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MCQ’s Chapter 43 (Lab)

Some of Common Questions and Answers for Laboratory Technicians and Technologists.

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MCQs Chapter 43
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Questions 2101 to 2150

  1. Specific gravity of urine less than 1.010 indicates
    1. Diabetes millitus
    2. Diabetes insipidus
    3. Diabetic ketoacidosis
    4. None of the above
  2. ‘Glucose memory test’ is
    1. GCT
    2. HbA1c
    3. GTT
    4. PPBS
  3. Which of the following is not a renal function test ?
    1. Serum urea
    2. Serum creatinine
    3. Cystatin – C
    4. Total cholesterol
  4. Who is known as ‘father of microbiology’ ?
    1. Louis Pasteur
    2. Robert Koch
    3. Alexander Fleming
    4. Edward Jenner
  5. Serum electrolytes are analysed using
    1. Calorimeter
    2. Flamephotometer
    3. Spectrophotometer
    4. None of these
  6. Van-den-Bergh reaction is used to detect
    1. Serum creatinine
    2. Serum urea
    3. Serum bilirubin
    4. Blood glucose
  7. Cob-Web appearance of clot in CSF indicates
    1. Jaundice
    2. Haemorrhage
    3. Spinal constriction
    4. Tuberculous meningitis
  8. _ is otherwise known as ‘bad cholesterol’.
    1. LDL
    2. HDL
    3. VLDL
    4. Chylomicrons
  9. All the following are motile bacteria except
    1. E.Coli
    2. Klebsiella
    3. Vibrio
    4. Proteus
  10. Oils and grease can be sterilised using
    1. autoclave
    2. vaccine bath
    3. hot air oven
    4. none of these
  11. Solidifying agent of a culture media is
    1. peptone
    2. meat extract
    3. Sodium chloride
    4. agar
  12. __ is added to Mac Conkeys agar to inhibit the growth of gram positive bacteria.
    1. Bile salt
    2. Peptone
    3. Neutral red
    4. Agar
  13. All the following are examples of transport media except
    1. VR medium
    2. Thioglycollate medium
    3. Stuarts medium
    4. Amies medium
  14. Which of the following tests come under IMViC tests ?
    1. Coagulase test
    2. Catalase test
    3. Citrate utilisation test
    4. None of above
  15. The type of immunoglobulin which provides local immunity is
    1. IgM
    2. IgD
    3. IgG
    4. IgA
  16. Confirmatory tests for AIDs is
    1. Western blot
    2. Southern blot
    3. ELISA
    4. CLIA
  17. The bacteria which require ‘X’ and ‘V’ factors for its growth is
    1. staphylococcus
    2. haemophilus
    3. brucella
    4. salmonella
  18. RPR and VDRL tests are done for the diagnosis of
    1. AIDs
    2. Hepatitis
    3. Syphilis
    4. Malaria
  19. All the following are examples of blood parasites except
    1. Plasmodium
    2. Brugia malayi
    3. Leishmania
    4. Giardia lamblia
  20. The fixative used for blood containing specimen is
    1. Carnoy’s fluid
    2. 95% ethyl alcohol
    3. 10% formalin
    4. Zenker’s fluid
  21. Staining technique for assessment of hormonal status is
    1. Pap stain
    2. Shorrs stain
    3. H & E stain
    4. JSB stain
  22. The ‘word’ which refers to the ‘closeness of a result on repeated analysis’ is
    1. accuracy
    2. Sensitivity
    3. precision
    4. specificity
  23. ‘Mycology’ means the study of
    1. bacteria
    1. immunity
    2. parasites
    3. fungus
  24. Infections induced by a ‘physician’ is known as
    1. iatrogenic
    2. nosocomial
    3. congenital
    4. subclinical
  25. The enzyme estimation done for the diagnosis of pancreatitis
    1. acid phosphatase
    2. amylase
    3. alkaline phosphatase
    4. creatinine kinase
  26. The basic component of Leishman’s stain is
    1. cosin
    2. malachite green
    3. methelene blue
    4. none of the above
  27. Name the blood cells increased in asthma
    1. basophil
    2. neutrophil
    3. lymphocyte
    4. cosinophil
  28. Intermediate host of plasmodium is
    1. man
    2. female anopheles mosquito
    3. male anopheles mosquito
    4. none of the above
  29. Which of the following is a Romanowsky stain
    1. Leishmans stain
    2. Giemsas stain
    3. Jenners stain
    4. All the above
  30. In wintrobes mixture, ammonium oxalate and potassium oxalate is mixed in the ratio
    1. 2 : 3
    2. 3 : 2
    3. 1 : 4
    4. 2 : 1
  31. The anticoagulant used in OFT is
    1. EDTA
    2. Citrate
    3. Heparin
    4. Sodium flouride-potassium oxalate mixture
  32. The bacteria showing swarming growth is
    1. E.coli
    2. Salmonella
    3. Proteus
    4. All the above
  33. To remove blood clots from blood pipette, it is immersed in
    1. KOH
    2. NH_4OH
    3. INHCl
    4. 3% acetic acid
  34. Incomplete antibodies are detected using
    1. Electrophoresis
    2. Coombs test
    3. Agglutination test
    4. VDRL test
  35. Causes spurious decrease in MCV
    1. Cryofibrinogen
    2. hyperglycemia
    3. autoaggutination
    4. high WBC ct
    5. reduced red cell deformability
  36. When the entire CBC is suppressed due to either anemia,infection, or hemorrhage is called?
    1. Erythroplasia
    2. Thrombocytopenia
    3. Pancytopenia
    4. Leukopenia
  37. Total RBC count for Women is?
    1. 4.4-6
    2. 4.2-5
    3. 4.0-5.0
    4. 4.2-5.2
  38. Total RBC for men?
    1. 4.0-5.0
    2. 4.6-6.0
    3. 4.2-6.5
    4. 4.0-6.0
  39. What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body?
    1. Hemosiderin
    2. Ferritin
    3. Transferrin
    4. Hemoglobin
  40. The best source of active bone marrow from a 20-year old would be:
    1. Iliac Crest (hip)
    2. Femur (thigh)
    3. Distal radius (forearm)
    4. Tibia (shin)
  41. Laboratory Studies: Red Cell Indices: Determination of relative size of RBC. 82-98 f1
    1. MCH
    2. MCV
    3. MCHC
    4. PCV
  42. Laboratory Studies: Red Cell Indices: Measurement of average weight of Hb/RBC. 27-33 pg
    1. MCH
    2. MCV
    3. MCHC
    4. PCV
  43. Laboratory Studies: Red Cell Indices Evaluation of RBC saturation with Hb. 32-36%
    1. MCV
    2. MCH
    3. MCHC
    4. PCV
  44. There are 3 classifications of Anemia. What are they?
    1. In adequate production of Hb
    2. Decreased RBC production
    3. Increased Erythrocyte destruction
    4. Blood loss
  45. What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body?
    1. Hemosiderin
    2. Ferritin
    3. Transferrin
    4. Hemoglobin
  46. Folic acid therapy can cause sickle cell anemia
    1. True
    2. False
    3. Both
    4. none
  47. Hydroxyurea increases hemoglobin production and decreases reticulocyte cells.
    1. True
    2. False
    3. Both
    4. none
  48. Hydroxyurea:
    1. decreases nitric oxide
    2. increases neutrophil and monocytes
    3. inhibits DNA synthesis by acting as aribonucleotide reductase inhibitor
    4. none
  49. Hydroxyurea icreases thhe serum uric acid levels.
    1. True
    2. False
    3. Both
    4. none
  50. Decitabine increases the fetal hemoglobin production by inducing methylation of DNA and thus prevents the switch from gamma to beta-globin production.
    1. True
    2. False
    3. Both
    4. none

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