5000 Plus MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists are designed to test the knowledge and proficiency of laboratory professionals who work in the field of clinical laboratory science. These questions cover a wide range of topics related to laboratory science, including anatomy, physiology, microbiology, chemistry, and hematology.
2501 to 2550 MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologist Exam Preparation
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Questions 2501 to 2550
Acid fast bacteria are
- a) Neisseria
- b) Staphylococci
- c) Mycobacteria
- d) All of the above
Mycobacteria are stained with
- a) Gram’s staining
- b) Simple staining
- c) Both a and b
- d) Ziehl – Neelsen’s staining
Niacin test is positive in case of
- a) Corynebacterium
- b) M. tuberculosis
- c) M. bovis
- d) M. avium
Lepromin test
- a) Is negative in tubercular leprosy
- b) Positive in lepromatous type
- c) Indicated delayed hypersensitivity test
- d) Indicates infection
Streptococcus forms causes which type of infections?
- a) Fever
- b) Zoonotic
- c) Pyogenic
- d) None of these
Streptococcus pyogenes classification is based on
- a) Protein M
- b) Protein T
- c) Protein R
- d) Polysaccharide C
aaa-haemolytic streptococci are also known as
- a) Str. pyogenes
- b) Virulence group
- c) Viridans group
- d) None of these
Streptolysin O is inactivated by
- a) CO2
- b) Nitrogen
- c) Oxygen
- d) Serum
Streptolysin ‘S’ is
- a) Oxygen unstable
- b) Thermostable
- c) Oxygen stable
- d) None of these
Influenza virus is identified by using
- a) Haemaggulutinin inhibition test
- b) Tissue culture method
- c) Embryonated eggs
- d) Plaque formation
Growth of influenza virus is identified by
- a) Cytopathic effects
- b) Hela cells
- c) Both a and b
- d) None of these
Glutamic acid is oxidized by the species except
- a) B. abortus
- b) B. melienasis
- c) B. suis
- d) B. canis
“Prozone phenomenon” is encountered in
- a) A typical mycobacteria
- b) Brucella
- c) Streptococcus
- d) Bordetella pertusis
Of the following, this is a capsulated organism
- a) Bacillus anthracis
- b) Escherichia-coli
- c) Corynebacterium
- d) Brucella
Anthrax is a
- a) Vector borne
- b) Zoonotic infection
- c) Wound bone
- d) Soil borne
Mc Fadyean’s reaction is used to detect
- a) Bacillus anthracis
- b) Brucella
- c) Corynaebacterium
- d) None of these
Gasgangarene bacillus is
- a) Facultative anaerobe
- b) Obligate anaerobe
- c) Facultative aerobe
- d) Obligate aerobe
Coagulase test is used for
- a) Salmonella
- b) Staphylococcus
- c) Bordetella
- d) Pneumococcus
HIV is belonging to
- a) Retro Viridae
- b) Rhabdo Viridae
- c) Toga Viridae
- d) Paramyxo Viridae
Special feature of Retro viruses
- a) Reverse transcriptase
- b) RNA directed DNA polymerases
- c) Both a & b
- d) Boils
AIDS virus is
- a) RNA virus
- b) DNA virus
- c) Retro virus
- d) Entero virus
AIDS is caused by
- a) HTLV – I
- b) Bunya virus
- c) HTLV – III
- d) All
Which of the following organisms is most commonly associated with AIDS pneumonia?
- a) Klebsiella
- b) Str. pneumonia
- c) Mycoplasma
- d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Sero conversion in HIV infection takes place in
- a) 3 weeks
- b) 6 weeks
- c) 9 weeks
- d) 12 weeks
Following is the marker of HIV infection in blood:
- a) Reverse transcriptase
- b) DNA polymerase
- c) RNA polymerase
- d) None of these
Which of the following is the most specific in diagnosis of AIDS?
- a) IHA
- b) Western blot
- c) ELISA
- d) Immuno electrophoresis
The interval period between HIV infection and appearance of antibodies in serum is called
- a) Intrinsic period
- b) Incubation period
- c) Window period
- d) None of these
Screening test for AIDS is
- a) Western blot test
- b) ELISA test
- c) Both a and b
- d) VDRL test
Confirmatory test for AIDS is
- a) Western blot test
- b) ELISA test
- c) Karpas test
- d) Fujerbio test
The most common infection in AIDS is
- a) Pnemocystis carnii
- b) LGV
- c) CMV
- d) Syphilis
During AIDS, HIV infects
- a) CD3 lymphocytes
- b) CD4 lymphocytes
- c) CD2 lymphocytes
- d) Blymphocytes
Lab diagnosis of Leishmaniasis is done by
- a) CFT
- b) Peripheral smear
- c) Blood culture
- d) All of these
Those fungi which do not have a sexual stage are classified as
- a) Phycomycetes
- b) Ascomycetes
- c) Basidiomycetes
- d) Fungi imperfecti
Tinea capitis is
- a) Ring worm of the foot
- b) Ring worm of scalp
- c) Ring worm of non-hairy skin of body
- d) Both a and c
Diagnosis of bacterial disease can be made by
- a) Finding bacteria in pathological fluids
- b) Isolation of bacteria by culture from exudates or blood
- c) Both a and b
- d) None of these
Staphylococcus aureus are characterized by
- a) Formation of acid in sucrose, dextrose
- b) Liquification of gelatin due to production of gelatinase
- c) Strains are catalase positive
- d) All of above
- e) None of these
Cholera occurs in _ form
- a) Endemic
- b) Epidemic
- c) Sporadic
- d) all
- e) None of these
Endemic typhus is caused by
- a) R.mooseri
- b) R.quintana
- c) R.prowazekii
- d) any of them
- e) None of these
A man is usually infected for tick typhus by –
- a) Drinking milk of sick animals
- b) Tending cattle
- c) Inhaling infected dust
- d) All of these
In Gram positive bacteria, ratio of RNA to DNA is
- a) 8 : 1
- b) 1 : 2
- c) Almost equal
- d) None of these
Ziehl – Neelson stain is a __
- a) Simple stain
- b) Counter stain
- c) Differential stain
- d) None of them
Wet mount slide preparations are used in microbiology as they allow to see
- a) Size and shape of individual organisms
- b) Characteristic arrangement or grouping of cells
- c) Motility of the organism
- d) All of these
- e) None of these
Organism resistant to degradative lysosomal enzymes includes
- a) M.tuberculosis
- b) Legionella pneumophila
- c) M.leprae
- d) Both a and b
- e) Both b and c
Freeze-etch particles (used in preparing cell for electron microscopy) can be located in the
- a) Cytoplasm
- b) Cell wall
- c) Cell membrane
- d) Nucleus
The properties common to Gram positive and negative cell walls are
- a) Equal susceptibility to hydrolysis by lysozyme
- b) Peptide crosslinks between polysaccharides
- c) Rigid peptoglycon activity
- d) Greater resistance to drying than vegetative cell.
- e) All of these
The main difference in true bacteria and mycoplasma is that it does not posses –
- a) Flagella
- b) Cell wall
- c) ATP synthesis
- d) A capsule
The organism responsible for retarding penetration of host cell by an inhibitor of ATP synthesis.
- a) M.pneumoniae
- b) Rickettsia rickettsii
- c) Chlamydia trachomatis
- d) Chlamydia psitacci
Mycoplasmas differ from Chlamydiae in that, it
- a) has ability to cause urinary tract infection
- b) lack of a true bacterial cell wall
- c) susceptible to penicillin
- d) All of these
- e) None of these
Fungal disease in human is caused by –
- a) Inhalation of conidia
- b) Invasion of mucous membrane
- c) Contamination of wounds with conidia or mycelial fragments
- d) All of these
- e) None of these
Fungi differs with bacteria in that it –
- a) Contain no peptidoglycan
- b) Are prokaryotic
- c) Susceptible to griseofulvin
- d) Have nuclear membranes
- e) All of these
Answer Key Summary
The questions are typically designed to assess the technical skills and knowledge required for the laboratory profession, including the ability to analyze laboratory test results, perform laboratory procedures, and maintain laboratory equipment.
To prepare for these MCQs, candidates should have a thorough understanding of the key concepts and principles of laboratory science. They should also be familiar with common laboratory equipment and procedures, as well as laboratory safety protocols.
Candidates may also benefit from studying specific laboratory science textbooks or taking online courses that cover the material tested in the MCQs. Additionally, practicing sample MCQs and reviewing the answers can help candidates identify areas where they may need to improve their knowledge or skills.
Overall, the MCQs for lab technologists are designed to be challenging and comprehensive, requiring candidates to demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the field of laboratory science.
