sec
2. Confirm = 38 sec, PNP = 36 secWhat is the normalized ratio?
To calculate the normalized dRVVT ratio , follow these steps:
Step 1: Calculate the Screen Ratio Screen Ratio=dRVVT Screen (Patient)dRVVT Screen (PNP)=7535=2.14 Screen Ratio = dRVVT Screen (PNP) dRVVT Screen (Patient) = 3575 = 2.14
Step 2: Calculate the Confirm Ratio Confirm Ratio=dRVVT Confirm (Patient)dRVVT Confirm (PNP)=3836=1.06 Confirm Ratio = dRVVT Confirm (PNP) dRVVT Confirm (Patient) = 3638 = 1.06
Step 3: Compute the Normalized Ratio Normalized Ratio=Screen RatioConfirm Ratio=2.141.06≈2.03 Normalized Ratio = Confirm Ratio Screen Ratio = 1.062.14 ≈ 2.03
Interpretation: Normalized ratio ≥1.2 suggests lupus anticoagulant (LA) .
Here, 2.03 strongly indicates LA (consistent with antiphospholipid syndrome).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Platelet aggregation studies show no response to ADP, collagen, and epinephrine but normal with ristocetin. Diagnosis?
Glanzmann thrombasthenia is characterized by absent platelet aggregation to agonists like ADP, collagen, and epinephrine due to a deficiency or dysfunction of the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa (GPIIb/IIIa) complex , which is required for fibrinogen binding and platelet-platelet bridging .
Ristocetin-induced aggregation remains normal because it depends on the GPIb/IX/V complex (intact in Glanzmann), which mediates von Willebrand factor (VWF)-dependent platelet agglutination .
Why Not the Others? A) Bernard-Soulier syndrome : Shows absent ristocetin aggregation (GPIb/IX/V defect) but normal response to ADP/collagen .
C) von Willebrand disease : Typically exhibits reduced ristocetin aggregation (due to VWF dysfunction) but normal ADP/collagen responses unless severe.
D) Factor VII deficiency : Affects PT only (extrinsic pathway); no impact on platelet aggregation
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which coagulation factor is most unstable in stored plasma samples?
Factor VIII is the most labile coagulation factor in stored plasma, losing activity quickly due to its instability at room temperature and sensitivity to pH changes.
Degradation begins rapidly (even in refrigerated conditions), making it critical to freeze plasma promptly for accurate testing.
Other factors (II, VII, X) are more stable in stored plasma.
Why Not the Others? A) Factor II (Prothrombin) – Stable for days in plasma.
B) Factor VII – Relatively stable compared to FVIII.
D) Factor X – Also stable in stored plasma.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which test is most sensitive to the presence of heparin in a blood sample?
Thrombin time (TT) is the most sensitive test for detecting heparin in a blood sample because it directly measures the time for thrombin to convert fibrinogen to fibrin.
Heparin potently inhibits thrombin (Factor IIa) , leading to significant prolongation of TT even at low concentrations.
TT is so sensitive that it will be prolonged with therapeutic or even subtherapeutic heparin levels .
aPTT (not listed) is used for monitoring heparin but is less sensitive than TT.
Why Not the Others? A) PT (Prothrombin Time) – Measures the extrinsic pathway; insensitive to heparin (only high doses affect it).
B) Fibrinogen – Measures fibrinogen levels; unaffected by heparin unless the assay is thrombin-based (then falsely low).
D) D-dimer – Reflects fibrinolysis, not heparin activity .
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which test is prolonged in both hemophilia A and B?
Hemophilia A (Factor VIII deficiency) and Hemophilia B (Factor IX deficiency) both affect the intrinsic coagulation pathway , which is measured by the aPTT .
The aPTT will be prolonged in both conditions, while the PT, platelet count, and thrombin time remain normal (they are not dependent on Factors VIII or IX).
Why Not the Others? A) PT (Prothrombin Time) : Evaluates the extrinsic pathway (Factor VII) and common pathway (Factors X, V, II, fibrinogen)—unaffected in hemophilia .
C) Platelet count : Measures platelet number (normal in hemophilia).
D) Thrombin time : Tests fibrinogen conversion to fibrin (normal in hemophilia).
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ASCP Exam Questions
A prolonged PT and aPTT that corrects with vitamin K suggests:
Vitamin K deficiency leads to impaired synthesis of vitamin K-dependent factors (II, VII, IX, X, protein C/S) , causing prolonged PT and aPTT .
Correction with vitamin K confirms the diagnosis, as supplementation restores factor carboxylation and normalizes clotting times .
Why Not the Others? A) Liver failure : Prolonged PT/aPTT does not correct with vitamin K (hepatocyte dysfunction impairs factor synthesis) .
C) DIC : Consumptive coagulopathy causes low fibrinogen, high D-dimer , and no vitamin K response .
D) Hemophilia A : Prolongs aPTT only (Factor VIII deficiency); unaffected by vitamin K
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ASCP Exam Questions
The screening test for platelet adhesion is:
The bleeding time test evaluates platelet adhesion and primary hemostasis by measuring the time for bleeding to stop after a standardized skin incision.
It reflects the ability of platelets to adhere to damaged endothelium (via von Willebrand factor) and form a plug .
Why Not the Others? A) PT (Prothrombin Time) : Assesses the extrinsic coagulation pathway (unrelated to platelet function).
B) Platelet count : Measures platelet quantity, not adhesion or function.
D) Thrombin time : Evaluates fibrinogen conversion to fibrin (plasma coagulation).
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ASCP Exam Questions
A sample drawn from a heparinized line shows a prolonged aPTT and thrombin time. What should be done first?
Heparin contamination from an IV line is a common preanalytical error causing falsely prolonged aPTT and thrombin time (TT) .
First step : Redraw the sample properly (e.g., discard the first 5 mL of blood, use a non-heparinized line, or perform a fresh venipuncture).
Rationale :
Heparin binds antithrombin, inhibiting thrombin (↑TT) and intrinsic pathway factors (↑aPTT).
Repeating the test with an uncontaminated sample avoids unnecessary follow-up tests (e.g., mixing studies, factor assays).
Why Not the Others? B) Mixing study – Premature if heparin contamination is suspected.
C) Neutralize heparin (e.g., with protamine) – Only for confirmed heparin effect (not first-line for suspected contamination).
D) Factor assays – Unnecessary until heparin is ruled out.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which factor is most labile in stored plasma?
Factor V is the most labile (unstable) coagulation factor in stored plasma, losing activity rapidly within 24–48 hours at room temperature or even under refrigerated conditions.
This instability is why fresh frozen plasma (FFP) must be used for Factor V replacement, as standard stored plasma loses Factor V activity quickly.
Why Not the Others? A) Factor II (Prothrombin) : Stable for 5 days in refrigerated plasma.
C) Factor IX : Stable in frozen plasma for longer periods .
D) Factor XIII : Extremely stable, even in stored serum.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A patient receiving LMWH has an anti-Xa level of 0.9 U/mL. This indicates:
For low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) , the anti-Xa therapeutic range is typically 0.5–1.2 U/mL (varies by indication and institutional guidelines).
An anti-Xa level of 0.9 U/mL falls within the therapeutic range for most treatment protocols.
Why Not the Others? A) Subtherapeutic – Would be <0.5 U/mL for treatment dosing.
C) Supratherapeutic – Would be >1.2 U/mL (requires dose reduction).
D) Risk of bleeding – Not directly predicted by anti-Xa levels; clinical assessment is needed.
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ASCP Exam Questions
According to the cell-based coagulation model, clotting is initiated on:
The cell-based model of coagulation describes clotting as occurring in three overlapping phases :
Initiation – Begins when tissue factor (TF) on TF-bearing cells (e.g., subendothelial fibroblasts, activated monocytes) binds Factor VIIa , forming the TF-FVIIa complex and generating small amounts of thrombin (FIIa) .
Amplification – Thrombin activates platelets and cofactors (FV, FVIII, FXI) on the platelet surface.
Propagation – Large-scale thrombin burst occurs on activated platelet membranes (not endothelial cells or collagen directly).
Why Not Others? A) Activated platelet membranes – Critical for propagation , not initiation.
B) Endothelial cells – Normally anticoagulant ; only procoagulant if injured.
C) Subendothelial collagen – Exposed after vascular injury but does not initiate clotting alone (requires TF).
✅ Key Point: TF-bearing cells trigger the cascade, while platelets amplify/propagate it.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A persistently prolonged aPTT that corrects with mixing but no bleeding history is most likely due to deficiency in:
Factor XII (Hageman factor) deficiency is the most likely cause of a persistently prolonged aPTT that corrects with mixing in a patient without bleeding symptoms .
Correction with mixing confirms a factor deficiency (not an inhibitor).
Why Not the Others? A) Factor VIII (Hemophilia A) – Causes bleeding (prolonged aPTT, corrects with mixing).
B) Factor IX (Hemophilia B) – Causes bleeding (prolonged aPTT, corrects with mixing).
C) Factor XI – Mild bleeding risk (e.g., post-surgery/trauma).
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ASCP Exam Questions
The presence of which antibody leads to a prolonged aPTT without bleeding symptoms?
Lupus anticoagulant (LA) is an antiphospholipid antibody that prolongs aPTT by interfering with phospholipid-dependent clotting tests in vitro.
Paradoxically, it is associated with thrombosis (not bleeding) due to hypercoagulability in vivo .
Why Not the Others? A) Anti-factor IX : Rare; causes bleeding (prolonged aPTT with low Factor IX levels).
B) Anti-thrombin : Neutralizes thrombin, leading to bleeding (prolongs TT/aPTT).
D) Anti-platelet antibody : Causes thrombocytopenia (e.g., ITP) but does not affect aPTT.
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ASCP Exam Questions
An aPTT that remains prolonged after a mixing study suggests:
A prolonged aPTT that does not correct with a 50:50 mixing study (patient plasma + normal plasma) indicates the presence of an inhibitor , not a factor deficiency.
Lupus anticoagulant (B) is an acquired antiphospholipid antibody that interferes with phospholipid-dependent clotting tests (e.g., aPTT) but paradoxically causes thrombosis, not bleeding .
Why Not the Others? A) Factor VIII deficiency & C) Factor IX deficiency : Both are factor deficiencies that correct with mixing (missing factors are replaced by normal plasma).
D) Normal variant : A prolonged aPTT without clinical bleeding or correction would be unusual; inhibitors like lupus anticoagulant are more likely.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A patient’s aggregation test shows no response to ADP or collagen but a normal response to ristocetin. What is the likely diagnosis?
Glanzmann thrombasthenia (GT) is characterized by absent platelet aggregation to agonists like ADP and collagen due to a deficiency or dysfunction of the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa (GPIIb/IIIa) complex , which is required for fibrinogen binding and platelet-platelet bridging .
Ristocetin-induced aggregation remains normal because it depends on the GPIb/IX/V complex (intact in GT), which mediates von Willebrand factor (VWF)-dependent platelet agglutination .
Why Not the Others? A) von Willebrand disease (VWD) : Typically shows reduced ristocetin aggregation (due to VWF dysfunction) but normal ADP/collagen responses unless severe .
B) Storage pool disorder : Causes impaired secondary wave aggregation with ADP/epinephrine (due to granule secretion defects) but normal ristocetin response .
D) Aspirin effect : Prolongs bleeding time and reduces ADP/collagen aggregation (via thromboxane A2 inhibition) but does not abolish aggregation entirely
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ASCP Exam Questions
The dilute Russell viper venom test (dRVVT) screen reagent contains:
The dilute Russell viper venom test (dRVVT) is a specialized assay used to detect lupus anticoagulants (LAs) .
Its screen reagent contains:
Russell viper venom (RVV) : Directly activates Factor X , bypassing the need for Factors VII, VIII, or IX.
Low phospholipid concentration : Intentionally reduced to enhance sensitivity to phospholipid-dependent antibodies (e.g., LA).
If LA is present, the dRVVT screen time will be prolonged due to antibody interference with phospholipid-dependent clotting.
Why Not the Others? A) High phospholipids – Would mask LA effects (used in confirmatory reagents to neutralize LA).
B) No phospholipid – Clotting would fail (phospholipids are essential for FX activation).
D) Hexagonal phospholipid – Used in neutralization assays (e.g., Staclot LA) to confirm LA, not in dRVVT.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following is used to assess platelet secretion defects?
ATP release assay directly measures platelet granule secretion (e.g., dense granule ADP/ATP release), which is impaired in storage pool disorders (e.g., δ-storage pool deficiency).
It quantifies the biochemical output of platelet activation, unlike aggregation tests that only assess clumping.
Why Not the Others? A) Bleeding time : Nonspecific for secretion defects (prolonged in many platelet disorders).
B) Platelet aggregation with thrombin : Detects GPIIb/IIIa function (e.g., Glanzmann thrombasthenia) but not granule release.
D) aPTT : Evaluates plasma coagulation , not platelet function.
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ASCP Exam Questions
An uncorrected aPTT mixing study in a bleeding child is indicative of:
An uncorrected aPTT mixing study (immediate 50:50 mix with normal plasma fails to normalize aPTT) indicates the presence of a circulating inhibitor , most commonly:
In a bleeding child , this suggests congenital hemophilia A with an alloantibody inhibitor (developed against infused FVIII).
Why Not the Others? A) von Willebrand disease – Prolongs bleeding time but corrects aPTT with mixing (no inhibitor).
B) Hemophilia B (Factor IX deficiency) – Corrects with mixing (unless an inhibitor is present, which is rare ).
D) Vitamin K deficiency – Prolongs PT (not isolated aPTT) and corrects with mixing.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A patient has factor VIII = 2%, vWF antigen = 3%, and ristocetin cofactor <1%. What type of von Willebrand disease is this?
Type 3 von Willebrand disease (VWD) is characterized by:
Type 3 VWD is autosomal recessive , causing severe mucosal bleeding (similar to hemophilia A).
Why Not the Others? A) Type 1 – Partial quantitative deficiency (vWF antigen/activity 5–30%), FVIII usually >10%.
B) Type 2 – Qualitative defects (e.g., 2A, 2B, 2M, 2N); FVIII varies but vWF activity:antigen ratio is abnormal .
C) Type 2B – Gain-of-function mutation causing spontaneous platelet binding (low vWF but thrombocytopenia )
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ASCP Exam Questions
Ristocetin-induced aggregation is absent in:
Ristocetin-induced platelet aggregation requires the binding of von Willebrand factor (VWF) to platelet glycoprotein Ib (GPIb) .
Bernard-Soulier syndrome (B) is caused by a deficiency or dysfunction of GPIb , leading to absent ristocetin aggregation (since platelets cannot bind VWF).
Why Not the Others? A) Glanzmann thrombasthenia : Shows normal ristocetin aggregation (GPIb is intact) but absent aggregation to ADP/collagen (due to GPIIb/IIIa defect).
C) von Willebrand disease (VWD) : May show reduced ristocetin aggregation (due to low VWF activity) but not complete absence unless severe.
D) Storage pool disease : Normal ristocetin aggregation (defect is in granule secretion, not GPIb).
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ASCP Exam Questions
A patient presents with PT = 18.5 sec (↑), aPTT = 47.5 sec (↑), thrombin time normal, antithrombin = 82%, protein C = 54%, and protein S = 48%. What is the most likely explanation?
PT and aPTT are both prolonged → Suggests a vitamin K-dependent factor deficiency (Factors II, VII, IX, X) or warfarin effect .
Normal thrombin time → Rules out heparin (which would prolong TT).
Reduced protein C (54%) and protein S (48%) → Expected with warfarin , as they are vitamin K-dependent anticoagulants.
No bleeding/clotting history → Makes thrombophilia (A) or hemophilia (B) less likely.
Why Not the Others? A) Thrombophilia → Typically presents with thrombosis , not prolonged PT/aPTT.
B) Hemophilia → Prolongs aPTT only (PT normal).
C) Heparin use → Prolongs aPTT and thrombin time (TT would be elevated).
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ASCP Exam Questions
What is the reference range for bleeding time (template method)?
The template method (a standardized version of the Ivy technique) typically reports a reference range of 2–9 minutes for bleeding time .
This method uses a device to create uniform incisions (e.g., 1 mm deep × 5–10 mm long) for consistency, unlike older methods like the Duke technique (earlobe puncture, normal: 2–5 min) .
Key Points: Template Method :
Why Not Other Options?
A) 1–2 min : Too short; seen only in hypercoagulable states (not standard).
B) 2–4 min : Matches the Duke method (earlobe), not the template .
D) 6–12 min : Exceeds the upper limit of normal (abnormal range).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which protein does heparin bind to in order to exert its anticoagulant effect?
Heparin’s anticoagulant effect depends entirely on its binding to antithrombin (AT) .
The heparin-AT complex undergoes a conformational change that accelerates AT’s inhibition of key clotting factors :
This mechanism is why AT deficiency causes heparin resistance .
Why Not the Others? A) Protein C – An anticoagulant, but heparin does not bind it.
B) Protein S – A cofactor for Protein C, unrelated to heparin.
C) Factor Xa – Heparin enhances AT’s inhibition of Xa but does not bind Xa directly.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which lab test is most appropriate for monitoring unfractionated heparin therapy?
Unfractionated heparin (UFH) primarily inhibits Factor Xa and thrombin (IIa) via antithrombin, prolonging the intrinsic pathway .
The aPTT is the standard test for monitoring UFH because it reflects heparin’s anticoagulant effect in the therapeutic range (typically targeting 1.5–2.5x the control value).
Anti-Xa assays (not listed) are an alternative but are less commonly used for routine UFH monitoring.
Why Not the Others? A) PT (Prothrombin Time) – Measures the extrinsic pathway (unaffected by heparin).
B) INR (International Normalized Ratio) – Used for warfarin, not heparin.
D) Platelet count – Important for detecting heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) but does not assess anticoagulation efficacy.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Prolonged PT and bleeding following antibiotic therapy is most likely due to:
Prolonged PT (with normal or mildly prolonged aPTT) and bleeding after antibiotics suggest vitamin K deficiency , because:
Broad-spectrum antibiotics (e.g., cephalosporins) can:
Kill gut bacteria that synthesize vitamin K₂.
Disrupt dietary vitamin K absorption (fat-soluble vitamin).
Vitamin K is required for γ-carboxylation of Factors II, VII, IX, X (PT measures VII, the most sensitive).
Classic triad : Prolonged PT, bleeding, and no prior liver disease .
Why Not the Others? A) Liver failure – Would also cause low fibrinogen , elevated bilirubin, and prolonged aPTT (all factors affected).
B) Aspirin overdose – Causes platelet dysfunction (normal PT, prolonged bleeding time).
D) Factor VIII inhibitor – Prolongs aPTT (not PT) and causes bleeding.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Warfarin treatment has the most impact on which naturally occurring anticoagulant?
Warfarin inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase (VKOR) , reducing the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X) and natural anticoagulants (Protein C and Protein S) .
Among these, Protein C is the most clinically significant because:
It has a shorter half-life (~6–8 hours) compared to clotting factors like prothrombin (Factor II, half-life ~60 hours). This means Protein C levels drop rapidly after warfarin initiation , creating a transient hypercoagulable state in the first few days of therapy .
This imbalance can lead to warfarin-induced skin necrosis , a rare but severe complication in patients with underlying Protein C deficiency .
Why Not the Others? A) Antithrombin – Not vitamin K-dependent; unaffected by warfarin.
B) Protein S – Also vitamin K-dependent, but its depletion is less critical than Protein C in the early phase of warfarin therapy.
C) Factor V Leiden – A genetic mutation (not an anticoagulant) causing activated Protein C resistance; warfarin does not directly affect it.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A patient has abnormal bleeding, normal platelet count, prolonged bleeding time, and reduced ristocetin cofactor. The most likely cause is:
The patient’s presentation (abnormal bleeding, normal platelet count, prolonged bleeding time, and reduced ristocetin cofactor activity ) is classic for von Willebrand disease (VWD) .
Ristocetin cofactor (VWF:RCo) measures the functional ability of von Willebrand factor (VWF) to bind platelets, which is impaired in VWD .
Prolonged bleeding time reflects defective platelet adhesion due to VWF dysfunction .
Normal platelet count rules out thrombocytopenia (e.g., Bernard-Soulier syndrome) .
Why Not the Others? A) Bernard-Soulier syndrome : Causes thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) and absent ristocetin-induced platelet aggregation (due to GPIb deficiency), but ristocetin cofactor (plasma VWF activity) is normal .
C) Glanzmann thrombasthenia : Presents with normal ristocetin cofactor but defective platelet aggregation to ADP/collagen (GPIIb/IIIa defect).
D) Factor VII deficiency : Prolongs PT (extrinsic pathway) but does not affect bleeding time or ristocetin cofactor
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ASCP Exam Questions
A thromboelastography (TEG) tracing from a post-cardiac surgery patient reveals rapid clot development. What does this indicate?
Rapid clot development on TEG (shortened R-time , or reaction time) indicates hypercoagulability , meaning the blood is clotting too quickly.
In a post-cardiac surgery patient , this suggests insufficient anticoagulation (e.g., inadequate heparin reversal or prothrombotic state).
This increases the risk of postoperative thrombosis (e.g., graft occlusion, stroke).
Why Not the Others? A) Over-anticoagulation would show prolonged R-time (slower clot initiation).
B) Adequate anticoagulation would show normal R-time and clot kinetics .
D) Platelet disorder would primarily affect MA (maximum amplitude, clot strength) , not the speed of clot initiation.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A patient with low protein S activity and antigen levels but normal C4b-binding protein has which type of protein S deficiency?
Type I protein S deficiency is characterized by low levels of both free protein S antigen and activity , with normal C4b-binding protein .
Type II (C) would show normal antigen levels but reduced activity (functional defect).
Type III (D) would show low free protein S but normal total protein S (due to increased C4b-binding protein, which is not the case here ).
Why Not the Others? A) No deficiency – Incorrect, since both activity and antigen are low.
C) Type II – Functional defect (normal antigen, low activity).
D) Type III – Only free protein S is low (total protein S is normal), but this requires high C4b-binding protein , which is normal in this case .
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ASCP Exam Questions
What result would you expect in aspirin ingestion?
Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) , blocking thromboxane A2 (TXA2) production, which is required for platelet activation and aggregation.
Arachidonic acid is the substrate for COX-1, so aspirin ingestion leads to markedly reduced platelet aggregation in response to arachidonic acid .
Why Not the Others? A) Normal bleeding time : Aspirin prolongs bleeding time due to impaired platelet function (though this test is rarely used now) .
B) Increased ristocetin aggregation : Ristocetin-induced aggregation depends on VWF-GPIb interaction and is unaffected by aspirin .
D) Decreased D-dimer : D-dimer reflects fibrinolysis (e.g., DIC, VTE); aspirin has no effect on fibrin breakdown
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ASCP Exam Questions
The effect of heparin on coagulation is best monitored using:
Heparin exerts its anticoagulant effect by potentiating antithrombin , which primarily inhibits Factor Xa and thrombin (Factor IIa) in the intrinsic pathway .
The aPTT is the standard test to monitor unfractionated heparin (UFH) therapy, with a target range typically 1.5–2.5x the control value .
Why Not the Others? A) PT (Prothrombin Time) : Measures the extrinsic pathway; insensitive to heparin .
C) INR (International Normalized Ratio) : Used for warfarin monitoring , not heparin.
D) Bleeding time : Reflects platelet function; unaffected by heparin .
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ASCP Exam Questions
Platelet aggregation tests help diagnose:
Platelet aggregation tests evaluate how well platelets clump together in response to agonists (e.g., ADP, collagen, ristocetin).
Bernard-Soulier syndrome (C) is a platelet function disorder caused by a GP1b/IX/V receptor defect , impairing ristocetin-induced aggregation (but normal response to other agonists).
Why Not the Others? A) Thalassemia → Diagnosed by hemoglobin electrophoresis , not platelet function.
B) Hemophilia → A coagulation factor deficiency (VIII/IX); platelet aggregation is normal.
D) DIC → Diagnosed by D-dimer, PT/aPTT, platelet count, and fibrinogen —not aggregation studies.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Platelet aggregation with ADP is absent in:
Glanzmann thrombasthenia is caused by a deficiency or dysfunction of platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa (GPIIb/IIIa) , the receptor for fibrinogen.
This defect prevents platelet aggregation in response to ADP, collagen, and epinephrine , while ristocetin-induced aggregation remains normal (as it depends on GPIb, not GPIIb/IIIa).
Why Not the Others? A) von Willebrand disease : Shows normal ADP aggregation but reduced ristocetin aggregation (due to VWF dysfunction).
C) Bernard-Soulier syndrome : Has normal ADP aggregation but absent ristocetin aggregation (GPIb/IX/V defect).
D) Factor VIII deficiency : Does not affect platelet function (prolongs aPTT only).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which test is not used to evaluate primary hemostasis?
Primary hemostasis involves platelet plug formation at the site of vascular injury and is evaluated by tests that assess platelet number and function :
Bleeding time (A) : Measures platelet adhesion/aggregation (though rarely used now).
Platelet count (B) : Quantifies platelet number.
Platelet aggregation studies (C) : Assess platelet response to agonists (e.g., ADP, collagen).
PT (D) evaluates the extrinsic coagulation pathway (Factor VII) and is part of secondary hemostasis (fibrin clot formation), not primary hemostasis .
Why Not the Others? A, B, C : All directly assess platelet-related aspects of primary hemostasis.
D) PT : Reflects plasma coagulation factors, unrelated to platelet function .
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ASCP Exam Questions
To detect lupus anticoagulant, the aPTT reagent should contain:
Lupus anticoagulant (LA) is detected by phospholipid-dependent tests (e.g., aPTT, dRVVT) that use low phospholipid concentrations to enhance sensitivity.
LA antibodies bind phospholipids , prolonging clotting times in low-phospholipid reagents.
High-phospholipid reagents (confirmatory step) neutralize LA, shortening the clotting time.
The aPTT LA-sensitive reagent is designed with just enough phospholipid to detect LA interference.
Why Not the Others? A) No phospholipid – Clotting would fail (phospholipids are essential for coagulation).
B) High phospholipid – Masks LA effects (used in confirmatory tests ).
D) Heparin neutralizer – Irrelevant (LA testing requires heparin-free samples).
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ASCP Exam Questions
A patient has prolonged PT and aPTT. Fibrinogen is low. Platelets are decreased. D-dimer is high. Diagnosis?
The patient’s lab results (prolonged PT/aPTT, low fibrinogen, thrombocytopenia, and elevated D-dimer ) are classic for DIC , a consumptive coagulopathy where widespread clotting depletes platelets and coagulation factors, followed by secondary fibrinolysis (high D-dimer).
Why Not the Others? A) Liver disease : May cause prolonged PT/aPTT and low fibrinogen, but typically platelets are normal/mildly reduced , and D-dimer is not elevated unless concurrent DIC.
B) Hemophilia : Prolongs aPTT only (intrinsic pathway defect) with normal PT, fibrinogen, platelets, and D-dimer .
C) von Willebrand disease : Usually presents with normal PT/aPTT (unless severe Type 3) and normal fibrinogen/D-dimer ; primary issue is platelet dysfunction
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which factor is involved in cross-linking fibrin?
Factor XIII is a transglutaminase that cross-links fibrin polymers by forming covalent bonds between lysine and glutamine residues, stabilizing the clot and making it resistant to fibrinolysis .
Deficiency leads to fragile clots and delayed bleeding (e.g., umbilical stump hemorrhage) despite normal PT/aPTT .
Why Not the Others? A) Factor VIII : Cofactor for Factor IX in intrinsic pathway (no role in fibrin cross-linking).
C) Factor V : Cofactor for Factor X in prothrombinase complex (common pathway).
D) Factor X : Activates prothrombin (Factor II) but does not modify fibrin structure.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The PT is used to monitor therapy with:
PT (Prothrombin Time) is the standard test to monitor warfarin therapy because warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent factors (II, VII, IX, X) , with Factor VII (short half-life) affecting PT first.
Results are reported as INR (International Normalized Ratio) for standardization (therapeutic range typically 2.0–3.0 for most conditions).
Why Not the Others? A) Heparin : Monitored by aPTT (or anti-Xa assay for LMWH).
C) Aspirin : No effect on PT; assessed by platelet function tests (e.g., PFA-100).
D) Streptokinase (thrombolytic): Monitored clinically or with fibrinogen/D-dimer , not PT.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A patient on unfractionated heparin has a subtherapeutic aPTT, but suspected DVT. What is the most appropriate test to monitor therapy?
Unfractionated heparin (UFH) works by activating antithrombin (AT) to inhibit Factor Xa and thrombin (IIa) .
The aPTT is the standard test for monitoring UFH, but in some cases (e.g., subtherapeutic aPTT with suspected heparin resistance, antithrombin deficiency, or lupus anticoagulant interference ), the anti-Xa assay is more reliable.
Anti-Xa assay directly measures heparin’s effect on Factor Xa inhibition and is not affected by conditions that alter aPTT (e.g., lupus anticoagulant, factor deficiencies).
Why not the others? A) Anti-IIa assay – Measures thrombin inhibition but is less commonly used than anti-Xa for heparin monitoring.
B) Platelet count – Used to check for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) , not for heparin efficacy.
D) PT (Prothrombin Time) – Monitors warfarin, not heparin.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which test evaluates the extrinsic coagulation pathway?
The PT (Prothrombin Time) test evaluates the extrinsic coagulation pathway , which is initiated by tissue factor (Factor III) and involves Factor VII .
aPTT (A) assesses the intrinsic pathway .
TT (C) measures the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin (common pathway).
Fibrinogen assay (D) quantifies fibrinogen levels but does not specifically test the extrinsic pathway.
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ASCP Exam Questions
In patients with COVID-19, which coagulation test correlates most strongly with mortality risk?
In COVID-19 , a hypercoagulable state develops due to endothelial injury, inflammation, and thrombin generation , leading to venous/arterial thrombosis (e.g., PE, DVT, stroke).
D-dimer (a fibrin degradation product) is the most reliable predictor of mortality because:
It reflects ongoing thrombosis and fibrinolysis .
Elevated levels correlate with disease severity (higher in ICU patients/non-survivors).
Studies show D-dimer >2-4x upper limit of normal predicts poor outcomes (ARDS, death).
Why Not Others? A) PT (Prothrombin Time) – May be prolonged in DIC/sepsis but less specific for COVID-19 thrombosis.
B) aPTT – Often normal or mildly prolonged ; not a strong prognostic marker.
D) Bleeding time – Irrelevant in COVID-19 (not used in coagulopathy assessment).
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ASCP Exam Questions
What does the secondary wave in ADP or epinephrine-induced platelet aggregation indicate?
The secondary wave in ADP- or epinephrine-induced platelet aggregation reflects dense granule secretion (e.g., ADP, serotonin, calcium), which amplifies platelet activation and recruitment.
Why Not the Others? A) Fibrin formation : Occurs during coagulation (not platelet aggregation).
B) Platelet shape change : Happens before aggregation (pseudopodia formation).
D) Clot retraction : Mediated by actin-myosin contraction (post-aggregation) .
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ASCP Exam Questions
INR standardizes results for which test?
The International Normalized Ratio (INR) was developed to standardize PT (Prothrombin Time) results across different laboratories and thromboplastin reagents.
It adjusts for variations in thromboplastin sensitivity using the formula:
INR = (Patient PT / Mean Normal PT)^ISI
where ISI (International Sensitivity Index) is specific to the reagent/instrument combination .
Why Not the Others? A) aPTT : Reported in seconds (no INR equivalent; sensitivity varies by reagent).
B) Thrombin time : Measures fibrinogen conversion; no standardization needed.
D) Bleeding time : A platelet function test; results are in minutes.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A shortened aPTT result may be caused by:
A shortened aPTT indicates accelerated intrinsic pathway clotting , often due to:
Elevated acute phase proteins (e.g., Factor VIII , fibrinogen) during inflammation, infection, or stress.
Hypercoagulable states (e.g., early DIC, cancer).
Factor VIII (an acute phase reactant) is the most common cause , as it accelerates Factor X activation.
Why Not the Others? A) Factor XII deficiency – Prolongs aPTT (no bleeding risk).
B) Anticoagulant therapy (e.g., heparin) – Prolongs aPTT .
D) Vitamin K deficiency – Affects extrinsic pathway (prolongs PT), not aPTT.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A patient has normal PT, aPTT, platelet count, and fibrinogen but experiences delayed bleeding after suture removal. What condition should be suspected?
Factor XIII deficiency causes delayed bleeding (e.g., 24–72 hours post-trauma/surgery) due to impaired fibrin clot stabilization, despite normal screening tests (PT, aPTT, platelets, fibrinogen).
Why Not the Others? A) von Willebrand disease – Typically causes mucosal bleeding and may prolong bleeding time (but aPTT can be normal in mild cases).
C) DIC – Would show abnormal PT/aPTT, low platelets/fibrinogen .
D) Hemophilia A – Prolongs aPTT .
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ASCP Exam Questions
High levels of factor VIII in the blood will have what effect on aPTT?
Factor VIII is a critical cofactor in the intrinsic coagulation pathway , accelerating the activation of Factor X (with Factor IXa).
Elevated Factor VIII levels increase the speed of clot formation, leading to a shortened aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time).
This effect is independent of bleeding/thrombotic risk—high Factor VIII alone does not confirm hypercoagulability but may contribute to thrombotic tendency.
Why Not the Others? A) Prolong aPTT – Only occurs with Factor VIII deficiency (e.g., hemophilia A) or inhibitors.
B) No change – Incorrect; Factor VIII directly impacts the intrinsic pathway measured by aPTT.
D) Invalid result – Unrelated; invalid results arise from technical errors (e.g., hemolysis, heparin contamination).
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ASCP Exam Questions
The clot retraction test evaluates:
The clot retraction test assesses the ability of platelets to contract (via actin/myosin filaments), pulling fibrin strands together and squeezing out serum from the clot.
It evaluates platelet function , particularly the integrity of contractile proteins (e.g., thrombosthenin) and GPIIb/IIIa (fibrinogen receptor).
Why Not the Others? A) Platelet count : Measured by CBC ; clot retraction is independent of platelet number (unless severe thrombocytopenia).
C) Fibrinogen levels : Tested via fibrinogen assay ; clot retraction requires normal fibrinogen but doesn’t measure it directly.
D) Coagulation factors : Evaluated by PT/aPTT ; clot retraction depends on platelets, not soluble factors.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Thromboelastography (TEG) provides a global assessment of what processes?
Thromboelastography (TEG) assesses whole blood coagulation dynamics , including:
Clot initiation (time to start clotting, influenced by coagulation factors),
Clot strength (platelet and fibrinogen contribution),
Fibrinolysis (clot breakdown).
Unlike isolated tests (e.g., platelet count or PT/INR), TEG provides a comprehensive evaluation of the entire clotting process.
Why not others?
A) TEG does not directly measure platelet count or fibrinogen levels (though it reflects their functional impact).
C) TEG detects clot formation abnormalities but does not specifically identify individual factor deficiencies.
D) Platelet adhesion is only one aspect; TEG evaluates broader platelet function within clot strength.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A thrombin time is used to evaluate:
The thrombin time (TT) test measures how long it takes for fibrinogen to be converted into fibrin when thrombin is added.
It evaluates the final step of the coagulation cascade and helps detect abnormalities in fibrinogen or inhibitors like heparin or fibrin degradation products (FDPs) .
Why Not the Others? B) Intrinsic factor activity → Assessed by aPTT , not TT.
C) Platelet aggregation → Tested via platelet function assays (e.g., PFA-100) .
D) D-dimer → Measures fibrin breakdown (used for DIC or VTE diagnosis), not fibrin formation.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which molecular test is used to confirm activated protein C resistance?
Activated Protein C Resistance (APCR) is most commonly caused by the Factor V Leiden (FVL) mutation (a G1691A missense mutation in the F5 gene), which makes Factor Va resistant to inactivation by Activated Protein C (APC) .
Molecular testing for Factor V Leiden is the gold standard to confirm hereditary APCR, as it directly detects the R506Q substitution in Factor V .
Functional APCR assays (e.g., aPTT-based tests) are screening tools, but DNA-based testing (e.g., PCR) is required for definitive diagnosis .
Why Not the Others? A) MTHFR mutation : Associated with hyperhomocysteinemia, not APCR.
B) PAI-1 polymorphism : Linked to fibrinolysis disorders, not APCR.
D) Prothrombin G20210A : A thrombophilic mutation unrelated to APCR
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ASCP Exam Questions
A mixing study shows aPTT correction immediately after mixing, but prolongation after incubation. What does this suggest?
Immediate correction of aPTT after mixing suggests the initial prolongation was due to a factor deficiency (since adding normal plasma provides missing factors).
Prolongation after incubation (typically 1–2 hours) indicates a time-dependent inhibitor , such as:
These inhibitors take time to neutralize the added factors in the normal plasma.
Why Not the Others? A) Factor deficiency – Would correct immediately and remain corrected after incubation.
C) Low fibrinogen – Affects thrombin time (TT) or clot firmness, not aPTT in this pattern.
D) Antithrombin deficiency – Does not cause aPTT prolongation in mixing studies
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ASCP Exam Questions
Heparin resistance is most commonly associated with a deficiency in which protein?
Heparin resistance occurs when standard heparin doses fail to achieve therapeutic anticoagulation (e.g., inadequate aPTT prolongation).
The most common cause is antithrombin (AT) deficiency , because:
Heparin binds to AT to potentiate its inhibition of thrombin (IIa) and Factor Xa.
Low AT levels (congenital or acquired) reduce heparin’s effectiveness, requiring higher doses or AT concentrate.
Why Not the Others? A) Protein C – Deficiency causes thrombophilia but does not impair heparin’s mechanism.
B) Protein S – Similar to Protein C; unrelated to heparin’s action.
D) Factor VII – Extrinsic pathway factor; deficiency prolongs PT but does not affect heparin.
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ASCP Exam Questions
In the Clauss method for fibrinogen measurement, what reagent is added to patient plasma?
The Clauss method is the gold standard for measuring fibrinogen levels.
Thrombin is added directly to diluted patient plasma, converting fibrinogen into fibrin.
The time taken for clot formation is measured and compared to a standard curve to determine fibrinogen concentration.
Why Not the Others? A) Calcium – Used in PT/aPTT tests but not in the Clauss method.
B) Kaolin – An activator in aPTT testing, not fibrinogen assays.
D) Tissue thromboplastin – Used in PT testing (extrinsic pathway activation).
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ASCP Exam Questions
What does D-dimer specifically indicate?
D-dimer is a specific marker for the breakdown of cross-linked fibrin (not fibrinogen), indicating fibrinolysis due to clot formation.
It is generated when plasmin cleaves cross-linked fibrin (from stabilized clots), releasing D-dimer fragments.
Why Not the Others? A) Fibrinogen degradation : Produces FDPs (fibrin degradation products), but D-dimer is not elevated because fibrinogen lacks cross-linking.
B) Platelet lysis : Unrelated to D-dimer; measured by platelet activation markers (e.g., PF4, β-thromboglobulin).
D) Von Willebrand factor activity : Assessed by VWF antigen or ristocetin cofactor assay , not D-dimer
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ASCP Exam Questions
Ristocetin-induced platelet aggregation evaluates the function of:
Ristocetin-induced platelet aggregation specifically tests the interaction between von Willebrand factor (VWF) and platelet glycoprotein Ib (GPIb) .
Ristocetin promotes VWF binding to GPIb, enabling platelet aggregation.
Abnormal results indicate:
Why Not the Others? A) Fibrinogen : Binds to GPIIb/IIIa (tested with ADP/agonists, not ristocetin).
B) Factor VIII : Carrier protein for VWF but not directly involved in ristocetin aggregation.
D) GPIIb/IIIa : Mediates fibrinogen binding (defective in Glanzmann thrombasthenia ), but ristocetin aggregation is normal in this disorder.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following tests is most likely to be abnormal in a patient regularly taking aspirin for arthritis?
Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) , reducing thromboxane A2 (TXA2) production and impairing platelet aggregation.
The PFA-100 (Platelet Function Analyzer) is highly sensitive to aspirin’s effects, showing:
Why Not the Others? A) Platelet count : Unaffected by aspirin (alters function, not number).
C) PT & D) aPTT : Measure plasma coagulation (unaffected by aspirin’s platelet-specific action) .
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ASCP Exam Questions
Biological assays for antithrombin measure its ability to inhibit which target?
Antithrombin (AT) is a natural anticoagulant that primarily inhibits serine protease clotting factors , including thrombin (IIa) and Factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa .
Heparin enhances this inhibition (choice D is partially correct, but heparin is a cofactor, not the target).
Biological assays measure AT’s ability to neutralize serine proteases (e.g., thrombin or Factor Xa) in a heparin-dependent or heparin-independent manner.
Why Not the Others? A) Factor VIII – Not directly inhibited by AT.
B) Protein C – An anticoagulant itself, not a target of AT.
D) Heparin – A cofactor that boosts AT activity but is not the enzyme being inhibited.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A patient on long-term antibiotics has low levels of factors II, VII, IX, and X, with normal factor V and VIII. What is the most likely cause?
Vitamin K deficiency leads to reduced synthesis of vitamin K-dependent factors (II, VII, IX, X) because vitamin K is required for their γ-carboxylation (critical for clotting function).
Antibiotics (especially broad-spectrum) can cause vitamin K deficiency by:
Normal Factor V and VIII (non-vitamin K-dependent) rules out liver disease (which would affect all factors).
Why Not the Others? A) Liver disease – Would also lower Factor V and VIII (synthesized in the liver).
B) Platelet dysfunction – Does not affect PT/aPTT or clotting factor levels.
D) Hemophilia A – Causes isolated Factor VIII deficiency (aPTT prolonged only).
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ASCP Exam Questions
A normal PT and prolonged aPTT that doesn’t correct with mixing suggests:
A prolonged aPTT with normal PT that does not correct with mixing (50:50 normal plasma) strongly suggests the presence of an inhibitor rather than a factor deficiency.
Lupus anticoagulant (C) is an acquired antiphospholipid antibody that interferes with phospholipid-dependent clotting tests (e.g., aPTT) but paradoxically causes thrombosis, not bleeding .
Why Not the Others? A) Heparin contamination : Also causes non-correcting aPTT , but typically prolongs thrombin time (TT) and is reversed by heparinase.
B) Factor deficiency : Would correct with mixing (e.g., Hemophilia A/B).
D) DIC : Usually prolongs both PT and aPTT with low platelets/fibrinogen, and mixing studies are not the primary diagnostic tool.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The fibrin degradation product (FDP) test detects:
The Fibrin Degradation Product (FDP) test detects fragments that result from the breakdown of fibrin during fibrinolysis . Specifically, it reflects the degradation of cross-linked fibrin , which is formed after fibrinogen is converted to fibrin and stabilized by Factor XIII .
Key Point: Option Breakdown: A) Platelet fragments → Not related to fibrinolysis; detected by other methods like flow cytometry
B) Cross-linked fibrin → Correct . FDPs are products of degraded cross-linked fibrin
C) Thrombin inhibitors → These are medications (e.g., dabigatran) or physiological inhibitors (e.g., antithrombin), not detected by FDP test
D) Uncross-linked fibrin monomers → FDP test focuses on breakdown products of cross-linked fibrin
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ASCP Exam Questions
Lupus anticoagulant typically causes:
Lupus anticoagulant (LA) is an antiphospholipid antibody that prolongs phospholipid-dependent clotting tests (e.g., aPTT) but paradoxically causes thrombosis, not bleeding .
It interferes with in vitro clotting assays by targeting phospholipids, but in vivo, it promotes a prothrombotic state (venous/arterial clots, recurrent miscarriages).
Why Not the Others? A) Bleeding : Rare unless combined with other defects (e.g., thrombocytopenia or hypoprothrombinemia syndrome).
B) Prolonged PT : LA primarily affects aPTT/dRVVT ; PT is less commonly prolonged.
D) Increased fibrinogen : Fibrinogen levels are unrelated to LA.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which is considered the gold standard for diagnosing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?
The serotonin release assay (SRA) is the gold standard for diagnosing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) because it directly measures pathogenic platelet-activating antibodies against PF4/heparin complexes .
It has high specificity (~95–100%) but is technically complex and limited to specialized labs .
Why Not the Others? A) PF4 ELISA : Detects anti-PF4/heparin antibodies but lacks specificity (many antibodies are non-pathogenic). Used as a first-line screening test due to high sensitivity (~99%) .
B) Ristocetin cofactor assay : Diagnoses von Willebrand disease (unrelated to HIT).
C) Reptilase time : Assesses fibrinogen conversion (prolonged in dysfibrinogenemia or thrombin inhibitors; irrelevant to HIT) .
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ASCP Exam Questions
The screening test most affected by factor VII deficiency is:
Factor VII is part of the extrinsic coagulation pathway , which is specifically evaluated by the PT test .
A deficiency in Factor VII will prolong the PT , while the aPTT, thrombin time, and platelet aggregation remain normal (since they do not depend on Factor VII).
Why Not the Others? A) aPTT : Measures the intrinsic pathway (unaffected by Factor VII deficiency).
C) Thrombin time : Assesses fibrinogen conversion (independent of Factor VII).
D) Platelet aggregation : Evaluates platelet function (no relation to Factor VII).
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ASCP Exam Questions
An increased D-dimer with thrombocytopenia suggests:
DIC is characterized by widespread thrombosis (consuming platelets and clotting factors) followed by fibrinolysis , leading to:
↑ D-dimer (from cross-linked fibrin breakdown).
↓ Platelets (thrombocytopenia due to consumption).
Prolonged PT/aPTT (factor depletion).
This combination is classic for DIC .
Why Not the Others? A) Hemophilia A : Causes prolonged aPTT but normal D-dimer/platelets .
B) Vitamin K deficiency : Prolongs PT (Factors II, VII, IX, X) but does not elevate D-dimer or cause thrombocytopenia.
D) Platelet function defect : Causes bleeding but normal D-dimer (no fibrinolysis).
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ASCP Exam Questions
What is the modern standard for treating hemophilia A or B?
Modern standard of care for hemophilia A (factor VIII deficiency) and hemophilia B (factor IX deficiency) involves factor replacement therapy using recombinant or plasma-derived factor concentrates .
Extended half-life (EHL) factor concentrates (e.g., rFVIII-Fc for hemophilia A, rFIX-Fc for hemophilia B) are preferred because they:
Reduce dosing frequency (longer duration of action).
Improve prophylaxis (preventing bleeds rather than treating them episodically).
Enhance quality of life (fewer infusions needed).
Why not the others? A) Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) – Outdated for hemophilia; does not provide sufficient factor concentration and carries infection/volume overload risks.
C) Desmopressin (DDAVP) – Only useful for mild hemophilia A (releases endogenous factor VIII), not for severe cases or hemophilia B.
D) Antifibrinolytics (e.g., tranexamic acid) – Adjuvant therapy (helps with mucosal bleeding) but not primary treatment for major bleeds.
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ASCP Exam Questions
In the Clauss method, which reagent is used to initiate clot formation?
The Clauss method is the gold standard for measuring functional fibrinogen levels .
Thrombin is added directly to diluted plasma, converting fibrinogen → fibrin to form a clot.
The clotting time is inversely proportional to fibrinogen concentration (shorter time = higher fibrinogen).
Why Not the Others? A) Tissue factor – Used in PT assays (extrinsic pathway).
B) Kaolin – Activates the intrinsic pathway (aPTT).
D) Calcium – Required for clotting but is not the primary reagent in the Clauss method.
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ASCP Exam Questions
What is the purpose of the mixing study in coagulation testing?
The primary purpose of a mixing study is to determine whether a prolonged clotting time (PT or aPTT) is caused by a coagulation factor deficiency or the presence of an inhibitor (e.g., lupus anticoagulant, heparin, or factor-specific antibodies).
Method : Patient plasma is mixed 1:1 with normal pooled plasma (NPP).
Why Not the Others? A) Measure fibrinolysis : Assessed by D-dimer or fibrin degradation products (FDPs) , not mixing studies.
C) Determine platelet count : Requires a CBC , not coagulation testing.
D) Detect von Willebrand disease : Diagnosed via VWF antigen and ristocetin cofactor activity , though severe VWD with low Factor VIII may prolong aPTT and correct with mixing
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ASCP Exam Questions
What is evaluated by the platelet function analyzer (PFA-100)?
The PFA-100 (Platelet Function Analyzer) evaluates primary hemostasis by measuring:
It is used to screen for von Willebrand disease (VWD) and platelet function disorders (e.g., aspirin effect, Bernard-Soulier syndrome).
Why Not the Others? A) Factor X activity → Measured by PT/aPTT or specific factor assays (not PFA-100).
C) aPTT → Assesses the intrinsic coagulation pathway (plasma-based, not platelet function).
D) D-dimer → Reflects fibrin degradation (e.g., DIC, VTE), not platelet activity.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A prolonged aPTT with a normal PT suggests a defect in:
aPTT (activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) evaluates the intrinsic and common pathways (Factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, and fibrinogen).
PT (Prothrombin Time) evaluates the extrinsic and common pathways (Factors VII, X, V, II, and fibrinogen).
If aPTT is prolonged but PT is normal , the defect is likely in the intrinsic pathway (not affecting the extrinsic pathway).
Factor VIII (B) is part of the intrinsic pathway → Its deficiency (e.g., Hemophilia A ) prolongs aPTT but leaves PT normal.
Factor VII (A) → Only affects PT (extrinsic pathway).
Factor X (C) & Factor V (D) → Affect both PT and aPTT (common pathway).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Thrombin time is prolonged in the presence of:
Thrombin time (TT) measures the time for fibrinogen → fibrin conversion after adding exogenous thrombin.
Heparin directly inhibits thrombin, prolonging TT (even at low doses).
Why Not the Others? A) Vitamin K : Affects Factors II, VII, IX, X (prolongs PT/aPTT , not TT).
B) Platelet clumping : Irrelevant to TT (a plasma-based test).
D) Factor VII deficiency : Prolongs PT , not TT (thrombin bypasses extrinsic/intrinsic pathways)
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which condition is associated with a higher risk of thrombosis due to lack of natural anticoagulants?
Protein C (along with protein S and antithrombin ) is a natural anticoagulant that regulates clotting by inactivating Factors Va and VIIIa .
Deficiency of protein C leads to uncontrolled thrombin generation , increasing the risk of venous thrombosis (e.g., DVT, PE).
It can be inherited (autosomal dominant) or acquired (e.g., warfarin-induced).
Why Not the Others? A) Fibrinogen deficiency → Causes bleeding , not thrombosis.
B) Platelet dysfunction → Leads to bleeding disorders (e.g., von Willebrand disease).
D) Factor VIII deficiency (Hemophilia A) → Causes bleeding , not clotting.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which test is best for monitoring low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)?
Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) primarily inhibits Factor Xa , and its anticoagulant effect is best measured by the anti-Xa assay , which quantifies anti-Factor Xa activity .
The test is calibrated for LMWH (typically targeting 0.5–1.0 IU/mL for prophylaxis, 1.0–2.0 IU/mL for treatment) .
Why Not the Others? A) PT & B) aPTT : Insensitive to LMWH (LMWH has minimal effect on these tests due to shorter chains and preferential anti-Xa activity) .
D) Bleeding time : Reflects platelet function; unaffected by LMWH .
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ASCP Exam Questions
A septic patient presents with elevated PT/aPTT, low fibrinogen, and increased D-dimer. What is the most likely diagnosis?
DIC is a consumptive coagulopathy triggered by sepsis, trauma, or malignancy, characterized by:
Prolonged PT/aPTT : Due to consumption of clotting factors.
Low fibrinogen : Consumed by widespread clot formation.
High D-dimer : Reflects fibrinolysis of microthrombi.
Thrombocytopenia (common but not listed in the question).
Sepsis is the most common cause of DIC, as endotoxins activate coagulation and suppress anticoagulant pathways.
Why Not the Others? A) DVT – Causes high D-dimer but normal PT/aPTT and fibrinogen (unless complicating DIC).
B) TTP – Features thrombocytopenia + schistocytes but normal PT/aPTT and fibrinogen .
D) APS (antiphospholipid syndrome) – Prolongs aPTT (lupus anticoagulant) but does not lower fibrinogen or cause high D-dimer unless thrombosis occurs.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A patient with prolonged bleeding time, normal platelet count, and defective aggregation with ristocetin likely has:
In von Willebrand disease (vWD) , there’s a deficiency or dysfunction of von Willebrand factor (vWF) , which is essential for:
As a result:
Bleeding time is prolonged due to impaired platelet adhesion.
Platelet count is normal (platelet number is unaffected).
Aggregation with ristocetin is defective , because ristocetin-induced aggregation depends on vWF binding to GPIb on platelets.
Option Breakdown: A) Glanzmann thrombasthenia → Defect in GPIIb/IIIa (affects aggregation with ADP, collagen, etc.) → Normal ristocetin-induced aggregation
B) von Willebrand disease → Correct . Defective ristocetin-induced aggregation , normal platelet count, prolonged bleeding time
C) Bernard-Soulier syndrome → Defect in GPIb → defective ristocetin aggregation → BUT also has low platelet count and giant platelets
D) Storage pool disease → Defect in platelet granules; abnormal response to multiple agonists (e.g., ADP) → Ristocetin response usually normal
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ASCP Exam Questions
The best screening test for von Willebrand disease is:
Ristocetin cofactor activity (VWF:RCo) is the gold standard screening test for von Willebrand disease (VWD) because it directly measures the functional ability of von Willebrand factor (VWF) to bind platelets—a key defect in VWD.
While aPTT (A) and PT (B) are often normal in mild VWD, and bleeding time (C) is unreliable and rarely used, VWF:RCo detects both quantitative and qualitative VWF defects .
Why Not the Others? aPTT (A) : Prolonged only if Factor VIII is low (seen in severe VWD or type 2N) but often normal in mild VWD .
PT (B) : Measures extrinsic pathway factors; unaffected in VWD.
Bleeding time (C) : Insensitive (normal in 50% of type 1 VWD) and poorly reproducible; no longer recommended
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ASCP Exam Questions
In platelet aggregation studies, a lack of response to ristocetin indicates:
Ristocetin induces platelet aggregation by promoting binding of von Willebrand factor (VWF) to platelet GP1b receptors .
Bernard-Soulier syndrome (C) is caused by a GP1b/IX/V receptor deficiency , leading to absent ristocetin-induced aggregation .
Why Not the Others? A) Glanzmann thrombasthenia : Shows normal ristocetin response but absent aggregation to ADP/collagen (due to GPIIb/IIIa defect).
B) von Willebrand disease (VWD) : May show reduced ristocetin aggregation (due to low VWF), but not a complete lack unless severe.
D) Storage pool disease : Normal ristocetin response; defective ADP/epinephrine aggregation (due to granule deficiencies).
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ASCP Exam Questions
What is measured by a D-dimer test?
D-dimer is a specific breakdown product of cross-linked fibrin (not fibrinogen), released when plasmin cleaves fibrin clots.
It indicates fibrinolysis and is elevated in conditions like DIC, VTE, or thrombolytic therapy .
Why Not the Others? A) Fibrin monomers : Measured by soluble fibrin assays (not D-dimer).
B) FDPs from fibrinogen : Detected by FDP assays (less specific; include fragments from fibrinogen and non-cross-linked fibrin).
D) Plasmin activity : Assessed by plasmin-antiplasmin (PAP) complexes or global fibrinolysis assays .
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following is the fastest way to reverse warfarin-induced bleeding?
FFP is the fastest way to reverse warfarin-induced bleeding because it contains all vitamin K-dependent factors (II, VII, IX, X) and provides immediate hemostasis (within minutes).
Used for life-threatening bleeding (e.g., intracranial hemorrhage).
Limitation : Volume overload risk (requires large doses).
Why Not the Others? A) Vitamin K injection – Takes 6–24 hours to synthesize new clotting factors (essential for sustained reversal but not acute bleeding).
B) Protamine sulfate – Reverses heparin , not warfarin.
D) Desmopressin (DDAVP) – Improves platelet function in uremia/vWD but does not replace clotting factors .
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ASCP Exam Questions
What is typically prolonged in patients with liver disease?
Liver disease impairs synthesis of most clotting factors (except Factor VIII), leading to:
Prolonged PT : Due to early deficiency of Factor VII (short half-life).
Prolonged aPTT : As other factors (II, V, IX, X, fibrinogen) decline .
Fibrinogen may also be low in advanced disease, exacerbating clotting times .
Why Not the Others? A) aPTT only : Seen in intrinsic pathway defects (e.g., hemophilia), not liver disease.
B) PT only : Occurs in early vitamin K deficiency or mild liver dysfunction , but aPTT prolongs as disease progresses.
D) Bleeding time : May prolong due to thrombocytopenia or dysfunctional platelets in liver disease, but it’s not a primary lab marker .
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ASCP Exam Questions
What distinguishes acquired hemophilia A from congenital hemophilia A?
Acquired hemophilia A is caused by autoantibodies (inhibitors) against Factor VIII , typically in adults with no prior bleeding history .
Elderly patients or those with autoimmune conditions (e.g., lupus, malignancy) are at highest risk.
Presents with sudden bleeding (e.g., bruising, mucosal hemorrhage).
Congenital hemophilia A is an X-linked genetic disorder (FVIII deficiency) diagnosed in childhood with lifelong bleeding.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A patient with prolonged PT and aPTT that corrects with mixing likely has deficiency of which factor?
Prolonged PT and aPTT that corrects with mixing indicates a deficiency in the common pathway (Factors II, V, X, or fibrinogen).
Among the options:
Factor X deficiency fits best, as it is required for both PT (extrinsic) and aPTT (intrinsic) pathways.
Factor V (A) is also possible, but less commonly tested in this context.
Correction with mixing rules out inhibitors (e.g., lupus anticoagulant, specific factor antibodies).
Why Not the Others? A) Factor V – Also common pathway, but Factor X is more likely to be tested as the primary answer.
C) Factor VIII – Affects aPTT only (intrinsic pathway).
D) Factor XII – Prolongs aPTT only (no bleeding risk).
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ASCP Exam Questions
The lupus anticoagulant interferes with:
Lupus anticoagulant (LA) is an antiphospholipid antibody that primarily prolongs the aPTT by interfering with phospholipid-dependent clotting reactions in the intrinsic pathway.
It may also affect other phospholipid-dependent tests like dRVVT (dilute Russell viper venom time) , but PT and TT are typically unaffected unless the reagent is highly phospholipid-dependent.
Why Not the Others? A) PT : Usually normal in LA (unless the PT reagent contains phospholipids sensitive to LA).
B) TT (Thrombin Time) : Measures fibrinogen conversion; unaffected by LA.
D) Bleeding Time : Reflects platelet function; LA causes thrombosis , not bleeding.
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ASCP Exam Questions
An isolated prolonged thrombin time suggests:
The thrombin time (TT) measures the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin after adding exogenous thrombin.
An isolated prolonged TT (with normal PT/aPTT) most commonly indicates heparin contamination , as heparin directly inhibits thrombin .
Why Not the Others? A) Factor VIII deficiency : Prolongs aPTT only (TT normal).
C) Factor VII deficiency : Prolongs PT only (TT normal).
D) Lupus anticoagulant : Prolongs aPTT/dRVVT (TT normal unless phospholipid-dependent reagent used) .
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ASCP Exam Questions
What reagent is essential in the PT test?
The PT (Prothrombin Time) test requires thromboplastin (tissue factor) to activate the extrinsic pathway and calcium ions to allow coagulation to proceed.
Other options:
A) Platelet factor 3 → Used in platelet function tests, not PT.
C) Kaolin → Used in aPTT (activates the intrinsic pathway).
D) Thrombin → Used in the thrombin time (TT) test.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is based on which test?
The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is a standardized calculation derived from the PT (Prothrombin Time) to monitor warfarin therapy .
It corrects for variations in thromboplastin reagents across labs using the formula:
INR = (Patient PT / Mean Normal PT)^ISI
where ISI (International Sensitivity Index) is specific to the thromboplastin used.
Why Not the Others? A) aPTT : Used for heparin monitoring (reported in seconds, not INR).
C) Bleeding time : Measures platelet function (no INR correlation).
D) Fibrinogen assay : Quantifies fibrinogen levels (unrelated to INR).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which test is prolonged in aspirin therapy?
Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX-1) , reducing thromboxane A2 production and impairing platelet aggregation.
This prolongs bleeding time (template method), as platelets cannot form effective plugs at injury sites.
Why Not the Others? A) PT (Prothrombin Time) : Measures extrinsic coagulation pathway; unaffected by aspirin (no impact on clotting factors).
B) Platelet count : Aspirin affects function , not number (count remains normal).
D) D-dimer : Reflects fibrin degradation (e.g., DIC, VTE); not altered by aspirin .
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ASCP Exam Questions
A person with prolonged aPTT and no clinical bleeding is likely deficient in which factor?
Short Explanation: Factor XII (Hageman factor) deficiency causes a prolonged aPTT but no bleeding tendency because it is involved in the contact activation pathway (in vitro clotting) but not in vivo hemostasis.
Deficiencies in Factor VIII, IX, or XI (choices A, B, D) typically cause bleeding (hemophilia A/B or hemophilia C).
Why Not the Others? A) Factor VIII (Hemophilia A) → Bleeding.
B) Factor XI (Hemophilia C) → Mild bleeding (common in trauma/surgery).
D) Factor IX (Hemophilia B) → Bleeding.
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ASCP Exam Questions
In Glanzmann thrombasthenia, what would a light transmission aggregation curve demonstrate?
Glanzmann thrombasthenia is caused by a deficiency or dysfunction of platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa (GPIIb/IIIa) , the receptor required for fibrinogen binding and platelet aggregation.
Light transmission aggregometry (LTA) would show:
Minimal/no aggregation with ADP, collagen, and epinephrine (these agonists require fibrinogen-GPIIb/IIIa bridging).
Normal aggregation with ristocetin (depends on GPIb, which is intact) .
Why Not the Others? A) Reduced response to ristocetin : Seen in Bernard-Soulier syndrome (GPIb defect) or von Willebrand disease (VWF dysfunction).
B) Normal aggregation to all agonists : Rules out Glanzmann (would indicate a mild platelet disorder or normal function).
C) Increased response to ristocetin : Suggests platelet-type VWD (hyperactive GPIb) .
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ASCP Exam Questions
Platelet adhesion is defective in:
Bernard-Soulier syndrome is caused by a deficiency of platelet glycoprotein Ib (GPIb) , the receptor for von Willebrand factor (VWF).
This defect impairs platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium (via VWF), leading to bleeding despite normal platelet counts.
Why Not the Others? A) Glanzmann thrombasthenia : Defective platelet aggregation (GPIIb/IIIa deficiency), but adhesion is intact.
C) Storage pool disease : Impaired granule secretion (e.g., ADP deficiency), but adhesion is normal.
D) Factor IX deficiency : A coagulation disorder (Hemophilia B); no platelet dysfunction .
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ASCP Exam Questions
PT and aPTT are both prolonged in:
Liver disease causes prolonged PT and aPTT due to impaired synthesis of multiple clotting factors (II, V, VII, IX, X, fibrinogen) .
Factor VII (short half-life) affects PT first, while intrinsic/common pathway factors (IX, X, II) prolong aPTT .
Fibrinogen deficiency further disrupts clot formation .
Why Not the Others? A) Hemophilia A (Factor VIII deficiency) : Prolongs aPTT only (PT normal) .
B) von Willebrand disease : Typically normal PT/aPTT unless severe (Type 3 with low Factor VIII) .
D) Glanzmann thrombasthenia : A platelet disorder ; PT/aPTT are normal .
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which condition is associated with purpura fulminans in neonates?
Purpura fulminans in neonates is a life-threatening condition characterized by widespread microvascular thrombosis and hemorrhagic skin necrosis .
Homozygous or compound heterozygous Protein C deficiency is the classic cause , as Protein C is critical for regulating thrombin generation via inactivation of Factors Va and VIIIa.
Why Not the Others? A) Protein S deficiency – Can cause neonatal thrombosis but is less likely to trigger purpura fulminans .
B) Antithrombin deficiency – Rare in neonates; typically presents later in life with VTE.
D) Platelet transfusion reactions – Cause thrombocytopenia or allergic reactions , not purpura fulminans.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A prolonged PT with a normal aPTT, corrected by mixing, is most consistent with deficiency of:
Prolonged PT with normal aPTT localizes the deficiency to the extrinsic pathway , specifically Factor VII (the only factor unique to the PT assay).
Correction with mixing confirms a factor deficiency (not an inhibitor).
Factor VII deficiency is the most common inherited cause of this pattern, though acquired deficiencies (e.g., early warfarin effect, liver disease) are more frequent clinically.
Why Not the Others? A) Factor V – Prolongs both PT and aPTT (common pathway).
C) Factor IX – Prolongs aPTT only (intrinsic pathway).
D) Factor X – Prolongs both PT and aPTT (common pathway).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Rare congenital bleeding disorders are most commonly seen in which context?
Rare congenital bleeding disorders (e.g., Factor I, II, V, VII, X, XI, or XIII deficiencies) are typically autosomal recessive , meaning they require mutations in both alleles to manifest clinically.
Why Not the Others? A) Autosomal dominant – Rare in bleeding disorders (except Type 2 VWD ).
C) Male-only pedigrees – Seen in X-linked disorders (e.g., hemophilia A/B), but most rare deficiencies are autosomal.
D) Vitamin K deficiency – Causes acquired (not congenital) factor deficiencies.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which factor is vitamin K dependent?
Vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors include:
These factors require vitamin K for γ-carboxylation , which enables calcium binding and membrane attachment during clot formation.
Why Not the Others? A) Factor V : Independent of vitamin K.
B) Factor VIII : Also vitamin K-independent (deficiency causes Hemophilia A).
D) Factor I (Fibrinogen) : Not vitamin K-dependent.
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ASCP Exam Questions
During pregnancy, which coagulation factor typically increases alongside fibrinogen?
Pregnancy induces a hypercoagulable state , with significant increases in:
Fibrinogen (up to 2–3x normal by the third trimester).
Factor VIII (levels rise similarly, often exceeding 200%).
These changes prepare for hemostasis during delivery but also increase thrombotic risk (e.g., DVT, PE).
Why Not the Others? A) Factor VII – Also increases but is extrinsic pathway-specific (less relevant to fibrinogen’s role).
B) Factor XI – Typically unchanged or slightly decreased .
D) Factor XIII – Declines modestly (though critical for fibrin crosslinking).
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ASCP Exam Questions
A factor XI assay shows the following results:
> 1:10 dilution = 23%
> 1:20 dilution = 42%
> 1:40 dilution = 80%
What do these findings suggest?
The rising Factor XI activity with dilution (23% → 42% → 80%) is classic for a weak inhibitor (e.g., anti-FXI antibody).
Inhibitors interfere disproportionately in undiluted samples , causing falsely low results.
Dilution reduces inhibitor concentration, revealing true factor activity (~80% here).
Bethesda assay can quantify the inhibitor titer.
Why Not the Others? A) Factor XI deficiency – Would show consistent low activity across dilutions.
B) Poor specimen quality – Causes uniformly low/unreproducible results.
D) Normal result – Incorrect; undiluted activity should match diluted (~80%).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which factor remains stable in stored plasma?
Factor II (Prothrombin) is stable in stored plasma (refrigerated or frozen) for days to weeks , unlike labile factors like V and VIII, which degrade rapidly .
This stability is why prothrombin time (PT) can still be measured in older plasma samples, though Factor VII (also vitamin K-dependent) has a shorter half-life .
Why Not the Others? A) Factor V : Highly labile —loses activity within 24–48 hours in stored plasma .
B) Factor VIII : Also unstable ; requires fresh frozen plasma (FFP) or cryoprecipitate for replacement .
D) Factor VII : Degrades faster than Factor II due to its shorter half-life (~6 hours)
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ASCP Exam Questions
The role of calcium in coagulation testing is to:
Calcium (Ca²⁺) is added to coagulation tests (e.g., PT, aPTT) to reverse citrate anticoagulation (citrate chelates calcium in collected blood).
It enables clotting by restoring calcium-dependent steps in the coagulation cascade (e.g., prothrombinase complex, fibrin cross-linking) .
Why Not the Others? A) Initiate fibrinolysis : Calcium has no role in fibrinolysis (plasmin breaks down clots).
B) Prevent clotting : Calcium promotes clotting ; anticoagulants like citrate/EDTA prevent clotting by chelating calcium .
C) Reverse anticoagulant : Partially true, but the primary role is recalcification to restore clotting function in vitro.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which condition may result in prolonged PT and aPTT?
Liver disease (e.g., cirrhosis, hepatitis) can cause prolonged PT and aPTT because the liver synthesizes most clotting factors (except Factor VIII). Impaired liver function leads to decreased production of vitamin K-dependent factors (II, VII, IX, X) and fibrinogen , affecting both extrinsic (PT) and intrinsic/common (aPTT) pathways.
Why Not the Others? A) Hemophilia A (Factor VIII deficiency): Prolongs aPTT only (intrinsic pathway defect).
B) von Willebrand disease : Typically causes normal PT/aPTT unless severe (Type 3 VWD with very low Factor VIII) .
D) Glanzmann thrombasthenia : A platelet disorder (GPIIb/IIIa defect); PT/aPTT remain normal
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ASCP Exam Questions
How can hemophilia B be differentiated from hemophilia A?
Hemophilia A is caused by Factor VIII deficiency , while Hemophilia B (Christmas disease) is caused by Factor IX deficiency .
Key diagnostic difference :
Hemophilia A : Low Factor VIII, normal Factor IX.
Hemophilia B : Low Factor IX, normal Factor VIII.
Both conditions:
Prolong aPTT (intrinsic pathway defect).
Have normal PT (extrinsic pathway unaffected).
Cause clinically similar bleeding (joints, muscles, post-traumatic).
Why Not the Others? B) Both have low FVIII – Incorrect; only Hemophilia A does.
C) Both show prolonged PT – False; PT is normal in both.
D) Low ristocetin cofactor – Seen in von Willebrand disease , not hemophilia.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following does not affect closure time in the PFA-100 assay?
The PFA-100 measures platelet function under flow conditions, and its closure time is influenced by:
Platelet function (e.g., aspirin prolongs closure time via COX-1 inhibition).
Platelet count (thrombocytopenia prolongs closure time due to fewer platelets).
Hematocrit (anemia prolongs closure time by reducing rheological platelet margination).
Leukopenia (D) (low white blood cell count) does not affect closure time, as WBCs are not involved in platelet plug formation .
Why Not the Others? A) Aspirin : Prolongs collagen/epinephrine closure time (blocks thromboxane A2 production).
B) Thrombocytopenia : Delays closure time (fewer platelets available for adhesion/aggregation).
C) Anemia : Increases closure time due to reduced shear stress (hematocrit <30% impairs platelet margination) .
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ASCP Exam Questions
A multiple myeloma patient shows prolonged aPTT and thrombin time, both uncorrected by mixing, but normal fibrinogen and reptilase time. This may be due to:
Heparin-like anticoagulants (e.g., circulating heparan sulfate in myeloma) prolong both aPTT and thrombin time (TT) by enhancing antithrombin-mediated inhibition of thrombin and Factor Xa.
Key findings in this case :
No correction with mixing (rules out factor deficiency).
Normal fibrinogen and reptilase time (rules out hypofibrinogenemia/dysfibrinogenemia).
Normal platelets (rules out platelet-related artifact).
This pattern mimics heparin contamination , but the anticoagulant is endogenous (associated with myeloma, liver disease, or autoimmune disorders).
Why Not the Others? A) Vitamin K deficiency – Prolongs PT (not isolated aPTT/TT).
C) Factor XII deficiency – Prolongs aPTT but corrects with mixing and does not affect TT.
D) Low platelets – Causes bleeding but does not prolong aPTT/TT.
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ASCP Exam Questions
What test best assesses the effectiveness of warfarin therapy?
Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent factors (II, VII, IX, X) , with Factor VII (short half-life) affecting the PT first .
The INR standardizes PT results across labs, adjusting for variations in thromboplastin reagents using:
INR = (Patient PT / Mean Normal PT)^ISI
(ISI = International Sensitivity Index) .
Why Not the Others? A) aPTT : Prolonged only with significant Factor IX reduction (delayed effect of warfarin); not used for monitoring.
C) Thrombin time : Measures fibrinogen conversion; unaffected by warfarin .
D) Platelet aggregation : Evaluates platelet function; irrelevant to warfarin’s mechanism .
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which coagulation test is most affected by factor VII?
Factor VII is part of the extrinsic coagulation pathway , which is specifically measured by the PT test .
A deficiency or dysfunction of Factor VII prolongs PT while aPTT, thrombin time, and clot solubility remain normal .
Why Not the Others? A) aPTT : Evaluates the intrinsic pathway (Factors VIII, IX, XI, XII); unaffected by Factor VII deficiency .
C) Thrombin time : Measures fibrinogen conversion; independent of Factor VII .
D) Clot solubility : Assesses Factor XIII activity (fibrin cross-linking); unrelated to Factor VII .
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which lab finding is consistent with Type I antithrombin deficiency?
Type I antithrombin (AT) deficiency is a quantitative deficiency, meaning there’s less antithrombin protein produced. This leads to:
Low antigen (↓ amount of AT protein in the blood)
Low activity (↓ function because there’s less protein to work)
Contrast with Type II AT deficiency:
Type II is a qualitative defect — the amount of antithrombin is normal (normal antigen), but its function is impaired (low activity).
Option Description Type
A) Normal antigen, low activity Type II (qualitative defect)
B) Low antigen, low activity Type I (quantitative defect)
C) Low antigen, normal activity Not typical of AT deficiency
D) Normal antigen, normal activity Normal result
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which factor is exclusive to the extrinsic pathway?
The extrinsic pathway is initiated by tissue factor (Factor III) and involves Factor VII as its only unique factor .
All other factors (IX, VIII, X, V, II, fibrinogen) are shared with the intrinsic or common pathway .
Breakdown of options: A) Factor IX → Part of the intrinsic pathway (Hemophilia B).
B) Factor VIII → Part of the intrinsic pathway (Hemophilia A).
D) Factor X → Part of the common pathway (shared by both extrinsic and intrinsic).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Factor VIII levels are increased in:
Factor VIII is an acute-phase reactant , meaning its levels increase during inflammatory states (e.g., infection, surgery, trauma). This occurs because inflammation triggers cytokine release (e.g., IL-6), which stimulates Factor VIII production .
Why Not the Others? A) von Willebrand disease (VWD) :
B) DIC : Factor VIII is consumed (levels decrease along with other clotting factors) .
D) Hemophilia A : Congenital deficiency of Factor VIII (levels are persistently low) .
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ASCP Exam Questions
A shortened aPTT may be seen in:
A shortened aPTT (activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) can occur during an acute phase reaction due to elevated levels of Factor VIII (an acute-phase reactant), which accelerates clotting in the intrinsic pathway.
This is seen in conditions like inflammation, infection, or pregnancy .
Why Not the Others? A) Factor deficiency : Prolongs aPTT (e.g., Hemophilia A/B).
B) Anticoagulant therapy (e.g., heparin): Prolongs aPTT.
D) Platelet disorders : Do not affect aPTT (platelet function is tested separately).
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ASCP Exam Questions
A thrombophilia panel (protein C, protein S, antithrombin, lupus anticoagulant) is negative. What test should be ordered next?
Factor V Leiden (FVL) is the most common inherited thrombophilia (5% of Caucasians) and a leading cause of activated protein C resistance (APCR) .
It is not detected by standard thrombophilia panels (which focus on protein C/S, antithrombin, and lupus anticoagulant).
Testing is critical after negative initial workup because:
Why Not the Others? A) MTHFR mutation – Causes hyperhomocysteinemia , but its link to thrombosis is weak (not a first-line test).
B) PAI-1 genotype – Associated with impaired fibrinolysis , but evidence for thrombotic risk is inconsistent.
D) Factor XIII assay – Diagnoses bleeding disorders (not thrombosis).
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ASCP
American Society for Clinical Pathology (USA)
AMT
American Medical Technologists (USA)
AIMS
Australian Institute of Medical and Clinical Scientists
CSMLS
Canadian Society for Medical Laboratory Science
IBMS
Institute of Biomedical Science (UK)
HAAD
Health Authority - Abu Dhabi
MOH
Ministry of Health (UAE)
DHA
Dubai Health Authority
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