5000 Plus MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists are designed to test the knowledge and proficiency of laboratory professionals who work in the field of clinical laboratory science. These questions cover a wide range of topics related to laboratory science, including anatomy, physiology, microbiology, chemistry, and hematology.
3001 to 3050 MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologist Exam Preparation
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Questions 3001 to 3050
All are true about Bordetella pertussis except______?
- a) Most common cause is B. pertussis
- b) It may occur in children and young adult after vaccination
- c) Bacteria culture from nasopharyngeal swab is the definitive diagnosis
- d) Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
A full course of immunization against Tetanus with 3 doses of Tetanus toxoid confers immunity for how many years?
- a) 5
- b) 10
- c) 15
- d) 20
Salivary peroxidise system is known to be effective agianst______?
- a) Actinomyces viscosus
- b) Lactobacillus acidophilus
- c) Streptococcus mutans
- d) Veilonella parvula
About Pseudomonas. All are true except_____?
- a) Strick aerobes
- b) Can grow in disinfectants in hospital
- c) Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
- d) Most common organism is burn patient
Lepromin test is useful for_______?
- a) Diagnosis
- b) Prognosis
- c) Treatment plan
- d) Epidemiology
All are true about Widal test except_______?
- a) Base lines differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
- b) O antibodies last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
- c) H antigen cannot differentiate between subtypes
- d) High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative
Leptospirosis, all are true except_______?
- a) Faeces & urine of rodents is the cause
- b) Onset of IgM in 2 days
- c) Incubation period is 10 days
- d) It is sensitive to penicillin
Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to_______?
- a) Invasion
- b) Endotoxin
- c) Exotoxin
- d) Capsule
Following are the characteristics of Vincent’s angina EXCEPT______?
- a) Ulcerative gingivostomatitis
- b) Caused due to malnutrition
- c) A symbiotic infection
- d) Caused by leptospira interrogans
ASO (Antistreptolysin O) test is used for the diagnosis of______?
- a) Rheumatoid arthritis
- b) Typhoid fever
- c) Rheumatic fever
- d) Rickettsial fever
Group A carbohydrate of Streptococcus pyogenes cross reacts with human______?
- a) Synovial fluid
- b) Myocardium
- c) Cardiac valves
- d) Vascular intima
The most frequently encountered clostridia species in gas gangrene is_______?
- a) Clostridium botulinum
- b) Clostridium welchii
- c) Clostridium tetani
- d) Clostridium difficile
In small intestine, cholera toxin acts by_______?
- a) ADP – ribosylation of the G regulatory protein
- b) Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
- c) Activation of GTPase
- d) Active absorption of NaCl
Phospholipid used to investigate syphilis by the reagin test is______?
- a) Cardiolipin
- b) Plasminogen
- c) Palmityl lecithin
- d) Serine
Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the following features_____?
- a) Incubation period of 24 hours
- b) Requires immediate antibiotics
- c) Common with dairy products
- d) Heat labile enterotoxin
Fimbriae are demonstrated by __?
- a) Culture
- b) Gram stain
- c) Biochemical reaction
- d) Haemagglutination test
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is______?
- a) Transduction
- b) Translation
- c) Lysogeny
- d) Conjugation
cAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci?
- a) Group A
- b) Group B
- c) Group C
- d) Group D
Cough plate method is used to identify____?
- a) Y. pestis
- b) Pertussis
- c) Mycoplasma
- d) M-Tuberculosis
Test for differentiating virulent form non-virulent tubercular bacilli____?
- a) Aryl sulphatase test
- b) Niacin test
- c) Neutral red test
- d) Catalase peroxidase test
The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are_____?
- a) Gram positive organisms
- b) Gram negative organisms
- c) Mycoplasma
- d) Virus infections
Negative staining is used to demonstrate_______?
- a) Bacterial spore
- b) Bacterial Flagella
- c) Bacterial capsule
- d) Bacterial fimbriae
Borrelia vincenti is always associated with______?
- a) Spirochaetes
- b) Fusiform bacilli
- c) Treponema vincenti
- d) None of a, b and c Options
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except_____?
- a) Through plasmids
- b) Incorporating part of host DNA
- c) Through bacteriophages
- d) Through conjugation
All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except_____?
- a) Neisseria meningitides
- b) Salmonella typhi
- c) Streptococcus pyogenes
- d) Legionella pneumophila
Chlamydia causes all of the following except_______?
- a) Trachoma
- b) Non-gonococcal urethritis
- c) Pneumonia
- d) Parotitis
Lancefield’s classification of B hemolytic streptococcus is based on______?
- a) M Protein
- b) Polysaccharide C antigen
- c) Type of lipid in cell membrane
- d) Physiological properties
Leprosy bacilli are transmitted from person to person by all except_____?
- a) Discharge from nasal mucosa
- b) From open sore
- c) Through intact skin
- d) Through breast milk
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by____?
- a) Niacin test
- b) AFB staining
- c) PAS staining
- d) None of a, b and c Options
In T.B, cell mediated immunity is by_______?
- a) CD 4⁺
- b) CD 8⁺
- c) B – lymphocytes
- d) None of a, b and c Options
Nagglers reaction detects______?
- a) Coagulase
- b) Hyaluronidase
- c) Lecithinase
- d) None of a, b and c options
Drumstick appearance is seen in_______?
- a) Cl. tetani
- b) Cl. tetanomorphum
- c) Cl. sphenoids
- d) All a, b and c options
Q fever is caused by_____?
- a) Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
- b) R. prowozekii
- c) R. quintana
- d) C. burnetti
Actinomycetes is______?
- a) Gram positive bacteria
- b) Gram negative bacteria
- c) Fungus
- d) A yeast like form
True about VDRL test______?
- a) Non – Specific
- b) Slide flocculation test
- c) Best followed for drug therapy
- d) All a, b and c options
Staphylococcus does not causes_____?
- a) Osteomyelitis
- b) Abscess
- c) Scarlet fever
- d) Pneumonia
Vibrio cholera was discovered by______?
- a) Koch
- b) Medintoff
- c) John snow
- d) Virchow
Virulence of Gonococcus is due to______?
- a) Pili
- b) Cell Membrane
- c) Its intracellular location
- d) Cytolytic enzymes
Culture medium for Corynebacterium diphtheriae_______?
- a) Loeffler’s serum slope
- b) Mac Conkey
- c) Sabouraud agar
- d) Lowenstein Jensen Medium
Hump print appearance in culture film smear is seen______?
- a) Bacillus anthracis
- b) Brucella species
- c) Bordetella pertussis
- d) Clostridium weichii
Widal test is specific for____?
- a) Plague
- b) Leprosy
- c) Pemphigoid
- d) Typhoid
Granules in the Corynebacterium diphtheriae are called by following names, except_____?
- a) Metachromatic granules
- b) Refractile granules
- c) Babes Ernst granules
- d) Volutin granules
Tuberculin test screens for____?
- a) Humoral immunity
- b) Cell mediated immunity
- c) Complement function
- d) Phagocyte dysfunction
Which of the following have the capability to produce extracellular polysaccharides_____?
- a) Strep. Mutans
- b) Strep. pyogenes
- c) Peptostreptococcus
- d) Enterococcus
The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is____?
- a) Mannitol fermentation
- b) Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes
- c) Detection of coagulase
- d) The catalase test
Which of the following characteristics of bacteria is not true?
- a) Unicellular
- b) Free living
- c) Having either DNA or RNA
- d) Cell wall containing muramic acid
Salmonella typhi can be isolated at different times from______?
- a) Faeces
- b) Blood
- c) Urine
- d) All a, b and c Options
The temperature required for cultivating Mycobacterium_______?
- a) 2 degree
- b) 0 degree
- c) 27 degrees
- d) 37 degrees
Silver impregnation method of staining is useful to demonstrate_____?
- a) Bacterial flagella
- b) Spirochetes
- c) Both “Bacterial flagella” and “Spirochetes”
- d) None of “Bacterial flagella” and “Spirochetes”
Gram-negative bacteria stain during gram staining______?
- a) Blue color
- b) Red color
- c) Green
- d) Colorless
Answer Key Summary
The questions are typically designed to assess the technical skills and knowledge required for the laboratory profession, including the ability to analyze laboratory test results, perform laboratory procedures, and maintain laboratory equipment.
To prepare for these MCQs, candidates should have a thorough understanding of the key concepts and principles of laboratory science. They should also be familiar with common laboratory equipment and procedures, as well as laboratory safety protocols.
Candidates may also benefit from studying specific laboratory science textbooks or taking online courses that cover the material tested in the MCQs. Additionally, practicing sample MCQs and reviewing the answers can help candidates identify areas where they may need to improve their knowledge or skills.
Overall, the MCQs for lab technologists are designed to be challenging and comprehensive, requiring candidates to demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the field of laboratory science.
The answer to the question no 3003 is incorrect. The correct answer is Streptococcus mutans, not Lactobacillus acidophilus.
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