5000 Plus MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists are designed to test the knowledge and proficiency of laboratory professionals who work in the field of clinical laboratory science. These questions cover a wide range of topics related to laboratory science, including anatomy, physiology, microbiology, chemistry, and hematology.
2551 to 2600 MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologist Exam Preparation
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Questions 2551 to 2600
A polysaccharide capsule is present on cryptococci which –
- a) Inhibits phagocytosis
- b) Is an aid to diagnose
- c) Cross reacts with rheumatoid factor
- d) All of these
The largest protozoa is –
- a) Balantidium coli
- b) Entamoeba coli
- c) Trichomonus vaginalis
- d) Toxoplasma gondii
Premunition is particularly seen in –
- a) Ascaris
- b) Giardia
- c) Plasmodium
- d) None of these
Which of the following vaccine contains attenuated form of bacteria?
- a) BCG
- b) TAB
- c) Polio
- d) Cholera
The bacteria, which is motile at 22°C but non-motile at 37°C is
- a) Tranformation
- b) Transduction
- c) Conjugation
- d) Cell fusion
Teichoic acid is –
- a) Found in the walls of Gram positive bacteria
- b) Provide receptors for phages
- c) Make up outer wall of Gram negative bacteria
- d) Influence the permeability of the membrane
One flagellum at one end of the organism is called –
- a) Monotrichate
- b) Amphitrichate
- c) Lophotrichate
- d) Peritrichate
What is the function of bacterial capsule?
- a) Protection of organism from phagocytosis
- b) Helps in adherence of bacteria to surface in its environment
- c) Both a and b
- d) None of these
Which of the following is the characteristic of bacterial spore?
- a) Highly refractile
- b) Usually dehydrated
- c) Sensitive to formaldehyde
- d) All of these
Which of the following are acid fast structures?
- a) Mycobacteria
- b) Bacterial spores
- c) Nocardia
- d) All of these
All of the following are acid fast structures except
- a) Clostridium
- b) Bacterial spores
- c) Exoskeleton
- d) None of these
All of the following are energy sources of bacteria except
- a) Oxidation of inorganic compounds
- b) Oxidation of organic compounds
- c) Absorption of heat
- d) Utilisation of visible light
Identify the obligate anaerobes
- a) Salmonella
- b) Vibrio cholerae
- c) Clostridium tetani
- d) Sarcinae
Streptococci which are destroyed at 60°C for 30 minutes
- a) Preptostreptococci
- b) Strepto viridans
- c) Strepto hemolyticus
- d) All of these
Toxins or enzymes which are not produced by Streptococcus pyogenes
- a) Hyaluronidase
- b) Phosphatase
- c) Hemolysin
- d) Streptokinase
Cholera red reaction is identified by
- a) Sulphuric acid
- b) Nitric acid
- c) Hydrochloric acid
- d) Carbolic acid
Diagnosis of carrier of Salmonella typhi may be shown by
- a) Fecal culture
- b) Bile culture
- c) Urine culture
- d) All of these
Daisy head colony is associated with
- a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- b) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
- c) Clostridium tetani
- d) None of these
Neil mooser reaction is related to
- a) Rickettsiae
- b) Chlamydiae
- c) Spirochaetes
- d) Clostridium perfringens
All of the following are DNA viruses except –
- a) Parvo virus
- b) Paramyxo virus
- c) Herpes virus
- d) Pox virus
The dengue fever virus is –
- a) Arbovirus
- b) Echo virus
- c) Enterovirus
- d) Orthomyxovirus
Dengue fever is caused by –
- a) Bacteria
- b) Virus
- c) Fungi
- d) Rickettsia
Which of the following characters are related to viruses?
- a) No growth on inanimate culture media
- b) Not sensitive to antibiotics
- c) No energy producing enzymes
- d) Insensitive to interferon
Main causative organism of chicken pox is
- a) Fox virus
- b) Mumps virus
- c) Measles virus
- d) None of these
Rickettsiae are stained with
- a) Giesma and Castaneda stains
- b) Macchiavello and Gimenez stains
- c) Both a and b
- d) Malachite green
A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates______?
- a) Acute infection
- b) Carrier state
- c) Prodromal phase
- d) Convalescence
Cytopathic effect is shown by_______?
- a) Virus
- b) Bacteria
- c) Spirochete
- d) Anaerobe
Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses________?
- a) New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
- b) Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
- c) Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids
- d) Contain DNA but no RNA
Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_______?
- a) Cryptococcosis
- b) Tuberculosis
- c) Candidiasis
- d) Aspergilosis
Viruses can be cultured in all except______?
- a) Chick embryo
- b) Blood agar
- c) Guinea pigs
- d) Cell culture
Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____?
- a) 1 week
- b) 6 week
- c) 3 months
- d) 6 months
The Window period in HIV infection means_____?
- a) The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
- b) The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
- c) The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab
- d) None of the above
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affects_______?
- a) Red blood cells
- b) Fibroblasts
- c) Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
- d) Mast cells
The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is______?
- a) Apthous stomatitis
- b) Tuberculosis
- c) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
- d) Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Influenza is caused by______?
- a) Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
- b) Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
- c) Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
- d) Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Human immune deficiency virus is __ virus?
- a) Rheo
- b) Retro
- c) Rhabdo
- d) Flavi
Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses______?
- a) Pox virus
- b) Measles virus
- c) Hepatitis B virus
- d) HIV
In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started______?
- a) Rabies
- b) Poliomyelitis
- c) Influenza
- d) Herpes
Incubation period of herpes zoster is______?
- a) 7-14 days
- b) 1 months
- c) 1-2 years
- d) 3-6 months
True about prions________?
- a) Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
- b) Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
- c) Viruses which are genetically deficient
- d) Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective
Pigs are important source of_____?
- a) Japanese encephalitis
- b) Kuru
- c) Yellow fever
- d) Rabies
Herpes virus_______?
- a) Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
- b) Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
- c) Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane
- d) None of the above
The presence of Which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?
- a) Enzymes
- b) Protein coat
- c) Polysaccharide
- d) Lipids
Certain viruses have been isolated in crystalline form and have been found to be_____?
- a) Nucleotides
- b) Phospholipids
- c) Scleroproteins
- d) Nucleoproteins
The HIV virus can be destroyed in vitro by which of the following_______?
- a) Boiling
- b) Ethanol
- c) Cidex
- d) All of the above
Portal of entry of poliovirus is mainly______?
- a) Gastrointestinal tract
- b) Nasal mucosa
- c) Lung
- d) Skin
Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates______?
- a) Simple carriers
- b) Late convalescence
- c) High infectivity
- d) Carrier status
Which does not have a viral etiology_____?
- a) Carcinoma Cervix
- b) Hepatoma
- c) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
- d) Lymphoma
Viron is defined as_______?
- a) Extracellular infectious virus particle
- b) Smallest virus
- c) A smallest particle similar to virus
- d) None of the above
One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is_____?
- a) Viral interference
- b) Mutation
- c) Supervision
- d) Permutation
Answer Key Summary
The questions are typically designed to assess the technical skills and knowledge required for the laboratory profession, including the ability to analyze laboratory test results, perform laboratory procedures, and maintain laboratory equipment.
To prepare for these MCQs, candidates should have a thorough understanding of the key concepts and principles of laboratory science. They should also be familiar with common laboratory equipment and procedures, as well as laboratory safety protocols.
Candidates may also benefit from studying specific laboratory science textbooks or taking online courses that cover the material tested in the MCQs. Additionally, practicing sample MCQs and reviewing the answers can help candidates identify areas where they may need to improve their knowledge or skills.
Overall, the MCQs for lab technologists are designed to be challenging and comprehensive, requiring candidates to demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the field of laboratory science.
