MCQs Chapter 11 (Nursing)

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MCQs no 501 t- 550

  1. The physician of your assigned client tells you that the client has a heart murmur that can be detected by direct auscultation. You realize that the physician is telling you which of the following things?
    1. Use of a stethoscope is necessary to hear the murmur.
    2. The murmur can be heard by using only the ear.
    3. An ultrasound is necessary to find this murmur.
    4. A Doplar device will be needed to find the murmur.
  2. When weighing a client daily, you will most need to weigh the client at which of the following times?
    1. when most rested
    2. at the same time each day
    3. after the shower or bath
    4. when higher priorities are completed
  3. When counting the apical pulse during the physical assessment, it is the most accepted practice for the nurse to count the apical pulse in which of the following ways?
    1. for 15 seconds and multiply by four
    2. for 30 seconds and multiply by two
    3. for one minute, checking radial pulse at the same time
    4. for one full minute
  4. While listening to a client’s lung sounds, you hear something that you believe is not normal, and you note that it is a continuous sound. You will chart this as which of the following findings?
    1. crackles
    2. Rales
    3. adventitious sounds
    4. pleral friction rub
  5. When examining the client’s abdomen, the nurse will most facilitate the examination by positioning the client in which of the following ways?
    1. supine with small pillows beneath knees and head
    2. semi-Fowler’s position with knees extended
    3. sitting in the chair with legs elevated
    4. upine with arms extended and hands behind head
  6. You highly suspect that your assigned client has abdominal distention. You most need to do and chart which of the following things?
    1. Have another nurse verify your suspicions.
    2. Measure the abdominal girth at the umbilicus.
    3. Measure abdominal girth at the most distended level.
    4. Ask the client if they are distended.
  7. When a client’s skin is dry, which of the following nursing interventions would be most helpful?
    1. Limit bathing to once or twice a week.
    2. Bathing is daily, but no soap is used.
    3. Bathing daily with mineral oil added to the water.
    4. Bathing with lotion instead of water.
  8. To protect the client’s skin from injury during hygiene care, including bathing or showering, application of lotion, and bed making, you most need to do which of The following things?
    1. Cover your rings andracelets with gloves.
    1. Briskly dry client’s skin after bath to ensure dryness.
    2. Keep bottom sheets somewhat loose.
    3. Cut your fingernails to a short length.
  9. The skin produces and absorbs which of the following vitamins in conjunction with the ultraviolet rays of the Sun, which activate this particular vitamin’s precursor present in the skin?
    1. vitamin D
    2. vitamin C
    3. vitamin E
    4. vitamin K
  10. You are working with a client who has dentures but does not wear them. When questioned about the reason for not wearing the dentures, the client says it makes him feel old. Which of the following responses would be best?
    1. “You are not really old.”
    2. “It is all right not to wear your dentures.”
    3. “You look better with dentures.”
    4. “Wearing dentures helps gums not to shrink.”
  11. When assessing the client’s hair, you are especially looking for pediculosis capitis. If it is present, which of the following signs will you most likely find?
    1. Oval particles looking like dandruff on the hairs.
    2. Crusts on the scalp, especially at the client’s hairline.
    3. Brown or black threadlike lesions.
    4. Small insects with red legs.
  12. You are preparing to bathe and wash the hair of an African American woman. Which of the following questions would be most important to ask the client?
    1. “Will you please unbraid your hair?”
    2. “Do you have or want oil put on your hair and scalp?”
    3. “Is it all right if I shampoo your hair twice?”
    4. “Will you brush your hair before the shampoo?”
  13. You need to remove the artificial eye of a client, and you need to clean it. Which of the following methods is recommended for removal?
    1. Put pressure on either side of the eye and pop it out.
    2. Apply pressure directly above the eye.
    3. Apply pressure directly to the eye with a small rubber bulb.
    4. Apply pressure with a rubber bulb to lower half of the eye.
  14. It is most likely that an acutely ill client will need the room temperature set at which of the following temperatures?
    1. 64 degrees F
    2. 68 degrees F
    3. 74 degrees F
    4. 78 degrees F
  15. You are cleaning a client’s partial dentures, which have a metal clasp. Which of the following actions are best on your part?
    1. Place a washcloth in the sink where you are cleaning.
    2. Remove the partial dentures by the metal clasp.
    3. Use hot water to rinse the dentures after cleaning.
    4. Soak the partial plate with the metal clasp overnight.
  16. A nurse getting report at the beginning of shift learns that an assigned client has hyperpyrexia. The nurse realizes that this client is experiencing which of the following signs or symptoms?
    1. extreme bleeding of the gums
    2. a very high fever, such as 41°C or 105.8°F
    3. waxy flexibility of the muscles
    4. third-degree burns over much of the body
  17. You are ready to take the client’s oral temperature. You ask this client how long it has been since drinking something hot or cold or smoking. The client admits having just drunk a cup of hot coffee. You will wait how long before taking the temperature?
    1. 5 minutes
    2. 10 minutes
    3. 20 minutes
    4. 30 minutes
  18. In which of the following clients is a rectal temperature most usually contraindicated?
    1. client who has had a myocardial infarction
    2. client with Parkinson’s disease
    3. client who is prone to seizures
    4. client with neuropathology associated with diabetes
  19. When taking a radial pulse for half a minute, the nurse finds it to be irregular. Which of the following would be best for the nurse to do next?
    1. Take the radial pulse for one minute.
    2. Check the carotid pulse to see if it is irregular.
    3. Assess the apical pulse.
    4. Chart the radial pulse and the irregularities.
  20. The nurse wants to check the popliteal pulse. This pulse can be better palpated if the nurse does which of the following things?
    1. Ask the client to extend the knee.
    2. Have the client flex the knee.
    3. Press lightly on the right side of the front of the knee.
    4. Palpate more deeply than for other pulses.
  21. The nurse positioning a client after surgery will take into account that the position, which most often predisposes a client to physiologic processes that suppress respiration, is which of the following positions?
    1. Fowler’s position
    2. Prone
    3. Supine
    4. left side lying down
  22. The nurse is taking the client’s blood pressure. The physician asks for the pulse pressure. To obtain the pulse pressure, the nurse will have to do which of the following things?
    1. Obtain a pulse-pressure machine.
    2. Subtract the diastolic blood pressure from the systolic.
    3. Subtract the systolic blood pressure from the diastolic.
    4. Take client’s apical pulse and subtract it from systolic.
  23. The nurse notices that the client has a hematocrit of 70 percent. This level of hematocrit will most likely affect the vital signs in which of the following ways?
    1. The blood pressure will be elevated.
    2. The pulse will be low.
    3. Temperature will be elevated.
    4. Blood pressure will be low.
  24. The nurse finds that a newborn has a mean systolic pressure of 75 mmHg. How would this blood pressure be best described?
    1. Normal
    2. slightly low
    3. very low
    4. slightly high
  25. When working with clients experiencing pain, you will define their pain in regard to whether they have pain or not and how intense it is based on which of the following things?
    1. nursing experience and expertise
    2. the underlying cause of the pain
    3. whatever the experiencing person says it is.
    4. current medical and pharmacological research
  26. When pain impulses are transmitted via the A-delta fibers, which of the following types of pain will your client have?
    1. sharp, pricking pain
    2. throbbing pain
    3. burning pain
    4. intermittent stabbing pain
  27. Your assigned client, who has been talking with the doctor about pain control, later asks you what the doctor meant by “pain threshold.” Which of the following would be the best reply?
    1. the point at which pain medication brings relief
    2. the maximum amount of pain a person can tolerate
    3. the amount of pain the average person can tolerate
    4. the amount of pain stimulation that it takes to cause pain
  28. Which one of the following four clients is most likely to tolerate pain best?
    1. a client with rheumatoid arthritis
    2. a client who has terminal cancer in stage 1 of grief
    3. an athlete having a knee surgery to prolong his career
    4. a client who has a migraine headache
  29. You are caring for a client who has just returned from surgery and has received intravenous morphine minutes before leaving the recovery room. You need to assess the client’s pain now and again at which of the following times?
    1. in 20 to 30 minutes
    2. in one hour
    3. in two hours
    4. in 3 to 4 hours
  30. Your assigned client seems to be getting a lot of attention from his mother when he complains of pain. The mother may be encouraging which of the following types of gains?
    1. primary gains
    2. secondary gains
    3. narcissistic gains
    4. egocentric gains
  31. When giving a client a diagnosis of acute pain, the nurse “using NANDA diagnostic categories” will use this diagnosis only when the pain last no longer than which of the following lengths of time?
    1. 3 days
    2. 2 weeks
    3. 1 month
    4. 6 months
  32. The nurse visiting a client and the client’s family in the home teaches family members to massage the client’s back and enlists their aid in providing backrubs. Which of the following reasons most likely represents the main reason the nurse has enlisted the aid of the family?
    1. It may diminish feelings of helplessness in family members.
    2. The client may need a backrub when the nurse is gone.
    3. Backrubs reduce the need for addicting medications.
    4. The client will be able to get more sleep and rest.
  33. Which of the following people have the largest percentage of water in their bodies?
    1. fat men
    2. Lean men
    3. lean women
    4. fat women
  34. When talking with a client about complete and incomplete proteins, which of the following would you use as the best example of a complete protein?
    1. olives
    2. rice
    3. eggs
    4. Nuts
  35. In instructing a client on cholesterol, the nurse will teach which of the following things?
    1. The body does not need cholesterol.
    2. Most cholesterol in the body is destroyed in the small intestine.
    3. The majority of cholesterol in the body comes from eating fatty foos.
    4. Most cholesterol is synthesized in the liver.
  36. A client asks which of the vitamins can be stored in the body. Which of the following answers by the nurse would be correct?
    1. C
    2. B1 thiamine
    3. Biotin
    4. D
  37. The newborn infant’s stomach capacity is approximately which of the following in milliliters?
    1. 50
    2. 90
    3. 120
    4. 160
  38. You are feeding a newborn infant in the nursery, as the mother is having some procedure done at this time. Before the infant finishes taking the contents of the bottle of formula, the infant slowly stops sucking and falls asleep. Which of the following actions would be best on your part?
    1. Wake the baby by tickling the bottoms of the feet and then try feeding.
    2. Wait about 30 minutes, then try to get the infant to take the formula.
    3. Report this feeding behavior to the supervisior immediately.
    4. Discontinue the feeding and allow the infant to sleep at this time.
  39. The nurse will teach clients to use which of the following groups from the food pyramid in the greatest amounts?
    1. carbohydrates such as grains, potatoes, and rice
    2. vegetables and fruits
    3. milk and milk products
    4. proteins such as meat and meat products
  40. You are working with a client who is on a full liquid diet. The client is demanding some ice cream. Which of the following responses on your part would be best?
    1. A. Tell the client that ice cream is not allowed on a full liquid diet.
    2. Call the physician and report the client’s demands.
    3. Get the client some plain vanilla ice cream.
    4. Ask the supervising nurse to talk with the client.
  41. The phosphate level of a newborn is best described in which of the following ways when comparing the newborn’s phosphate level with that of an adult?
    1. nearly half that of the adult
    2. about one fourth that of an adult
    3. nearly twice that of an adult
    4. approximately the same as an adult
  42. The nurse is checking the placement of a nasogastric tube prior to giving medication and a feeding. Which of the following is the preferred and most accurate method of testing?
    1. Insert 5 to 20 mm of air into the tube while listening over the stomach with a stethoscope.
    2. Aspirate 20 to 30 ml of gastrointestinal secretions and test the pH.
    3. Insert 15 to 20 cc of water into the stomach and listen with the stethoscope.
    4. Place an open end of the tube into a glass of water and check for bubbles.
  43. The three layers of the uterus are:
    1. The peritoneum, the endocardium, the myocardium
    2. The myometrium, the endometrium, the perimetrium
    3. The perineum, the endometrium, the myometrium
    4. The endometrium, the myocardium, the periosteum
  44. A fibroid tumour is also known as:
    1. Myalgia
    2. Myotic
    3. Myoma
    4. Myeloma
  45. Dilation refers to:
    1. A reduction in pace
    2. Widening
    3. Shrinking
    4. Death
  46. The cervix uteri is:
    1. A type of cancer
    2. A genital infection
    3. A term used to describe the lower part of the uterus
    4. A term used to describe the upper aspect of the vagina
  47. A loop electrosurgical excision procedure is used to:
    1. Freeze the uterus
    2. Remove tissue from the vagina
    3. Remove tissue from the uterus
    4. Remove tissue from the cervix
  48. Potential risks associated with cone biopsy include:
    1. Haemorrhage
    2. Cervical stenosis
    3. Inability of the cervix to stay closed during pregnancy
    4. All of the above
  49. Cervical cancer:
    1. Is a common type of cancer
    2. Is an uncommon type of cancer
    3. Is always associated with abnormal bleeding
    4. Only affects older women
  50. Oophorectomy is:
    1. A type of chemotherapy
    2. A form of radiation
    3. A surgical procedure to remove the vagina
    4. A surgical procedure to remove one or both ovaries

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