5000 Plus MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists are designed to test the knowledge and proficiency of laboratory professionals who work in the field of clinical laboratory science. These questions cover a wide range of topics related to laboratory science, including anatomy, physiology, microbiology, chemistry, and hematology.
401 to 450 MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologist Exam Preparation
If You like then share this to your friends and other social media.
If You have any question and suggestions then please Contact us Here
Questions 401 to 450
Which one of the following develops the blood bank?
- a) Sir Alexander Godefroy
- b) Sir Charles Richard Drew
- c) Sir John Biggins
- d) Sir Louis Braille
Formation of blood cell is called:
- a) Mitosis
- b) Hemopoiesis
- c) Photosynthesis
- d) Complement fixation
During blood donation, the removal of blood components is called:
- a) Cytophresis
- b) Plasmaphresis
- c) Aphresis
- d) Leakophresis
In Sickle cell anemia, red cell count is:
- a) Reduced
- b) Increased
- c) Normal
- d) None of (a, b, c & d) Options
Size of red blood cell is:
- a) 10 micro meter
- b) 7 micro meter
- c) 8 micro meter
- d) 2 micro meter
The minimum weight of blood donor should be:
- a) 45kg
- b) 50kg
- c) 55kg
- d) 60kg
The lower limit of Hb in female blood donor is:
- a) 10 gm/dl
- b) 12 gm/dl
- c) 13 gm/dl
- d) 14 gm/dl
The disease cannot be transmitted through transfusion of blood is:
- a) Hepatitis B
- b) AIDS
- c) Cancer
- d) Malaria
Red blood cells can be frozen and stored up to:
- a) 3 years
- b) 5 years
- c) 7 years
- d) 8 years
500ml whole blood contains plasma approximately:
- a) 100 to 150ml
- b) 200 to 250ml
- c) 300 to 350ml
- d) 350 to 400ml
Immunological reactions of Blood transfusion include all except:
- a) Allergic
- b) Anaphylactic
- c) Leak agglutinin
- d) Circulatory overload
Primary reaction of Ag-Ab interaction is:
- a) Invisible
- b) Visible
- c) pH dependent
- d) No reaction
The conditions in which Bleeding time does not become prolonged is:
- a) Deficiency of vitamin K
- b) Hemophilia
- c) Thrombocytopenia
- d) Afibrinoginemia
Clotting time has normal value of:
- a) 2 to 8 min
- b) 3 to 6 min
- c) 4 to 5 min
- d) 6 to 8 min
The common Blood group among these is:
- a) AB-Negative
- b) B-Positive
- c) A-Negative
- d) AB-Positive
Donation of blood can cause:
- a) Malaria
- b) AIDS
- c) Hepatitis
- d) No disease
Whole blood is contraindicated except in:
- a) Chronic anemia
- b) Thrombocytopenia
- c) Exchange transfusion
- d) Incipient Cardiac failure
In embryonic life, the blood cell development stage is:
- a) Hepatic stage
- b) Mesoblastic stage
- c) Myeloid stage
- d) Mature stage
All coagulation factors are stable at low freezing point except:
- a) Factors V & VIII
- b) Factors IX & X
- c) Factors IV & V
- d) Factors II
The normal platelet count in adult is:
- a) 100,000 to 300,000 mm³
- b) 150,000 to 250,000 mm³
- c) 150,000–450,000 mm³
- d) 200,000–300,000 mm³
In Blood, lack of intrinsic factors causes:
- a) Sickle cell anemia
- b) Pernicious anemia
- c) Target cell anemia
- d) Iron deficiency anemia
MC blood transfusion reaction is:
- a) Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction
- b) Hemolysis
- c) Transmission of infections
- d) Electrolyte imbalance
All of the following infections may be transmitted via blood transfusion, except:
- a) Parvo B-19
- b) Dengue virus
- c) Hepatitis G
- d) Cytomegalovirus
Which of the following is the least likely complication after massive blood transfusion?
- a) Hyperkalemia
- b) Citrate toxicity
- c) Hypothermia
- d) Metabolic acidosis
Fresh whole blood transfusion is done within how much time of collection?
- a) Immediately
- b) 1 hour
- c) 4 hours
- d) 24 hours
Which of the following investigations should be done immediately to best confirm a non-matched blood transfusion reaction?
- a) Indirect Coomb’s test
- b) Direct Coomb’s test
- c) Antibody in patient’s serum
- d) Antibody in donor serum
Blood components/products are:
- a) Whole blood
- b) Platelets
- c) Fresh frozen plasma
- d) Leukocyte reduced RBC
- e) All (a, b, c & d) Options
One unit of fresh blood raises the Hb% concentration by:
- a) 0.1 gm%
- b) 1 gm%
- c) 2 gm%
- d) 2.2 gm%
Which of the following statements about acute hemolytic blood transfusion reaction is true?
- a) Complement mediated hemolysis is seen
- b) Type III hypersensitivity is responsible for most cases
- c) Rarely life threatening
- d) Renal blood flow is always maintained
- e) No need for stopping transfusion
True about blood transfusions:
- a) Antigen ‘D’ determines Rh positivity
- b) Febrile reaction is due to HLA antigens
- c) Anti-D is naturally occurring antibody
- d) Cryoprecipitate contains all coagulation factors
Which of the following is a better indicator of need for transfusion?
- a) Urine output
- b) Hematocrit
- c) Colour of skin
- d) Clinical examination
Massive blood transfusion is defined as:
- a) 350 ml in 5 min
- b) 500 ml in 5 min
- c) 1 litre in 5 min
- d) Whole blood volume
How long can blood be stored with CPDA?
- a) 12 days
- b) 21 days
- c) 35 days
- d) 48 days
Massive transfusion in a previously healthy adult male can cause hemorrhage due to:
- a) Increased t-PA
- b) Dilutional thrombocytopenia
- c) Vitamin K deficiency
- d) Decreased Fibrinogen
Arterial blood gas analysis in a bottle containing heparin causes a decrease in value of:
- a) pCO2
- b) HCO3
- c) pH
- d) All (a, b, c & d) Options
Massive blood transfusion is defined as:
- a) Whole blood volume in 24 hours
- b) Half blood volume in 24 hours
- c) 40% blood volume in 24 hours
- d) 60% blood volume in 24 hours
After blood transfusion, the febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR) occurs due to:
- a) Alloimmunization
- b) Antibodies against donor leukocytes and HLA Ag
- c) Allergic reaction
- d) Anaphylaxis
Blood grouping and cross-matching is must prior to infusion of:
- a) Gelatin
- b) Dextran
- c) Albumin
- d) FFP
Blood grouping and cross-matching is must prior to infusion of:
- a) Gelatin
- b) Albumin
- c) Dextran
- d) Hemaceal
Collection of blood for cross-matching and grouping is done before administration of which plasma expander?
- a) Hydroxyl ethyl starch
- b) Dextran
- c) Mannitol
- d) Hemacele
Mismatched blood transfusion in anesthetic patient presents as:
- a) Hyperthermia and hypertension
- b) Hypotension and bleeding from site of wound
- c) Bradycardia and hypertension
- d) Tachycardia and hypertension
What is Anticoagulant?
- a) Liquids which stop Bleeding
- b) Chemical which prevent bleeding
- c) Salt that allow Blood to clot
- d) All (a, b & c) options
- e) None of (a, b & c) options
Most common chemical that is used as blood bank anticoagulant?
- a) EDTA
- b) Heparin
- c) Tri-Sodium Citrate
- d) Double Oxalate
Advantage of blood donation to donor:
- a) Free health check-up
- b) Reduce iron in body
- c) Decrease heart disease
- d) All (a, b & c) options
Before 24 hours, which type of donor should avoid donation?
- a) Person who drank Alcohol
- b) Dental Extraction Patient
- c) Menstrual bleeding women
- d) All (a, b & c) options
Which needle is used for blood donation?
- a) 21g
- b) 10g
- c) 16g
- d) 23g
Which of the following is NOT tested as a transfusion-related infection in the blood bank?
- a) Hepatitis A
- b) Malaria
- c) AIDS
- d) HIV
450 ml of blood requires how much amount of anticoagulant?
- a) 49 ml
- b) 63 ml
- c) 50 ml
- d) 36 ml
RH Blood grouping discovered by?
- a) Karl Landsteiner + Weiner
- b) Weiner + Alexander Fleming
- c) Alexander Fleming
- d) Karl Landsteiner
RH Antigen is present on?
- a) Chromosome 19
- b) Chromosome 1
- c) Chromosome 9
- d) Chromosome 16
Answer Key Summary
The questions are typically designed to assess the technical skills and knowledge required for the laboratory profession, including the ability to analyze laboratory test results, perform laboratory procedures, and maintain laboratory equipment.
To prepare for these MCQs, candidates should have a thorough understanding of the key concepts and principles of laboratory science. They should also be familiar with common laboratory equipment and procedures, as well as laboratory safety protocols.
Candidates may also benefit from studying specific laboratory science textbooks or taking online courses that cover the material tested in the MCQs. Additionally, practicing sample MCQs and reviewing the answers can help candidates identify areas where they may need to improve their knowledge or skills.
Overall, the MCQs for lab technologists are designed to be challenging and comprehensive, requiring candidates to demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the field of laboratory science.
Kindly check the 423
The questions are very helpful