5000 Plus MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists are designed to test the knowledge and proficiency of laboratory professionals who work in the field of clinical laboratory science. These questions cover a wide range of topics related to laboratory science, including anatomy, physiology, microbiology, chemistry, and hematology.
2651 to 2700 MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologist Exam Preparation
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Questions 2651 to 2700
- All are oncogenic except_______?
- EB virus
- Papilloma virus
- Herpes simplex virus ✔
- Varicella zoster virus
- True about HIV are all except____?
- DNA virus ✔
- Attacks CD4 cells
- Macrophages are the reservoir
- Decrease CD4 count in late stages
- EBV causes all except_________?
- Carcinoma of nasopharynx
- Papilloma ✔
- Infectious mononucleosis
- Burkitt’s lymphoma
- Australian antigen is________?
- HB Ag
- HBs AG 11
- HBV
- None of the above
- Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?
- Virus isolation
- Western blot followed by ELISA
- LISA followed by western blot technique ✔
- Polymers chain reaction
- Enterically transmitted NANB hepatitis B______?
- Hepatitis C
- Hepatitis D
- epatitis E ✔
- Hepatitis F
- True about immune response of hepatitis B is_______?
- Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection ✔
- Antibody to HBC is not protective
- Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
- CMI disappears soon after recover
- The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell – culture is______?
- Cytopathic changes in culture cells ✔
- Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
- Haemagglutination test
- Haemagglutination inhibition test
- The Dane particle is the_______?
- HBV ✔
- IgG anti HAV
- Delta Virus
- HBC Ag
- Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except_______?
- Failure to thrive
- Have infections
- 50% chances to have AIDS ✔
- All are true
- The time gap between appearance of Koplik’s spot and cutaneous rash in measles is_______?
- 24 Hrs
- 3-4 days ✔
- 2 weeks
- 10 days
- Rabies virus______?
- Cytotropic
- Dermatotropic
- Chromophilic
- Neurotropic ✔
- Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_____?
- Presence of either DNA or RNA
- Simple structure
- Complex multiplication
- All of the above ✔
- The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route_______?
- Hepatitis B virus
- Hepatitis C virus
- Hepatitis D virus
- Hepatitis E virus ✔
- Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a______?
- ELISA
- Immunodot
- IPA
- Western Blot ✔
- Bacteriophage was discovered by______?
- Robert koch
- Twort and d’herelle ✔
- Menkin
- Metchinkoff
- Australia antigen is associated with_______?
- Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis ✔
- AIDS
- Chronic leukemia
- Basal cell carcinoma
- Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_______?
- in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks ✔
- only after one year
- no antibodies are present in primary HSV
- antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
- Half-life of free HIV in plasma is_____?
- 24 hours
- 6 hours ✔
- 12 hours
- 3 months
- The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is______?
- Chocolate agar
- Robertoson’s cooked-meat broth
- Chorio allantoic membrane ✔
- Sabourad’s agar
- All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except_______?
- HIV
- Hepatitis C
- Hepatitis B
- Hepatitis E ✔
- HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except_______?
- Saliva ✔
- Needle prick injury
- Blood transmission
- Sexual intercourse
- The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is __?
- exotoxin production
- lecithinase production
- hypersensitivity ✔
- Coagulase production
- Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is __?
- Penicillium
- Aspergillus ✔
- Mucor
- Rhizopus
- The culture media for fungus is_______?
- Tellurite medium
- NNN medium
- Chocolate agar medium
- Sabourauds medium ✔
- The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is_______?
- Brain – heart infusion
- Sabouraud’s
- Sabouraud’s plus antibiotics ✔
- Any medium incubated at 35-37°C
- Dematophytes are fungi infecting______?
- Subcutaneous tissue
- Systemic organs
- Nails, hair and skin ✔
- Superficial skin and deep tissue
- Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______?
- Giardia lambia
- Ascaris lumbriocoides
- Strongyloides ✔
- Entamoeba
- Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is_______?
- Indirect hemagglutination
- ELISA ✔
- Counter immune electroporesis
- Microscopy
- Black water fever is caused by_____?
- Plasmodium vivax
- Plasmodium falciparum ✔
- Leishmania donovani
- Microfilaria
- Causative organism of Kalahazar is_____?
- Plasmodium ovaie
- Leishman donovani ✔
- Entamoeba histolytica
- Toxoplasma
- All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_______?
- coli
- nana
- gingivalis ✔
- histolytica
- All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except______?
- Cysts are 8 nucleated ✔
- Cysts are 4 nucleated
- Trophozoites colonise in the colon
- The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides
- All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_______?
- Glycogen mass
- Chromatid bars
- Eccentric nucleus
- Refractile nucleus ✔
- Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______?
- Dot
- Comma
- Banana
- Sickle ✔
- True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by______?
- cats ✔
- Dogs
- Rats
- Cow
- Which worm is longest_____?
- T. Solium
- T. Saginata ✔
- Hook worm
- A. Lumbricoides
- Thread worm is_____?
- Enterobius ✔
- Ancylostoma
- Ascaris
- Necator
- Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to_____?
- Hook worm ✔
- Thread worm
- Ascaris
- Guinea worm
- Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in_____?
- Ascariasis ✔
- Tapeworm
- Hood worm
- Ascariasis and tapeworm
- Culture media of candida is_______?
- Methylene blue dextrose agar
- Saboraud’s medium ✔
- Pingolevin
- All of the above
- The following is not true of Candida albicans_____?
- Yeast like fungus
- Forms Chlamydospores
- Blastomeres seen in isolates ✔
- Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them
- Opportunistic infection is caused by_______?
- Penicillium
- Mucor
- Aspergillus
- All of the above ✔
- The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_______?
- Kerison ✔
- Alopecia areata
- Pilomatrixoma
- Tenia incognito
- Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by _?
- Candida albicans ✔
- Mucor
- Cryptococcus
- Aspergillus
- Candidal hyphae can be stained using______?
- Van Gieson’s stain
- Periodic acid schiff stain ✔
- Masson Trichrome stain
- Toluidine blue stain
- Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________?
- Noncapsulated fungus infecting man ✔
- Causes meningitis
- Melanin production related to virulence
- Basidiomycetes yeast
- Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is______?
- 2:1 ✔
- 1:2
- 3:1
- 1:3
- Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve______?
- Caecum and large intestine ✔
- Duodenum
- Stomach
- Jejunum and Ileum
- Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection______?
- Giardia lambella
- Isopora belli
- Balantidium coli
- Taenia solium ✔
The questions are typically designed to assess the technical skills and knowledge required for the laboratory profession, including the ability to analyze laboratory test results, perform laboratory procedures, and maintain laboratory equipment.
To prepare for these MCQs, candidates should have a thorough understanding of the key concepts and principles of laboratory science. They should also be familiar with common laboratory equipment and procedures, as well as laboratory safety protocols.
Candidates may also benefit from studying specific laboratory science textbooks or taking online courses that cover the material tested in the MCQs. Additionally, practicing sample MCQs and reviewing the answers can help candidates identify areas where they may need to improve their knowledge or skills.
Overall, the MCQs for lab technologists are designed to be challenging and comprehensive, requiring candidates to demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the field of laboratory science.
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