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5000 Plus MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists are designed to test the knowledge and proficiency of laboratory professionals who work in the field of clinical laboratory science. These questions cover a wide range of topics related to laboratory science, including anatomy, physiology, microbiology, chemistry, and hematology.

MCQs for Lab Technician

2051 to 2100 MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologist Exam Preparation

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Questions 2051 to 2100

Go to Mock Test Chapter 42
  1. Tuberculin test is an example of
    1. Type hypersensitivity
    2. Type Ilhypersensitivity
    3. Type Ill hypersensitivity
    4. Type IV hypersensitivity ✔
  2. Organism that has considerable resistance to antiseptics disinfectants and antibiotics
    1. E.coli ✔
    2. Pseudomonas
    3. Staphylococci
    4. Streptococci
  3. Endocarditis in a patient with colon cancer is caused by
    1. Staphylococcus epidermidis
    2. Streptococcus bovis ✔
    3. Streptococcus sanguis
    4. Streptococcus mutans
  4. Which is a lactose fermenter?
    1. Pseudomonas
    2. Salmonella
    3. Klebsiella ✔
    4. Shigella
  5. Rice water stool is associated with? DNB 2015
    1. Cholera ✔
    2. Bacillary dysentery
    3. Salmonella infection
    4. Pseudomembranous colitis
  6. Bacteria associated with dental caries
    1. Streptococcus mutans ✔
    2. Streptococcus pyogenes
    3. Streptococcus faecalis
    4. Streptococcus agalactiae
  7. Dose of human teanus Ig for post exposure prophylaxis
    1. 250-500 units ✔
    2. 500-750 units
    3. 750-1000 units
    4. 1000-1200 units
  8. Most important cause of traveler’s diarrhea is
    1. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli ✔
    2. Enteroinvasive E.coli
    3. Enterohemorrhagic E.coli
    4. Enteropathogenic E.coli
  9. Smallest virus is:
    1. Pox virus
    2. Herpes virus
    3. Parvo virus ✔
    4. Adeno virus
  10. incubation period of measles
    1. 1-2 days
    2. 3-6 days
    3. 1-7 days
    4. 9 – 11 days ✔
  1. Dengue is caused by
    1. Alphavirus
    2. Bunyavirus
    3. Flavivirus ✔
    4. Hantavirus
  2. Yellow fever is caused by
    1. Flavivirus ✔
    2. Alphavirus
    3. Calcivirus
    4. Bunyavirus
  3. Infective period of Aedes mosquitoes in dengue
    1. 1-2 days
    2. 8-10 days
    3. Till next bite
    4. Till death ✔
  4. Scrub typhus is transmitted by:
    1. Louse
    2. Trombiculid mite ✔
    3. Rat fles
    4. Soft tick
  5. Tinea pedis is casued by
    1. E floccosum
    2. T rubrum
    3. Microsporum ✔
    4. T schoenleinii
  6. Tenia pedia is seen among
    1. People of cold countries
    2. Those wearings socks and shoes ✔
    3. Those walking barefoot
    4. Hospitalized peope
  7. Chances of perinatal HIV infectin to the baby
    1. 0.5-1%
    2. 30% ✔
    3. 50%
    4. 90%
  8. VDRL is used in the diagnosis of
    1. Syphilis ✔
    2. HIV
    3. Typhoid
    4. Tuberculosis
  9. Incubation period for primary syphilis
    1. 1-2 days
    2. 1-2 weeks
    3. 1 month ✔
    4. 3 months
  10. Jarisch-Harxheimer reaction is common in
    1. Congenital syphilis
    2. Primary syphilis
    3. Secondary syphilis ✔
    4. Tertiary syphilis
  11. Lyme disease is caused by
    1. Borrelia vincenti
    2. Borrelia burgdoferi ✔
    3. Borrelia recurrentis
    4. Leptospira interrogans
  12. SARS virus is a
    1. Coronavirus ✔
    2. Lentivirus
    3. Calcivirus
    4. Arenavirus
  13. Which one of the following agent can be used to malaria?
    1. Chloroquine ✔
    2. Albendazole
    3. Attenuated vaccine
    4. Chloramphenice
  14. Range of incubation period in typhoid
    1. 3-21 days ✔
    2. 10- 30 Day
    3. 1 – 3 months
    4. 3-6 months
  15. Route of administration of influenza vaccine
    1. Intradermal
    2. Subcutaneous
    3. Per oral
    4. intranasal ✔
  16. Incubation period for influenza pandemic H1N1
    1. 12-24 hours
    2. 1-3 days
    3. 1 – 7 days ✔
    4. 5-10 day
  17. Incubation period of mumps
    1. 1-7 days
    2. 7-14 days
    3. 12-24 days ✔
    4. 21-28 days
  18. Usual dose of purified protein derivative in Mantoux testis
    1. 5 IU ✔
    2. 50 IU
    3. 100 IU
    4. 500IU
  19. Corneal beading is a complication of
    1. Leprosy ✔
    2. AIDS
    3. Herpes simplex keratitis
    4. Acanthamoeba keratitis
  20. Most common site of extrathoracic TB in children
    1. Lymph node ✔
    2. Skeleton
    3. Central nervous system
    4. Heart
  1. Mantoux +ve is induration measuring
    1. 10mm ✔
    2. 6-9mm
    3. <5mm
    4. 20mm
  2. The botulism intoxication occurs due to
    1. An endotoxin
    2. An exotoxin
    3. Neurotoxin ✔
    4. Mycotoxin
  3. Aorta arises from
    1. Right atrium
    2. Left atrium
    3. Right ventricle
    4. Left ventricle ✔
  4. The protein portion of the enzyme is
    1. Apoenzyme ✔
    2. Prosthetic group
    3. Co-factor
    4. Coenzyme
  5. Which of the following cells is not a WBC ?
    1. Neutrophil
    2. Basophil
    3. Manocyte
    4. Thrombocyte ✔
  6. The colouring agent used in antisera AB is
    1. Methelene blue
    2. Acriflavin
    3. Eosin ✔
    4. Safranin
  7. Name the anticoagulant present in purple coloured vacutainer tube
    1. Heparin
    2. EDTA ✔
    3. Sodium citrate
    4. None of these
  8. pH of buffered distilled water used in Leishman’s staining is
    1. 6.8 ✔
    2. 7.2
    3. 7.4
    4. 8
  9. Blood collected in CPD-A can be stored in blood bank refrigerator for __ days.
    1. 35 ✔
    2. 28
    3. 21
    4. 25
  10. HDN due to Rh incompatibility can be prevented by giving anti-D antibody to Rh negative mother within __ hours of delivery of positive infant.
    1. 48 hrs
    2. 72 hrs ✔
    3. 24 hrs
    4. 36 hrs
  11. Which of the following is not an RBC diluting fluid ?
    1. Normal saline
    2. Dacies fluid
    3. Turkes fluid ✔
    4. Toissons fluid
  12. During donor screening persons having history of malaria should be avoided for a period of ___ years.
    1. 1 week
    2. 2 years
    3. 1 year
    4. 3 years ✔
  13. Bombay blood group persons have _ antigen in their blood.
    1. A Ag
    2. B Ag
    3. h Ag ✔
    4. H Ag
  14. Depth of improved neubauer counting chamber is
    1. 0.1 mm ✔
    2. .01 mm
    3. .001 mm
    4. 1 mm
  15. Name the enzyme estimation done in semen sample to analyse the secretory function of prostate
    1. alanine transaminase
    2. asparte transaminase
    3. acid phosphatase ✔
    4. alkaline phasphatase
  16. The only cell in normal CSF is
    1. Neutrophil
    2. Lymphocyte ✔
    3. Manocyte
    4. None of these
  17. Name the tests used to detect bile salt in urine.
    1. Benzidine test
    2. Fouchet’s test
    3. Ehrlich’s test
    4. Hays test ✔
  18. Ketone bodies in urine are
    1. acetone
    2. beta` hydroxy butyric acid
    3. Both 1 and 2 ✔
    4. None of these
  19. Normal sperm count is
    1. 80 – 160 millions / ml ✔
    2. 40 – 80 millions / ml
    3. 100 – 120 millions / ml
    4. 140 – 200 millions / ml
  20. Name the hormone detected in pregnancy.
    1. ADH
    2. GH
    3. TSH
    4. hCG ✔
Go to Mock Test Chapter 42
<< Chapter 41
Chapter 43 >>

The questions are typically designed to assess the technical skills and knowledge required for the laboratory profession, including the ability to analyze laboratory test results, perform laboratory procedures, and maintain laboratory equipment.

To prepare for these MCQs, candidates should have a thorough understanding of the key concepts and principles of laboratory science. They should also be familiar with common laboratory equipment and procedures, as well as laboratory safety protocols.

Candidates may also benefit from studying specific laboratory science textbooks or taking online courses that cover the material tested in the MCQs. Additionally, practicing sample MCQs and reviewing the answers can help candidates identify areas where they may need to improve their knowledge or skills.

Overall, the MCQs for lab technologists are designed to be challenging and comprehensive, requiring candidates to demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the field of laboratory science.

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