5000 Plus MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists are designed to test the knowledge and proficiency of laboratory professionals who work in the field of clinical laboratory science. These questions cover a wide range of topics related to laboratory science, including anatomy, physiology, microbiology, chemistry, and hematology.

2601 to 2650 MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologist Exam Preparation
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Questions 2601 to 2650
- a) Bunya virus
- b) Reo virus
- c) Calci virus
- d) Rhabdo virus
- a) HBCAg
- b) HBeAg
- c) Anti-HBC
- d) Anti-HBS
- a) HBs Ag
- b) IgM anti – HBc
- c) Anti HBs
- d) None of the above
- a) Give immunoglobulins for passive immunity
- b) Give ARV
- c) Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
- d) Immediately wash wound with soap and water
- a) Measles virus
- b) Herpes Virus
- c) Papavo virus
- d) Adeno virus
- a) Immunodeficiency virus
- b) Influenza
- c) Polio virus
- d) Hepatitis virus
- a) Type 6,12,18
- b) 16,18,31
- c) 6,8,11
- d) 3,10,19
- a) Interferon production
- b) Toxin production
- c) Lymphocytes production
- d) Neutrophils production
- a) RNA → DNA → RNA
- b) RNA → DNA
- c) DNA → RNA
- d) DNA → RNA → DNA
- a) Human Herpes Virus 3
- b) Human Herpes Virus 1
- c) Human Herpes Virus 8
- d) Human Herpes Virus 4
- a) 2 weeks
- b) 4 weeks
- c) 9 weeks
- d) 12 weeks
- a) ELISA
- b) Western blot
- c) P24 antigen
- d) Lymph node biopsy
- a) Resistance to hepatitis B
- b) Acute infection
- c) Good prognosis
- d) Hepatocellular carcinoma
- a) Simple carriers
- b) Late convalescence
- c) High infectivity
- d) Carrier status
- a) HBV
- b) HCV
- c) HDV
- d) HEV
- a) Measles
- b) Mumps
- c) Rubella
- d) Hepatitis B
- a) Flavi virus
- b) Togaviridae
- c) Reoviridae
- d) Rhabdoviridae
- a) It can be detected during the window period
- b) Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it
- c) Virus load parallel P24 titre
- d) It remains during asymptomatic phase
- a) Herpes Simplex
- b) Mumps
- c) Rubella
- d) Papilloma
- a) Chicken pox
- b) Rabies
- c) Small pox
- d) Measles
- a) Ribonuclease
- b) Reverse transcriptase
- c) DNA polymerase
- d) Restriction endonuclease
- a) Virus
- b) Bacteria
- c) Parasite
- d) Bacteria superadded on virus
- a) Protein synthesis
- b) DNA/RNA replication
- c) When virus enters the cell
- d) Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
- a) Mycobacteria
- b) Spore
- c) Prions
- d) Coccidia
- a) Verruca vulgaris
- b) Focal epithelial hyperplasia
- c) Condyloma acuminatum
- d) Keratoacanthoma
- a) Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121°C
- b) Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
- c) Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
- d) Contains DNA/ RNA
- a) Hepatitis B virus
- b) Hepatitis C virus
- c) Hepatitis E virus
- d) Hepatitis A virus
- a) Sialoperoxidase
- b) Secretory IgA
- c) Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
- d) Histidine rich proteins
- a) Inactive carrier
- b) Healthy carrier
- c) Convalescent carrier
- d) Paradoxical carrier
- a) Saubourd’s agar
- b) Rogosa medium
- c) Nonembryonated egg
- d) Embryonated egg
- a) Above 600
- b) Between 1000-2000
- c) Below 200
- d) Above 2000
- a) Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and feces
- b) Kyasanur Forest Disease is caused by bite of wild animal
- c) Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
- d) None of the above
- a) Rubella
- b) Rubeola
- c) Herpes simplex
- d) Herpetic gingivostomatitis
- a) IgM antibodies in serum
- b) Isolation from stool
- c) Culture from blood
- d) Isolation from bile
- a) Cowpox
- b) Molluscum contagiosum
- c) Small pox
- d) Chicken pox
- a) Surface antigen
- b) Surface antibody
- c) Core antigen
- d) Core antibody
- a) Less sensitive, less specific
- b) More sensitive, more specific
- c) Less sensitive, more specific
- d) More sensitive, less specific
- a) Adeno
- b) Hepatitis
- c) EB virus
- d) Parvo virus
- a) CD8 T-cells
- b) CD4 T-cells
- c) B-cells
- d) NK-cells
- a) HBc Ag
- b) HBs Ag
- c) Hbe Ag
- d) HBx Ag
- a) Hepatitis A
- b) Hepatitis B
- c) CMV
- d) EBV
- a) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
- b) Burkitt’s lymphoma
- c) Hepatoma
- d) Infectious mononucleosis
- a) Carcinoma
- b) Kaposi’s sarcoma
- c) Melanoma
- d) Ewing’s sarcoma
- a) Helper T lymphocytes
- b) Natural killer cells
- c) Plasma cells
- d) Macrophages
- a) Picorna viruses
- b) Herpes viruses
- c) Hepadna viruses
- d) Flavi viruses
- a) Tissue culture
- b) Embryonated eggs
- c) Animals
- d) Chemically defined media
- a) ELISA is – ve
- b) Western Blot is – ve
- c) Both are – ve
- d) PCR is – ve
- a) Identification of viral disease
- b) To separate specific clone of virus
- c) To maintain certain viral culture
- d) To prepare vaccines
- a) Anopheles
- b) Aedes
- c) Culex
- d) Mansoni
- a) Capsomere
- b) Capsid
- c) Nucleocapsid
- d) Envelope
Answer Key Summary
The questions are typically designed to assess the technical skills and knowledge required for the laboratory profession, including the ability to analyze laboratory test results, perform laboratory procedures, and maintain laboratory equipment.
To prepare for these MCQs, candidates should have a thorough understanding of the key concepts and principles of laboratory science. They should also be familiar with common laboratory equipment and procedures, as well as laboratory safety protocols.
Candidates may also benefit from studying specific laboratory science textbooks or taking online courses that cover the material tested in the MCQs. Additionally, practicing sample MCQs and reviewing the answers can help candidates identify areas where they may need to improve their knowledge or skills.
Overall, the MCQs for lab technologists are designed to be challenging and comprehensive, requiring candidates to demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the field of laboratory science.






