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MCQ’s Chapter 15 (Lab)

Some of Common Questions and Answers for Laboratory Technicians and Technologists.

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Questions 701 to 750

  1. Which of the following parasite has no cystic stage ?
    • Giardia lamblia
    • Balantidium coli
    • Trichomonas vaginalis
    • E.histolytica
  2. Multiple mng forms are seen in which type of malaria ?
    • Plasmodium malariae
    • Plasmodium vivax
    • Plasmodium falciparum
    • Plasmodium ovale
  3. LD bodies are seen in the Reticulo endothelial system of
    • Human
    • Ruduvid bug
    • Tsetse fly
    • Sand fly
  4. Which of the following parasitic ova is not bile stained ? (38-3)
    • Ascaris lumbricoides
    • Ancylostoma duodenale
    • Tnchuris triichura
    • Tinea saginata
  5. The causative agent of “Colabar swelling”
    • W. bancrofti
    • Brugia malayi
    • Loaloa
    • Oncocercus volvulus
  6. Night blood sample is collected for the diagnosis of
    • Malaria
    • Filaria
    • Trypanosoma
    • Leishmania
  7. Casoni’s test is used for the diagnosis of
    • Hydatid disease
    • Leishmaniasis
    • Malana
    • Filaria
  8. Which one of the parasitic ova seen in urine ?
    • Schistosoma haematobium
    • Fasciola hepatica
    • Paragonimus westermami
    • Clonorchius sinensis
  9. The ratio of anti-coagulant and blood used for ESR test is
    • 1:2
    • 1:4
    • 1:8
    • 1:16
  10. Normal value of haemoglobin for an adult
    • 4-6gm%
    • 6-8 gm%
    • 8-10gm%
    • 12-15 gm%
  1. Normal platelet count is
    • 4-5 muillion/emm
    • 4000 -—11000/cmm
    • 1.5 -3.5 lakhs/emm
    • 200/cmm
  2. Glass wares containing organic matter are treated with
    • 5% HCl
    • 2% detergent
    • 2% phenol
    • Potassium dichromate
  3. Which of the following is not a Romanowsky stain ?
    • Leishman stain
    • Wright stain
    • Giemsa stain
    • Grams stain
  4. The main site of haemopoesis takes place in
    • Liver
    • Spleen
    • Bone marrow
    • Lymphoid tissue
  5. Which of the following condition, the RBCs are microcytic & hypochromic
    • Pernicious anaemia
    • Haemolytic anaemia
    • Iron deficiency anaemia
    • Megaloblastic anaemia
  6. Eosinophilia seen in (A) Allergic conditions
    • Parasitic infections
    • Hodgkin’s lymphoma
    • All the above
  7. LE cells are not seen in the following condition :
    • Infectious mononucleosis
    • Systemic lupus erythematosus
    • Rheumatoid arthritis
    • Collagen disorders
  8. Which of the following condition shows Bence-Jones protein in urine ?
    • Acute myeloid Leukemia
    • Malignant lymphoma
    • Multiple myeloma
    • Chronic myeloid Leukemia
  9. APTT increased in the following condition :
    • Haemophilia
    • Vitamin K deficiency
    • Liver diseases
    • All the above
  10. ABO grouping discovered by
    • Robert Koch
    • Karl Landsteiner
    • Paul Ehrlich
    • Antony Van Levenhoek
  11. Ina blood bank CPD anti-coagulated blood can be stored at 2 — 8 degree celcius for
    • 2 days
    • 14 days
    • 28 days
    • 45 days
  12. CSF protein fractions are evaluated by
    • Colloidal gold test
    • Pandy’s test
    • Rose Jone’s test
    • Protein Electrophorosis
  13. In pregnancy, the peak level of HCG in urine seen at
    • 4 weeks of gestation
    • 6 weeks of gestation
    • 10 weeks of gestation
    • 14 weeks of gestation
  14. Cushing syndrome is due to
    • excess production of thyroid hormone
    • excess production of Glucocorticoides
    • excess production of FSH
    • excess production of growth hormone
  15. In obstructive jaundice, which of the following serum enzyme level elevated
    • SGOT
    • SGPT
    • ALP
    • All the above
  16. Normal fasting blood glucose level is
    • 50-80 mg/dl
    • 70-110 mg/dl
    • 120-160 mg/dl
    • 180-220 mg/dl
  17. Serum uric acid level increased in
    • Gout
    • Renal failure
    • Addison’s disease
    • Rickets
  18. Which of the following elevated enzyme level is not a marker of myocardial infarction ?
    • SGOT
    • SGPT
    • LDH
    • Creatine kinase
  19. Increased level of PCO, seen in
    • (A) Hypoxia
    • Obstructive lung disease
    • Polycythemia
    • Anaemia
  20. TORCH infections are best analysed by
    • Capture ELISA
    • Competitive ELISA
    • Immuno capture ELISA
    • Streptavidin-Biotin ELISA
  1. The best diagnostic assay for infections and autoimmune disease parameters by
    • EIA
    • RIA
    • Fluorescence immuno assay
    • Chemluminescence assay
  2. Which of the following steps are included in a PCR cycle ?
    • Denaturation
    • Annealing
    • Extension
    • All the above
  3. Which of the following serological test is specific test for Syphilis ?
    • TPHA
    • RPR
    • TRUST
    • VDRL
  4. WIDAL test is for the serological diagnosis of
    • Enteric fever
    • Typhoid fever
    • Para typhoid fever
    • Brucellosis
  5. The vector which transmit Dengue fever
    • Culex mosquito
    • Anophilus mosquito
    • Aedes mosquito
    • Mansonia mosquito
  6. Which of the following is not a rapid diagnostic test ?
    • Dengue check WB
    • Leptockeck WB
    • PARA MAX-3
    • Brucel-RB
  7. Significant titre of ASO test by latex agglutination is
    • >200 IU/nl
    • <200 IU/ml
    • >10 IU/ml
    • <10IU/ml
  8. Route of transmission of Hepatitis A virus is by
    • Contaminated food and water
    • Blood transfusion
    • Sexual contact
    • Air
  9. Opportunistic infections associated with AIDS includes
    • Candidiasis
    • Cryptococcosis
    • Cryptosporidiosis
    • All the above
  10. Which of the following fixative contains picric acid ?
    • Bouin’s fluid
    • Carnoy’s fluid
    • Zenker’s flud
    • Lugol’s solution
  11. Ferozen sections are obtained from
    • Histokinate
    • Cryostat
    • Microtome
    • None of the above
  12. The stain used to detect gycogen by
    • Masson Fontana stain
    • Mucicarmine
    • PAS
    • Hand E stain
  13. The most common staining technique used in cytology is
    • Giemsa stain
    • Papani colaou stain
    • Hand E stain
    • Shorr’s stain
  14. Tubercle bacillae identified by
    • Robert Koch
    • Louis Pasteur
    • Edward Jenner
    • Joseph Lister
  15. Ziehl – Neelsen stain is used for demonstration of
    • Streptococci
    • Anthrax Bacilli
    • Mycobacteria
    • Spirochaetes
  16. Triple sugar iron agar contains
    • Glucose, Maltose, Sucrose
    • Glucose, Mannitol, Sucrose
    • Glucose, Lactose, Sucrose
    • Glucose, Lactose, Maltose
  17. Blood agar is
    • Enriched media
    • Enrichment media
    • Selective media
    • Differential media
  18. RCM is used for the primary cultivation of
    • Tubercle bacilli
    • Clostridium Perfringens
    • Vibrio cholerae
    • Haemophilus
  19. Which of the following sensitivity test is used to diagnose Group A Streptococci isolate
    • Novobiosin
    • Optochin
    • Bacitracin
    • Polymixin
  20. Elek’s test is used for the invitro toxigenicity of
    • Coryne bacteria diphthreriae
    • Haemophilus influenzae
    • Group B Streptococcus
    • Clostridium Perfringens

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