Chapter 45 with our Microbiology MCQs and explanations! Test your knowledge and understanding of key concepts with our complete set of multiple choice questions with detailed explanations for each answer. Increase your confidence and understanding of the fascinating world of microorganisms!
Microbiology is the study of living organisms that are not visible to the naked eye. All microorganisms such as amoebae, protozoa, viruses, bacteria are studied in microbiology. Microbes play a major role in nutrient cycling, decomposition, food spoilage, disease control and causation, and biotechnology. Due to their versatile nature, they can be used for different purposes.
Below is a set of microbiology MCQs along with the answers for your reference. These will help students improve their conceptual knowledge.
Microbiology MCQs 2201 to 2250
- The interaction of antigens with antibodies on the surface of a mast cel leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. The mast cell granules produce anaphylaxis because they contain________________?
- Lysosomes
- Proteolytic enzymes
- Lymphotoxins
- Vasoactive mediators
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Vasoactive mediators
Mast cell degranulation in response to antigen-antibody interaction releases a potent cocktail of inflammatory molecules stored within their granules. These include histamine, prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and tryptase, collectively known as vasoactive mediators, which are responsible for the widespread, severe symptoms of anaphylaxis.
The other options are incorrect:
- Lysosomes: While lysosomes also contain enzymes, they primarily function in intracellular digestion and waste removal, not in mediating inflammatory responses.
- Proteolytic enzymes: Some proteolytic enzymes are indeed found in mast cell granules and contribute to tissue damage during an allergic reaction. However, they are not the primary trigger for the systemic symptoms of anaphylaxis.
- Lymphotoxins: Lymphotoxins are cell signaling proteins involved in immune responses but are not directly involved in the release of inflammatory mediators from mast cells during anaphylaxis.
- Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify______________?
- Mycoplasma
- Chlamydiae
- Rickettsiae
- Spirochaetes
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Spirochaetes
Dark-field microscopy relies on revealing unstained samples through their refractive properties. Spirochaetes, with their unique spiral shape and high refractivity, stand out brightly against the dark background, making them readily identifiable under this technique.
The other options are incorrect:
- Mycoplasma: While also lacking a cell wall, mycoplasma are much smaller and lack the distinctive shape of spirochaetes, making them less suitable for visualization with dark-field microscopy.
- Chlamydiae: Chlamydiae are intracellular bacteria and require specific staining techniques or culture methods for identification, rendering them invisible under dark-field microscopy.
- Rickettsiae: While some rickettsiae display a rod-like or slightly curved shape, they lack the clear spiral morphology of spirochaetes and may not provide enough contrast for optimal identification with dark-field microscopy.
- The minimum time required for the sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134°C is__________________?
- 3 minutes
- 15 minutes
- 30 minutes
- 60 minutes
Answer and Explanation
Answer: 3 minutes
Sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134°C requires a minimum of only 3 minutes to effectively eliminate all microorganisms, including highly resistant bacterial spores. This is significantly faster than the 15 minutes required at the lower temperature of 121°C.
The other options are incorrect:
- 15 minutes: This is the minimum time required for sterilization at 121°C, not 134°C.
- 30 minutes: While some protocols may use longer exposure times for specific instruments or situations, 30 minutes is not the standard minimum for 134°C sterilization.
- 60 minutes: This is unnecessarily long and exceeding the standard recommended time for 134°C sterilization.
- The best sterilization method for a hand-piece is________________?
- Ethylene oxide gas
- dry heat
- chemical vapour
- All of the above
Answer and Explanation
Answer: chemical vapour
Chemical vapor sterilization is often considered the best method for sterilizing handpieces. It uses a combination of chemicals, typically formaldehyde and alcohol, to create a sterilizing vapor. This method is effective in penetrating small and intricate instruments, ensuring thorough sterilization without the negative aspects associated with ethylene oxide gas or dry heat.
The other options are incorrect:
- Ethylene oxide gas: While effective, ethylene oxide gas is a harsh chemical that requires special equipment and ventilation, making it less practical for routine handpiece sterilization. It can also damage certain materials and has longer cycle times.
- Dry heat: Dry heat requires much higher temperatures (around 160°C) for similar effectiveness as steam autoclaving, which can damage delicate handpiece components.
- Chemical vapor: Chemical vapor sterilization uses chemicals like glutaraldehyde, which are effective against some microorganisms but may not be sporicidal (kill spores) and can leave residues on instruments.
- Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?
- Atopic allergy
- Serum sickness
- Transfusion reaction
- Contact dermatitis
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Serum sickness
Serum sickness is a classic example of an immune complex hypersensitivity reaction (type III hypersensitivity). It occurs when immune complexes, formed from the interaction of foreign antigens (often from drugs or vaccines) and antibodies, deposit in various tissues, triggering inflammation and tissue damage.
The other options are incorrect:
- Atopic allergy: This is a type I hypersensitivity reaction mediated by IgE antibodies and mast cells, resulting in symptoms like sneezing, runny nose, and itchy eyes.
- Transfusion reaction: While some transfusion reactions involve immune mechanisms, they can be classified as different types depending on the cause, with some involving type II or IV hypersensitivity rather than type III.
- Contact dermatitis: This is typically a type IV hypersensitivity reaction caused by direct skin contact with a sensitizing agent, not by the formation of immune complexes in the circulation.
- The chemotactic factor is______________?
- C2a
- C3b
- C4a
- C5a
Answer and Explanation
Answer: C5a
C5a is the primary chemotactic factor in the complement system. It attracts and activates immune cells, particularly neutrophils, macrophages, and mast cells, towards the site of inflammation or infection. This plays a crucial role in the body’s immune response by directing these cells to where they are needed most.
The other options are incorrect:
- C2a: C2a is a component of the classical pathway of the complement system involved in C3 convertase formation, but it does not have direct chemotactic activity.
- C3b: C3b can contribute to chemotaxis indirectly by binding to receptors on immune cells and activating them, but its chemotactic activity is weaker compared to C5a.
- C4a: C4a is another component of the classical pathway with some weak chemotactic activity, but its primary function is in complement activation, not direct immune cell recruitment.
- Steam under pressure in used in __ sterilization?
- Pasteurization
- Autoclave
- Kochs sterilizer
- hot air oven
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Autoclave
An autoclave is a pressurized chamber that uses steam at high temperatures (typically 121°C or 134°C) to effectively kill all microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi, even highly resistant spores. This makes it ideal for sterilizing medical instruments, laboratory equipment, and other materials that require complete sterility.
The other options are incorrect:
- Pasteurization: While also utilizing steam, pasteurization uses lower temperatures (around 72°C) and shorter exposure times than autoclaving. This is effective for reducing bacteria in food products but does not achieve complete sterilization.
- Kochs sterilizer: This historical apparatus, developed by Robert Koch, used boiling water or steam for sterilization at lower temperatures and pressures compared to modern autoclaves. It is outdated and not commonly used in contemporary settings.
- Hot air oven: Dry heat sterilization using hot air ovens requires much higher temperatures (around 160°C) for similar effectiveness as steam autoclaving. This can damage certain materials and may not be effective against all spore-forming bacteria.
- The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______________?
- IgA
- IgD
- IgE
- IgG
Answer and Explanation
Answer: IgA
IgA is the predominant immunoglobulin in saliva, accounting for 70-80% of the total immunoglobulin content. This is due to its specialized role in mucosal immunity, protecting the oral cavity and other mucous membranes from invading pathogens.
The other options are incorrect:
- IgD: IgD is present in very low quantities in both serum and saliva and does not play a significant role in mucosal immunity.
- IgE: IgE is primarily involved in allergic reactions and is present in very low concentrations in saliva.
- IgG: While IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in blood, it constitutes only 5-15% of the immunoglobulin content in saliva. This IgG mainly transudates from the bloodstream and plays a smaller role in mucosal defense compared to IgA.
- All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?
- Aquatic bodies are main habitat
- It can replicate in amoeba
- Urine test is a reliable method
- Person to person transmission
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Person to person transmission
While Legionella pneumophila thrives in aquatic environments and replicates within amoebae, it does not typically spread directly from person to person. Transmission primarily occurs through inhalation of aerosolized contaminated water droplets, not close contact with an infected individual.
The other options are incorrect:
- Aquatic bodies are the main habitat: Legionella pneumophila naturally lives in freshwater environments like lakes, rivers, and hot springs.
- It can replicate in amoeba: It parasitizes free-living amoebae like Acanthamoeba and uses their cellular machinery to multiply.
- Urine test is a reliable method: Detection of Legionella pneumophila antigen in urine is a non-invasive and efficient diagnostic tool.
- Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except_____________?
- Varicella Zoster Virus
- Papilloma Virus
- Influenza Virus
- Human immunodeficiency virus
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Papilloma Virus
Among the listed viruses, only Papillomavirus (HPV) lacks an outer lipoprotein envelope. It has a simple capsid composed of protein arranged in icosahedral symmetry, without the additional lipid and protein layer characteristic of an envelope.
Why the other options have an envelope:
- Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV): Possesses a double-layered envelope derived from the host cell plasma membrane. This envelope plays a crucial role in VZV’s infectivity and evasion of the immune system.
- Influenza Virus: Has a characteristic envelope studded with glycoprotein spikes (hemagglutinin and neuraminidase). These spikes are essential for viral attachment and entry into host cells.
- Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV): Surrounded by a complex envelope containing a lipid bilayer embedded with viral glycoproteins (gp120 and gp41). This envelope plays a vital role in HIV’s entry into host cells and immune evasion.
- Actinomycosis is a_________________?
- Aerobic bacterial disease
- Anaerobic bacterial disease
- Aerobic fungal disease
- Anaerobic fungal disease
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Anaerobic bacterial disease
Actinomycosis is caused by Actinomyces, a genus of anaerobic bacteria, meaning they require a low-oxygen environment to survive and grow. These bacteria are commonly found in the mouth, throat, and intestinal tract, typically not causing harm unless introduced into deeper tissues through trauma or surgery.
The other options are incorrect:
- Aerobic bacterial disease: Actinomyces bacteria require anaerobic conditions, so their involvement in a disease would not be compatible with an aerobic environment.
- Aerobic fungal disease: There are no known fungal diseases caused by Actinomyces.
- Anaerobic fungal disease: While some fungi thrive in anaerobic environments, there are no known human diseases caused by anaerobic fungi.
- Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?
- Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
- The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission
- The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously
- Causes positive Nagler reaction
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Clostridium tetani doesn’t travel directly through nerves. It enters the body through a wound and then spreads via the lymphatic system and bloodstream to reach the nervous system, specifically the anterior horn cells in the spinal cord.
The other options are incorrect:
- Tetanospasmin acts on pre-synaptic neurons: While the exotoxin tetanospasmin blocks neurotransmitter release, it actually targets the presynaptic nerve terminals of motor neurons, not the post-synaptic neurons as suggested.
- Intravenous tetanus toxoid: Tetanus toxoid can be given intramuscularly as prophylaxis or post-exposure prophylaxis, but not intravenously for treatment.
- Positive Nagler reaction: This test detects tetanus neurotoxin in the blood and is often negative in early stages of tetanus, making it not ideal for diagnosis.
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?
- Produces heat stable enterotoxin
- Causes Shangai fever
- Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.
- Does not produce any pigment
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a common gram-negative bacterium known for its resistance to various environmental factors and disinfectants. While it can be inactivated by different methods, heating at 55 degrees Celsius for 1 hour is not enough to completely destroy it. Higher temperatures and/or longer exposure times are needed to achieve complete sterilization.
The other options are incorrect:
- Produces heat stable enterotoxin: While P. aeruginosa produces various toxins, it does not produce a heat-stable enterotoxin.
- Causes Shanghai fever: P. aeruginosa is not associated with Shanghai fever, a historical term for a type of hemorrhagic fever with unknown origin.
- Does not produce any pigment: P. aeruginosa can produce various pigments, including pyocyanin (green), pyoverdine (blue), and pyomelanin (black).
- Which is not true about vibrio cholera_________________?
- It is non-halophilic
- Grows on simple media
- Man is the only natural host
- Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Man is the only natural host
Vibrio cholerae primarily infects humans, causing the disease cholera. However, it is not accurate to say that man is the only natural host. Vibrio cholerae can also be found in environmental reservoirs, such as brackish or saltwater, where it can survive and replicate. In aquatic environments, Vibrio cholerae exists in a free-living state outside of the human host. Cholera transmission often occurs through the ingestion of contaminated water or food.
The other options are incorrect:
- It is non-halophilic: Vibrio cholerae can survive in a wide range of salt concentrations, including seawater.
- Grows on simple media: Vibrio cholerae is relatively easy to grow in the laboratory on simple media.
- Cannot survive in extracellular environment: Vibrio cholerae can survive outside the human body for short periods of time in aquatic environments.
- About Bacteroids True are all Except_______________?
- Susceptible to many antibiotics
- Present mainly in mixed infections
- Most common species is B fragilis
- Bile resistant anerobes
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Susceptible to many antibiotics
Bacteroides are generally resistant to many antibiotics, and they are known for being clinically significant anaerobic bacteria. Their resistance is attributed to the production of beta-lactamases and other mechanisms that make them less susceptible to common antibiotics.
The other options are incorrect:
- Present mainly in mixed infections: This is true; Bacteroides species are often associated with polymicrobial infections.
- Most common species is B. fragilis: Bacteroides fragilis is indeed a common species within the Bacteroides genus.
- Bile resistant anaerobes: Bacteroides are generally bile-resistant anaerobes, allowing them to survive in the intestinal environment.
- About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except__________________?
- Most common cause of urethritis is male
- All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
- Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection
- Found exclusively in human beings.
Answer and Explanation
Answer: All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the bacterium causing gonorrhea, has developed resistance to penicillin over the years. Consequently, penicillin is no longer the recommended first-line treatment for gonorrhea due to widespread resistance.
The other options are incorrect:
- Most common cause of urethritis in males: This statement is true. N. gonorrhoeae is the leading bacterial cause of non-gonococcal urethritis in men.
- All strains are highly susceptible to penicillin: This statement is false. The emergence of penicillin-resistant N. gonorrhoeae (PPNG) strains poses a significant public health challenge.
- Wide spread axoregnic strains cause disseminated gonococcal infection: This statement is true. Certain N. gonorrhoeae strains can spread beyond the genitals, causing potentially serious complications like pelvic inflammatory disease in women and arthritis in both sexes.
- Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by________________?
- Dextran
- Epithelial cells
- Bacteria
- Sucrose
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Dextran
Dental plaque adheres to the tooth surface primarily through the production of dextran by certain bacteria, particularly Streptococcus mutans. Dextran is a sticky, polysaccharide substance that forms a matrix, allowing bacteria to adhere to the teeth and create biofilms.
The other options are incorrect:
- Epithelial cells: Epithelial cells make up the outer layer of the skin and mucous membranes but are not directly involved in the adherence of dental plaque to tooth surfaces.
- Bacteria: While bacteria are present in dental plaque, the specific mechanism of adherence is through dextran produced by certain bacteria.
- Sucrose: Sucrose is a substrate for the production of dextran by bacteria in dental plaque, but it is not the direct adhesive factor. Dextran itself is the substance responsible for plaque adherence.
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by_________________?
- Gram’s stain
- H & E stain
- Ziehl-Neelsen stain
- PAS stain
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacterium responsible for tuberculosis, has a unique cell wall with a high lipid content, making it difficult to stain with conventional methods like Gram stain or H&E stain. Ziehl-Neelsen stain, also known as acid-fast stain, specifically targets Mycobacterium species by utilizing carbol fuchsin and acid-alcohol decolorization. This process highlights the bacteria with a bright red color against a blue background, making them easily identifiable under a microscope.
The other options are incorrect:
- Gram’s stain: This method differentiates bacteria based on their cell wall composition, categorizing them as Gram-positive or Gram-negative. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, due to its unique cell wall, exhibits weak or variable staining with Gram stain, making it unreliable for diagnosis.
- H&E stain: This is a common histological stain used in pathology to visualize general tissue structures. While it can highlight some morphological features of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in tissue sections, it lacks the specificity and sensitivity for definitive diagnosis compared to Ziehl-Neelsen stain.
- PAS stain: Periodic acid-Schiff stain is used to detect carbohydrates and basement membranes in tissue sections. While Mycobacterium tuberculosis may show faint positivity with PAS stain due to its high polysaccharide content, it’s not specific enough for accurate diagnosis as other organisms can also react to the stain.
- The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______________?
- Treponema pallidum
- Treponjema pertenue
- Borrelia burgdorferi
- Borrelia vincenti
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Borrelia vincenti
Fusospirochetosis is a condition characterized by painful, necrotic ulcers in the mouth or throat. It’s caused by a synergistic interaction between Fusobacterium nucleatum, a rod-shaped bacterium, and Borrelia vincenti, a spiral-shaped spirochete. While other spirochetes like Treponema pallidum (syphilis) and Treponema pertenue (yaws) can cause oral lesions, they are not specifically involved in fusospirochetosis.
The other options are incorrect:
- Treponema pallidum: This spirochete is the causative agent of syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection affecting the skin, mucous membranes, and internal organs. While it can cause oral lesions, the presentation and clinical course differ significantly from fusospirochetosis.
- Treponjema pertenue: This spirochete causes yaws, a tropical skin disease characterized by painless ulcers and bone lesions. Like T. pallidum, it doesn’t typically cause the specific symptoms associated with fusospirochetosis.
- Borrelia burgdorferi: This spirochete is responsible for Lyme disease, a tick-borne illness affecting the nervous system, joints, and skin. While it can involve oral manifestations in rare cases, it doesn’t involve the specific synergistic interaction with Fusobacterium nucleatum seen in fusospirochetosis.
- Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is_______________?
- Streptococcus sanguis
- Porphyromonas gingivalis
- Treponema denticola
- Spirochetes
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Streptococcus sanguis
Streptococcus sanguis is a commensal bacterium that is part of the normal oral flora. It helps to prevent the growth of harmful bacteria by producing lactic acid, which lowers the pH of the mouth. This creates an environment that is less hospitable to pathogens.
The other options are incorrect:
- Porphyromonas gingivalis: This is a pathogenic bacterium that is associated with periodontal disease.
- Treponema denticola: This is another pathogenic bacterium that is associated with periodontal disease.
- Spirochetes: This is a general term for bacteria with a spiral shape, not all of which are beneficial.
- An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry cough, sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast Extract Medium, theorganism is______________?
- H. influenza
- Moraxella catarrhalis
- Legionella
- Burkholderia cepacia
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Legionella
The organism associated with growth on charcoal yeast extract medium is Legionella. Legionella species, particularly Legionella pneumophila, are fastidious bacteria that require special media for cultivation, and charcoal yeast extract medium is commonly used for their isolation.
The other options are incorrect:
- H. influenzae: While H. influenzae can cause respiratory infections, it typically grows on chocolate agar, not CYE. Additionally, dry cough is not a common symptom of H. influenzae infections.
- Moraxella catarrhalis: Similar to H. influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis also primarily grows on chocolate agar and rarely causes dry cough. Additionally, it usually presents with milder symptoms than Legionella.
- Burkholderia cepacia: This organism rarely causes pneumonia and typically requires different culture media for isolation.
- Which one of the following enteric organisms is anaerogenic and non motile ?
- Shigella sonnei
- Salmonella typhi
- Proteus mirabilis
- Klebsiella pneumonia
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Shigella sonnei
Shigella sonnei is the only enteric organism among the listed options that is both anaerogenic (doesn’t produce gas during fermentation) and non-motile (doesn’t have flagella for movement).
The other options are incorrect:
- Salmonella typhi: While Salmonella typhi can be non-motile in some strains, it is typically motile and also produces gas during fermentation.
- Proteus mirabilis: Proteus mirabilis is highly motile due to its peritrichous flagella and produces gas during fermentation.
- Klebsiella pneumoniae: Klebsiella pneumoniae is also motile due to its peritrichous flagella and produces gas during fermentation.
- The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is______________?
- Chlamydia trachomatis
- Donovania granulomatis
- Bartonella henselae
- Hemophilia ducreya
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Bartonella henselae
Bartonella henselae is the bacteria responsible for cat-scratch disease, which causes swollen lymph nodes, fever, and sometimes a bump at the scratch site. It’s transmitted through contact with cats, typically via scratches or bites.
The other options are incorrect:
- Chlamydia trachomatis: This bacteria causes trachoma (eye infection) and sexually transmitted infections, not cat-scratch disease.
- Donovania granulomatis: This bacteria causes granuloma inguinale, a sexually transmitted infection, not cat-scratch disease.
- Hemophilus ducreyi: This bacteria causes chancroid, a sexually transmitted infection, not cat-scratch disease.
- Erysipelas is caused by________________?
- Group B staphylococci
- Group A steptococci
- Gonococci
- Pneumococci
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Group A steptococci
Group A Streptococcus (GAS) is the primary culprit behind erysipelas, a superficial bacterial skin infection characterized by raised, fiery red, sharply demarcated patches often involving lymphatic vessels. GAS strains like Streptococcus pyogenes are frequently identified in facial erysipelas, while other, non-group A Streptococcus species may be implicated in leg infections.
The other options are incorrect:
- Group B Staphylococci (GBS): While GBS can cause skin infections in newborns and other vulnerable individuals, erysipelas isn’t typically among them.
- Gonococci: These bacteria primarily cause gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted infection, and rarely involve skin infections like erysipelas.
- Pneumococci: Streptococcus pneumoniae, while responsible for pneumonia and meningitis, does not typically cause erysipelas.
- Which of the following is obligate aerobe ?
- Pseudomonas aerogenosa
- coli
- Proteus
- diphtheria
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium known for its ubiquity in the environment and its resistance to various antibiotics. It’s an obligate aerobe, meaning it requires oxygen to survive and grow.
The other options are incorrect:
- Escherichia coli (coli): While E. coli is a facultative anaerobe, meaning it can grow with or without oxygen, it prefers anaerobic conditions when oxygen is limited.
- Proteus: Most Proteus species are also facultative anaerobes, able to switch between aerobic and anaerobic respiration depending on oxygen availability.
- Corynebacterium diphtheriae (diphtheria): This Gram-positive bacterium is a facultative anaerobe as well, capable of both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
- Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (SSS syndrome) is due to______________?
- Enterotoxin A
- Enterotoxin B
- Enterotoxin D
- Enterotoxin F
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Enterotoxin F
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is primarily associated with the production of toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1), which is a superantigen. The gene for TSST-1 is located on certain strains of Staphylococcus aureus, and it contributes to the development of toxic shock syndrome.
The other options are incorrect:
- Enterotoxin A: While enterotoxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus can cause food poisoning, Enterotoxin A is not specifically associated with toxic shock syndrome.
- Enterotoxin B: Enterotoxin B is associated with staphylococcal food poisoning but not with toxic shock syndrome.
- Enterotoxin D: Enterotoxin D is associated with staphylococcal food poisoning but is not the primary cause of toxic shock syndrome.
- A 6 year old boy comes with abdominal pain, vomiting after consuming mild products within 6 hours. The most likely organism responsible is______________?
- Staph. aureus
- Salmonella
- B.Cereus
- Clostridium botulinum
Answer and Explanation
Answer: B.Cereus
B. cereus is a common cause of food poisoning, and its symptoms typically appear within 6-12 hours of consuming contaminated food. The symptoms described in the question, abdominal pain and vomiting, are consistent with B. cereus food poisoning.
The other options are incorrect:
- Staph. aureus: can also cause food poisoning, but its symptoms typically appear 2-6 hours after consuming contaminated food.
- Salmonella: food poisoning typically has a longer incubation period of 12-72 hours.
- Clostridium botulinum: causes botulism, a rare and serious form of food poisoning that does not typically present with abdominal pain and vomiting.
- The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by____________?
- Transduction
- Translation
- Cell fusion
- Conjugation
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Conjugation
Conjugation: This involves direct cell-to-cell contact, where a donor cell transfers genetic material (a plasmid) to a recipient cell through a pilus (hair-like structure). It’s considered primitive because it doesn’t rely on complex cellular machinery or intermediaries like viruses.
The other options are incorrect:
- Transduction: This involves a virus carrying genetic material from one cell to another. While ancient, it requires the evolution of both viruses and the ability to integrate viral DNA into the host genome, making it less primitive than direct cell contact.
- Translation: This refers to the process of converting mRNA into protein within a cell. It’s not a mode of gene transfer, but rather the process of using the information encoded in genes.
- Cell fusion: While this can lead to gene transfer (e.g., in sexual reproduction), it requires complex cellular and membrane fusion mechanisms, making it less primitive than the simpler direct transfer of genetic material in conjugation.
- Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______________?
- E.coli
- Haemophilus
- Proteus
- Staphylococcus
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Proteus
Specifically, non-motile strains of Proteus (OX19, OX2, and OXK) share antigenic similarities with certain Rickettsiae species. This cross-reactivity forms the basis of the Weil-Felix test, used to diagnose rickettsial infections.
The other options are incorrect:
- E. coli: While E. coli is a common Gram-negative bacterium, it doesn’t share the specific antigens necessary for the Weil-Felix reaction.
- Haemophilus: Similar to E. coli, Haemophilus doesn’t possess the required antigens for cross-reactivity with Rickettsiae in the Weil-Felix test.
- Staphylococcus: Staphylococci are Gram-positive bacteria and lack the relevant antigens for the Weil-Felix reaction.
- A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT________________?
- Vancomycin
- Imipenem
- Teichoplanin
- Linezolid
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Imipenem
Imipenem is a beta-lactam antibiotic and is not typically used to treat Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infections. MRSA is resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics, including penicillins and cephalosporins. Therefore, imipenem, which is also a beta-lactam antibiotic, may not be effective against MRSA.
The other options are incorrect:
Vancomycin: Vancomycin is a commonly used antibiotic for treating MRSA infections. It is effective against a wide range of gram-positive bacteria.
Teicoplanin: Teicoplanin is another glycopeptide antibiotic similar to vancomycin and is effective against MRSA.
Linezolid: Linezolid is an oxazolidinone antibiotic and is effective against MRSA. It inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria and is commonly used for treating skin and soft tissue infections caused by MRSA.
- Culture medium used for Bordatella pertussis is_________________?
- Wilson Blair medium
- Bile broth
- Bordet Gengou medium
- Robertson cooked meat medium
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Bordet Gengou medium
Bordet Gengou (BG) agar or Bordet Gengou medium is the culture medium used for the isolation of Bordetella pertussis, the bacterium that causes whooping cough (pertussis). BG agar is a selective medium that provides the necessary nutrients for the growth of Bordetella pertussis.
The other options are incorrect:
- Wilson Blair medium: Wilson Blair medium is not specifically used for the isolation of Bordetella pertussis.
- Bile broth: Bile broth is typically used for the enrichment of enteric pathogens, and it is not the primary medium for isolating Bordetella pertussis.
- Robertson cooked meat medium: Robertson cooked meat medium is used for the cultivation of anaerobic bacteria and is not designed for the isolation of Bordetella pertussis.
- Pasteur developed the vaccine for_______________?
- Anthrax
- Rabies
- Cholera
- All of the above
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Rabies
While Louis Pasteur made significant contributions to the development of vaccines for multiple diseases, his most acclaimed and groundbreaking work was the creation of the rabies vaccine in 1885. This breakthrough marked a major milestone in preventive medicine and saved countless lives from the terrible, often fatal rabies virus.
The other options are incorrect:
- Anthrax: Pasteur did contribute to the development of a serum to treat anthrax in animals, but he did not create a dedicated vaccine for it. The first anthrax vaccine was developed by Robert Koch and others in the late 19th century.
- Cholera: Pasteur also achieved success in developing a vaccine for chicken cholera, a poultry disease, in 1879. However, his most recognized and impactful vaccine remains the one for rabies.
- All of the above: While Pasteur did contribute to advancements in vaccine development for these diseases, his primary and most impactful achievement was the rabies vaccine.
- Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of_________________?
- Gram positive bacteria
- Gram negative bacteria
- Yeast
- Protozoa
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Gram positive bacteria
Teichoic acids are anionic polymers, primarily found covalently linked to the peptidoglycan layer of the cell walls of Gram-positive bacteria. They contribute to various crucial functions like maintaining cell shape, regulating ion exchange, and interacting with the host immune system.
The other options are incorrect:
- Gram-negative bacteria: Unlike their Gram-positive counterparts, the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria contains lipopolysaccharides (LPS) instead of teichoic acids. LPS plays a similar role in maintaining cell envelope integrity and interacting with the environment.
- Yeast: Although cell walls of yeast are similar to those of Gram-positive bacteria in composition, they lack teichoic acids. Instead, they contain complex polysaccharides called mannans and glucans responsible for structure and protection.
- Protozoa: These single-celled eukaryotic organisms lack any type of cell wall. Their outer membrane is composed of a phospholipid bilayer, completely distinct from the cell wall structure of bacteria and yeast.
- Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?
- Tissue culture
- Chick embryos
- Artificial media
- Rabbit testis only
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Rabbit testis only
Currently, pathogenic treponemas, including the infamous T. pallidum responsible for syphilis, can only be maintained and propagated in vivo, specifically in the testes of rabbits. This unique challenge significantly hinders research on these bacteria and the development of effective vaccines or treatments.
The other options are incorrect:
- Tissue culture: While researchers have attempted to grow treponemas in various cell cultures, these efforts haven’t achieved sustained, long-term replication necessary for proper study.
- Chick embryos: Though treponemas can briefly survive in chick embryos, they don’t replicate effectively and eventually die off.
- Artificial media: Despite extensive research, no artificial medium has been developed that successfully replicates the complex conditions and nutrients required by treponemas for sustained growth.
- Borelia vincenti is a______________?
- Mycoplasma
- Mycobacteria
- Spirochaete
- Chlamydia
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Spirochaete
Borrelia vincentii is indeed a spirochaete, a type of bacteria characterized by its spiral shape and unique motility. It belongs to the genus Borrelia, which also includes other well-known species like Borrelia burgdorferi, the causative agent of Lyme disease.
The other options are incorrect:
- Mycoplasma: Mycoplasmas are the smallest bacteria known and lack a cell wall, unlike spirochaetes which have a complex cell wall structure. They are also generally not motile.
- Mycobacteria: Mycobacteria are another distinct group of bacteria known for their waxy cell walls and slow growth. They are not spiral-shaped and possess different motility mechanisms compared to spirochaetes.
- Chlamydia: Chlamydia are obligate intracellular bacteria, meaning they can only reproduce inside host cells. They are not motile and lack the typical spiral shape of spirochaetes.
- All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except______________?
- Gram staining
- Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital
- Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide
- Colony morphology on saliva agar
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Gram staining
While Gram staining can differentiate the broad category of Gram-positive bacteria (including streptococci) from Gram-negative bacteria, it cannot specifically distinguish Streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci. Both Streptococcus mutans and other oral streptococci are Gram-positive, meaning they retain crystal violet dye during the staining process and appear purple under a microscope.
The other options are incorrect:
- Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital: Not all Streptococcus mutans strains ferment these sugars, but most do, while many other oral streptococci do not. This test can, therefore, be a helpful indicator of S. mutans but is not conclusive.
- Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide: S. mutans has a unique ability to produce a specific type of sticky sugar called glucan, which forms biofilms and contributes to dental caries. This property can be used to distinguish it from some other oral streptococci.
- Colony morphology on saliva agar: S. mutans often grows in characteristic smooth, translucent colonies on saliva agar, while some other oral streptococci may have different colony appearances. This can be a helpful visual marker but is not always definitive.
- A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?
- Pasturella spp
- Francisella spp
- Bartonella spp
- Brucella spp
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Brucella spp
These Gram-negative, short bacilli are known to cause brucellosis, a zoonotic bacterial disease transmitted from animals to humans. They are oxidase-positive and can grow in special media used for fastidious organisms, which aligns with the provided details.
Incorrect Options:
- Pasteurella spp. While also Gram-negative short bacilli, Pasteurella spp. are generally oxidase-negative and rarely cause bacteremia in humans. They are more commonly associated with respiratory infections in animals.
- Francisella spp. These bacteria are also oxidase-negative and primarily cause tularemia, a disease mainly affecting rodents and occasionally transmitted to humans. They usually require specific media and procedures for isolation, differing from the presented scenario.
- Bartonella spp. These are Gram-negative, motile, and often curved bacilli. They are oxidase-negative and associated with various diseases like trench fever and cat scratch disease. Additionally, they are not typically recovered from blood cultures.
- Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by________________?
- Type of hemolysis
- Gram staining
- Growth characteristics
- Bile solubility
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Bile solubility
Pneumococcus (Streptococcus pneumoniae) can be differentiated from other streptococci by its sensitivity to bile solubility. Pneumococci are optochin-sensitive and undergo lysis in the presence of bile salts, which is a characteristic feature used for their identification.
The other options are incorrect:
- Type of hemolysis: Both pneumococci and some streptococci can exhibit α-hemolysis (partial red blood cell lysis) or β-hemolysis (complete red blood cell lysis) on blood agar plates. This characteristic alone is not sufficient for definitive differentiation.
- Gram staining: Both pneumococci and streptococci are Gram-positive, meaning they stain purple under a microscope. This test can only distinguish them from Gram-negative bacteria.
- Growth characteristics: While pneumococci often have specific growth requirements and colony morphology on certain media, these features can vary and overlap with some streptococcal species, making them less reliable for definitive identification.
- Streptococcus is classified based on__________________?
- M Protein
- Cultural characteristics
- Bile Solubility
- Cell wall carbohydrate
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Cell wall carbohydrate
Streptococcus is classified based on the cell wall carbohydrate composition. The Lancefield classification system divides streptococci into groups (Groups A to T) based on the antigenic properties of specific carbohydrates found in their cell walls. This classification helps in identifying and categorizing different streptococcal species.
The other options are incorrect:
- M Protein: While M protein is an important virulence factor in some streptococcal species, it doesn’t serve as the basis for their classification. In fact, within a single Lancefield group, there can be diverse M protein types.
- Cultural characteristics: Although the growth requirements and behavior on different media can provide additional information about streptococci, they aren’t consistent enough across species to form a reliable classification system.
- Bile solubility: This test, while useful for differentiating pneumococci from other streptococci, cannot distinguish between different streptococcal groups within the Lancefield classification system.
- Leprosy bacilli can be grown in_________________?
- Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
- Tail of guinea pig
- Testes of albino rats
- Testes of guinea pig
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
The preferred method for cultivating Mycobacterium leprae, the bacterium responsible for leprosy, is in the footpad on the nine-banded armadillo. Armadillos have been found to be susceptible to M. leprae infection, and the bacilli can be grown in their footpads.
The other options are incorrect:
- Tail of guinea pig: While guinea pigs have been used historically for leprosy research, their susceptibility to Mycobacterium leprae is variable and inconsistent. They are not considered a reliable model for culturing the bacteria.
- Testes of albino rats: Albino rats are not susceptible to Mycobacterium leprae and cannot support its growth. They are used for other types of research, but not for leprosy.
- Testes of guinea pig: While guinea pigs, as mentioned earlier, are not a reliable model for culturing Mycobacterium leprae, their testes are not specifically used for this purpose.
- Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with_______________?
- Ziel Nelson
- Kin Young stain
- Auramine-Rhodamine stain
- Giemsa stain
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Auramine-Rhodamine stain
The rapid diagnosis of tuberculosis can be achieved using the Auramine-Rhodamine stain. This fluorescent staining technique allows for the visualization of acid-fast bacilli (including Mycobacterium tuberculosis) under a fluorescence microscope. It is a quick method for detecting the presence of mycobacteria in clinical specimens.
The other options are incorrect:
- Ziel Nelson: While also used for acid-fast bacilli (AFB) detection like M. tuberculosis, it has lower sensitivity and fluorescence microscopy offers faster results.
- Kin Young stain: This is a variation of Ziehl-Neelsen stain and not specifically used for TB diagnosis.
- Giemsa stain: Primarily used for identifying other types of bacteria and parasites, not M. tuberculosis.
- Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries_______________?
- M. leprae
- M. avium intracellulare
- M. tuberculosis
- Kansasi
Answer and Explanation
Answer: M. tuberculosis
M. tuberculosis is the most prevalent mycobacterial infection in tropical countries, primarily causing tuberculosis (TB) – a highly contagious disease affecting the lungs. This prevalence is fueled by factors like poverty, overcrowding, and malnutrition, common in many tropical regions.
The other options are incorrect:
- M. leprae: While present in tropical areas, M. leprae causes leprosy, a chronic infection mainly affecting the skin and nerves. It’s significantly less common compared to TB.
- M. avium intracellulare: This mycobacterium is linked to opportunistic infections in individuals with weakened immunity (e.g., HIV/AIDS). It’s not a typical TB cause in healthy individuals.
- Kansasi: This rare type of TB is caused by Mycobacterium Kansasii and primarily found in the United States. Its occurrence is much lower than M. tuberculosis-induced TB.
- Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_________________?
- Theta toxin
- Lecithinase
- Desmolase
- Cytokinin
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Lecithinase
The opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is primarily due to the action of lecithinase, also known as alpha-toxin. Lecithinase is an enzyme produced by C. perfringens, and it hydrolyzes lecithin (phosphatidylcholine), causing the release of fatty acids and resulting in the opaque appearance around bacterial colonies.
The other options are incorrect:
- Theta toxin: While C. perfringens produces several toxins, Theta toxin primarily affects the nervous system and isn’t involved in colony appearance.
- Desmolase: This enzyme is mainly associated with Clostridium tetani and doesn’t play a role in the opacity of C. perfringens colonies.
- Cytokinin: This plant hormone is not produced by bacteria and therefore isn’t relevant to bacterial colony characteristics.
- Causative organism for gas gangrene_______________?
- Clostridium tetani
- Clostridium welchii
- Coli
- Strep. Faecalis
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Clostridium welchii
Clostridium welchii, now known as Clostridium perfringens, is the primary causative organism for gas gangrene. It thrives in anaerobic environments and produces toxins that destroy tissue, creating the characteristic gas bubbles and rapid tissue death associated with gas gangrene.
The other options are incorrect:
- Clostridium tetani: This bacterium causes tetanus, which affects the nervous system and leads to muscle rigidity, but doesn’t involve tissue destruction and gas production like gas gangrene.
- Coli: This is a general term for the Escherichia coli (E. coli) bacteria, many of which are common commensals in the gut but some can cause various infections. However, E. coli is not typically associated with gas gangrene.
- Strep. Faecalis: This is a type of Streptococcus bacteria often found in the intestines. While it can cause some infections, it is not associated with gas gangrene.
- Rickettsiae__________________?
- Multiply within living cell
- Transmitted by arthropod vectors
- Respond to tetracycline therapy
- All of the above
Answer and Explanation
Answer: All of the above
Rickettsiae are unique organisms with characteristics from both bacteria and viruses. Here’s why all the options are correct:
- Multiply within living cell: Rickettsiae are obligate intracellular bacteria, meaning they can only reproduce inside the living cells of other organisms, typically humans or animals. They lack the necessary machinery to function independently outside a host cell.
- Transmitted by arthropod vectors: Rickettsiae are not self-motile and rely on vectors for transmission. Ticks, lice, fleas, and mites are the primary carriers, transferring the bacteria to humans through bites or contact with their infected fluids.
- Respond to tetracycline therapy: Fortunately, rickettsial infections are treatable with antibiotics, particularly tetracyclines like doxycycline. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial to prevent complications.
- False +ve for VDRL is seen in______________?
- Yaws
- Lepromatous Leprosy
- Malaria
- All of the above
Answer and Explanation
Answer: All of the above
The VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) test is a non-specific test used to screen for syphilis. Unfortunately, it can lead to false positive results due to various factors unrelated to actual syphilis infection. The options you listed are some of the conditions that can cause a false positive VDRL.
- Yaws: This tropical bacterial infection caused by Treponema pallidum subnudum can cross-react with the VDRL test due to similarities in the bacteria.
- Lepromatous Leprosy: This type of leprosy, caused by Mycobacterium leprae, can trigger the production of antibodies that react with the VDRL test, leading to a false positive.
- Malaria: Certain infections with Plasmodium species, the parasite responsible for malaria, can interfere with the VDRL test and cause a false positive result.
- The diagnostic investigation for syphilis is__________________?
- TPI test
- VDRL test
- TPHA test
- FTAB test
- Both TPHA test & FTAB test
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Both TPHA test & FTAB test
While both TPHA and FTAB tests are crucial for syphilis diagnosis, each plays a specific role:
- TPHA test (Treponema pallidum Haemagglutination Assay): This is a highly specific treponemal test, meaning it directly detects antibodies against the Treponema pallidum bacterium, the causative agent of syphilis. It’s highly accurate and remains positive even after successful treatment.
- FTAB test (Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption Test): This is also a specific treponemal test, but it’s more sensitive than TPHA, particularly in early syphilis stages. It uses a fluorescent-labeled antibody to identify Treponema pallidum antibodies.
The other options are incorrect:
- TPI test (Treponema pallidum Immobilization Test): This is an older, less sensitive treponemal test than TPHA and FTAB and is rarely used today.
- VDRL test (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test): This is a non-treponemal test, meaning it detects antibodies produced in response to the damage caused by syphilis, not the bacteria itself. While VDRL is helpful for initial screening, it can be falsely positive due to other conditions. Therefore, it’s not sufficient for definitive diagnosis.
- Which organism causes prosthetic valve endocarditis within 60 days of surgery________________?
- Streptococcus Viridans
- Staphylococcus epidermis
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Fungus
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Staphylococcus epidermis
Prosthetic valve endocarditis occurring within 60 days of surgery is often associated with coagulase-negative staphylococci, particularly Staphylococcus epidermidis. These bacteria are commonly found on the skin and can cause infections related to implanted medical devices, such as prosthetic heart valves.
The other options are incorrect:
- Streptococcus Viridans: Streptococcus viridans are more commonly associated with subacute bacterial endocarditis rather than early-onset prosthetic valve endocarditis.
- Staphylococcus aureus: While Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of endocarditis, it is more often associated with native valve endocarditis and not specifically early-onset prosthetic valve endocarditis.
- Fungus: Fungal infections are less common causes of prosthetic valve endocarditis, and they usually do not present within the first 60 days post-surgery. Coagulase-negative staphylococci are more frequently implicated in early-onset cases.
- What is the transport medium for cholera___________________?
- Tellurite Medium
- Cary Blair Medium
- Venkatraman – Ramakrishnan Medium
- Cary Blair Medium & Venkatraman – Ramakrishnan Medium
Answer and Explanation
Answer: Cary Blair Medium & Venkatraman – Ramakrishnan Medium
While both Cary Blair Medium and Venkatraman – Ramakrishnan Medium can be used for transporting cholera specimens, the choice depends on various factors:
- Cary Blair Medium: This is the preferred and recommended medium by the World Health Organization (WHO) for transporting cholera stool samples. It provides optimal conditions for preserving Vibrio cholerae, the causative agent of cholera, for up to 48 hours. Its high pH, bile salts, and tellurite suppress competing bacteria while allowing Vibrio cholerae to grow.
- Venkatraman – Ramakrishnan Medium: This medium is also suitable for cholera transport, especially in resource-limited settings. It is simpler to prepare and uses readily available ingredients like sea salt and peptone. However, it may not suppress competing bacteria as effectively as Cary Blair Medium and might not be suitable for longer transport times.
The other options are incorrect:
- Tellurite Medium: While tellurite can inhibit some competing bacteria, it is not as effective as Cary Blair Medium and might not provide sufficient support for Vibrio cholerae survival.
- Cary Blair Medium only: This is a good choice if WHO recommendations and optimal conditions are available. However, Venkatraman – Ramakrishnan Medium can be a viable alternative in resource-constrained settings.
- Which of the following are non-spore forming anaerobic bacteria that asume major significance in disease processes________________?
- Bacteroides fragilis
- Fusobacterium nucleatum
- Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
- Actinomyces Israeli
- All of the above
Answer and Explanation
Answer: All of the above
All the listed bacteria belong to the non-spore forming anaerobic group and play significant roles in various disease processes:
- Bacteroides fragilis: This opportunistic pathogen frequently colonizes the human gut and is a leading cause of intra-abdominal abscesses, peritonitis, and bacteremia. Its antibiotic resistance poses a major challenge in treatment.
- Fusobacterium nucleatum: This oral anaerobe is implicated in periodontitis, abscesses, and lung infections. It has also been linked to some cancers, raising concerns about its potential role in tumorigenesis.
- Peptostreptococcus anaerobius: This anaerobe commonly resides in the female genital tract and can cause pelvic inflammatory disease, postpartum infections, and bacteremia.
- Actinomyces Israeli: While Actinomyces species can be saprophytic, A. Israeli specifically is a known human pathogen. It causes actinomycosis, a chronic granulomatous infection typically affecting the cervicofacial region, lungs, or abdomen.
The questions are typically designed to assess the technical skills and knowledge required for the laboratory profession, including the ability to analyze laboratory test results, perform laboratory procedures, and maintain laboratory equipment.
To prepare for these MCQs, candidates should have a thorough understanding of the key concepts and principles of laboratory science. They should also be familiar with common laboratory equipment and procedures, as well as laboratory safety protocols.
Candidates may also benefit from studying specific laboratory science textbooks or taking online courses that cover the material tested in the MCQs. Additionally, practicing sample MCQs and reviewing the answers can help candidates identify areas where they may need to improve their knowledge or skills.
Overall, the MCQs for lab technologists are designed to be challenging and comprehensive, requiring candidates to demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the field of laboratory science.
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