Microbiology MCQ’s Chapter 54 (LAB)

Some of Common Microbiology MCQs for Laboratory Technicians, Technologists, DHA, HAAD, MLT, DMLT, MOH and Many other Exames

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Microbiology MCQs

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Questions 2651 to 2700

  1. All are oncogenic except_______?
    1. EB virus
    2. Papilloma virus
    3. Herpes simplex virus
    4. Varicella zoster virus
  2. True about HIV are all except____?
    1. DNA virus
    2. Attacks CD4 cells
    3. Macrophages are the reservoir
    4. Decrease CD4 count in late stages
  3. EBV causes all except_________?
    1. Carcinoma of nasopharynx
    2. Papilloma
    3. Infectious mononucleosis
    4. Burkitt’s lymphoma
  4. Australian antigen is________?
    1. HB Ag
    2. HBs AG 11
    3. HBV
    4. None of the above
  5. Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?
    1. Virus isolation
    2. Western blot followed by ELISA
    3. LISA followed by western blot technique
    4. Polymers chain reaction
  6. Enterically transmitted NANB hepatitis B______?
    1. Hepatitis C
    2. Hepatitis D
    3. epatitis E
    4. Hepatitis F
  7. True about immune response of hepatitis B is_______?
    1. Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
    2. Antibody to HBC is not protective
    3. Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
    4. CMI disappears soon after recover
  8. The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell – culture is______?
    1. Cytopathic changes in culture cells
    2. Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
    3. Haemagglutination test
    4. Haemagglutination inhibition test
  9. The Dane particle is the_______?
    1. HBV
    2. IgG anti HAV
    3. Delta Virus
    4. HBC Ag
  10. Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except_______?
    1. Failure to thrive
    2. Have infections
    3. 50% chances to have AIDS
    4. All are true
  11. The time gap between appearance of Koplik’s spot and cutaneous rash in measles is_______?
    1. 24 Hrs
    2. 3-4 days
    3. 2 weeks
    4. 10 days
  12. Rabies virus______?
    1. Cytotropic
    2. Dermatotropic
    3. Chromophilic
    4. Neurotropic
  13. Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_____?
    1. Presence of either DNA or RNA
    2. Simple structure
    3. Complex multiplication
    4. All of the above
  14. The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route_______?
    1. Hepatitis B virus
    2. Hepatitis C virus
    3. Hepatitis D virus
    4. Hepatitis E virus
  15. Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a______?
    1. ELISA
    2. Immunodot
    3. IPA
    4. Western Blot
  16. Bacteriophage was discovered by______?
    1. Robert koch
    2. Twort and d’herelle
    3. Menkin
    4. Metchinkoff
  17. Australia antigen is associated with_______?
    1. Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
    2. AIDS
    3. Chronic leukemia
    4. Basal cell carcinoma
  18. Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_______?
    1. in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
    2. only after one year
    3. no antibodies are present in primary HSV
    4. antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
  19. Half-life of free HIV in plasma is_____?
    1. 24 hours
    2. 6 hours
    3. 12 hours
    4. 3 months
  20. The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is______?
    1. Chocolate agar
    2. Robertoson’s cooked-meat broth
    3. Chorio allantoic membrane
    4. Sabourad’s agar
  21. All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except_______?
    1. HIV
    2. Hepatitis C
    3. Hepatitis B
    4. Hepatitis E
  22. HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except_______?
    1. Saliva
    2. Needle prick injury
    3. Blood transmission
    4. Sexual intercourse
  23. The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is __?
    1. exotoxin production
    2. lecithinase production
    3. hypersensitivity
    4. Coagulase production
  24. Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is __?
    1. Penicillium
    2. Aspergillus
    3. Mucor
    4. Rhizopus
  25. The culture media for fungus is_______?
    1. Tellurite medium
    2. NNN medium
    3. Chocolate agar medium
    4. Sabourauds medium
  1. The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is_______?
    1. Brain – heart infusion
    2. Sabouraud’s
    3. Sabouraud’s plus antibiotics
    4. Any medium incubated at 35-37°C
  2. Dematophytes are fungi infecting______?
    1. Subcutaneous tissue
    2. Systemic organs
    3. Nails, hair and skin
    4. Superficial skin and deep tissue
  3. Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______?
    1. Giardia lambia
    2. Ascaris lumbriocoides
    3. Strongyloides
    4. Entamoeba
  4. Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is_______?
    1. Indirect hemagglutination
    2. ELISA
    3. Counter immune electroporesis
    4. Microscopy
  5. Black water fever is caused by_____?
    1. Plasmodium vivax
    2. Plasmodium falciparum
    3. Leishmania donovani
    4. Microfilaria
  6. Causative organism of Kalahazar is_____?
    1. Plasmodium ovaie
    2. Leishman donovani
    3. Entamoeba histolytica
    4. Toxoplasma
  7. All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_______?
    1. coli
    2. nana
    3. gingivalis
    4. histolytica
  8. All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except______?
    1. Cysts are 8 nucleated
    2. Cysts are 4 nucleated
    3. Trophozoites colonise in the colon
    4. The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides
  9. All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_______?
    1. Glycogen mass
    2. Chromatid bars
    3. Eccentric nucleus
    4. Refractile nucleus
  10. Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______?
    1. Dot
    2. Comma
    3. Banana
    4. Sickle
  11. True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by______?
    1. cats
    2. Dogs
    3. Rats
    4. Cow
  12. Which worm is longest_____?
    1. T. Solium
    2. T. Saginata
    3. Hook worm
    4. A. Lumbricoides
  13. Thread worm is_____?
    1. Enterobius
    2. Ancylostoma
    3. Ascaris
    4. Necator
  14. Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to_____?
    1. Hook worm
    2. Thread worm
    3. Ascaris
    4. Guinea worm
  15. Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in_____?
    1. Ascariasis
    2. Tapeworm
    3. Hood worm
    4. Ascariasis and tapeworm
  16. Culture media of candida is_______?
    1. Methylene blue dextrose agar
    2. Saboraud’s medium
    3. Pingolevin
    4. All of the above
  17. The following is not true of Candida albicans_____?
    1. Yeast like fungus
    2. Forms Chlamydospores
    3. Blastomeres seen in isolates
    4. Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them
  18. Opportunistic infection is caused by_______?
    1. Penicillium
    2. Mucor
    3. Aspergillus
    4. All of the above
  19. The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_______?
    1. Kerison
    2. Alopecia areata
    3. Pilomatrixoma
    4. Tenia incognito
  20. Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by _?
    1. Candida albicans
    2. Mucor
    3. Cryptococcus
    4. Aspergillus
  21. Candidal hyphae can be stained using______?
    1. Van Gieson’s stain
    2. Periodic acid schiff stain
    3. Masson Trichrome stain
    4. Toluidine blue stain
  22. Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________?
    1. Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
    2. Causes meningitis
    3. Melanin production related to virulence
    4. Basidiomycetes yeast
  23. Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is______?
    1. 2:1
    2. 1:2
    3. 3:1
    4. 1:3
  24. Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve______?
    1. Caecum and large intestine
    2. Duodenum
    3. Stomach
    4. Jejunum and Ileum
  25. Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection______?
    1. Giardia lambella
    2. Isopora belli
    3. Balantidium coli
    4. Taenia solium

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