Master Renal Physiology and Disease States for your laboratory certification exam with our comprehensive collection of 62 multiple-choice questions (MCQs). Focused exclusively on Renal Physiology and Disease States in Urinalysis, these practice questions align with the latest syllabi of ASCP MLS, AMT MLT/MT, AIMS, CSMLS, IBMS, HAAD/DOH, DHA, and MOH exams. Each MCQ includes detailed explanations and references to reinforce key concepts. Sharpen your critical thinking, identify knowledge gaps, and build speed with exam-style questions—all for free. Ideal for targeted revision!
62 MCQs (1048-1109):
- What is the primary function of the glomerulus?
a) Reabsorption of glucose
b) Secretion of potassium
c) Filtration of plasma
d) Concentration of urine - Which structure in the nephron is responsible for active reabsorption of sodium and glucose?
a) Loop of Henle
b) Proximal convoluted tubule
c) Distal convoluted tubule
d) Collecting duct - What hormone increases water reabsorption in the collecting ducts?
a) Aldosterone
b) Renin
c) Erythropoietin
d) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) - Which part of the nephron is impermeable to water?
a) Descending loop of Henle
b) Proximal tubule
c) Ascending loop of Henle
d) Collecting duct - Which hormone promotes sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion in the distal tubules?
a) ADH
b) Aldosterone
c) Renin
d) Angiotensin II - What is the function of erythropoietin?
a) Stimulates sodium reabsorption
b) Promotes vasodilation
c) Regulates acid-base balance
d) Stimulates red blood cell production - Which of the following is most characteristic of nephrotic syndrome?
a) Hematuria and RBC casts
b) Proteinuria and oval fat bodies
c) Oliguria and granular casts
d) Bacteriuria and WBC casts - Which renal disease is most likely to show RBC casts in urine sediment?
a) Pyelonephritis
b) Nephrotic syndrome
c) Acute glomerulonephritis
d) Renal tubular necrosis - Which of the following is most associated with white blood cell casts?
a) Acute glomerulonephritis
b) Nephrotic syndrome
c) Cystitis
d) Pyelonephritis - Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause acute renal failure due to decreased perfusion?
a) Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
b) Congenital kidney malformation
c) Severe dehydration
d) Obstruction by kidney stones - What is the best indicator of renal concentrating ability?
a) Protein concentration
b) Glucose level
c) Specific gravity
d) Urobilinogen - Which of the following is most consistent with end-stage renal disease?
a) Normal creatinine levels
b) Broad waxy casts
c) Low specific gravity
d) Uric acid crystals - Which renal function is most affected in early diabetic nephropathy?
a) Acid-base balance
b) Plasma filtration
c) Tubular secretion
d) Glomerular permeability - Which glomerular disease is characterized by immune complex deposition and often follows a streptococcal infection?
a) Goodpasture syndrome
b) IgA nephropathy
c) Minimal change disease
d) Acute glomerulonephritis - What is the result of prolonged urinary tract obstruction?
a) Increased erythropoietin
b) Hydronephrosis
c) Nephrotic syndrome
d) Increased GFR - Which condition is most likely associated with massive proteinuria and lipiduria?
a) Pyelonephritis
b) Cystitis
c) Nephrotic syndrome
d) Acute tubular necrosis - Which of the following diseases results from anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies?
a) Nephrotic syndrome
b) Goodpasture syndrome
c) Lupus nephritis
d) Cystitis - A patient with lupus nephritis would most likely show which of the following findings?
a) WBC casts
b) Granular casts and proteinuria
c) Triple phosphate crystals
d) Calcium oxalate stones - Which part of the nephron is primarily responsible for acid-base regulation?
a) Glomerulus
b) Collecting duct
c) Loop of Henle
d) Distal convoluted tubule - Which test is most commonly used to assess glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
a) BUN
b) Serum creatinine
c) Creatinine clearance
d) Uric acid - Which of the following is the earliest sign of glomerular disease?
a) Glucosuria
b) Hematuria
c) Proteinuria
d) Decreased urine output - Which casts are most likely to be seen in acute tubular necrosis?
a) RBC casts
b) Waxy casts
c) RTE cell casts
d) Fatty casts - Which condition shows increased serum BUN and creatinine, low urine sodium, and high urine osmolality?
a) Acute tubular necrosis
b) Prerenal azotemia
c) Postrenal obstruction
d) Chronic kidney disease - Which disease is characterized by thickening of the glomerular basement membrane and associated with diabetes?
a) Membranous nephropathy
b) Amyloidosis
c) Diabetic nephropathy
d) Minimal change disease - A urine sample shows hematuria, proteinuria, and RBC casts. What is the most probable diagnosis?
a) Cystitis
b) Pyelonephritis
c) Glomerulonephritis
d) Nephrotic syndrome - Which condition shows the most consistent finding of WBCs and bacteria without casts?
a) Glomerulonephritis
b) Pyelonephritis
c) Cystitis
d) Acute tubular necrosis - In which condition would you find an abrupt onset of oliguria, azotemia, and active urinary sediment?
a) Acute renal failure
b) Chronic kidney disease
c) Nephrotic syndrome
d) Diabetes insipidus - Which lab finding is most helpful in distinguishing prerenal from renal causes of azotemia?
a) Urine ketones
b) Urine sodium concentration
c) Specific gravity
d) Glucose level - Which disease is marked by large protein losses with little hematuria and lipiduria?
a) Pyelonephritis
b) Cystitis
c) Nephrotic syndrome
d) Goodpasture syndrome - Renal tubular acidosis is primarily a defect in:
a) Water reabsorption
b) Glomerular filtration
c) Acid secretion and bicarbonate reabsorption
d) Sodium retention - Which condition often presents with polyuria, low specific gravity, and negative glucose in urine?
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Nephrotic syndrome
c) Diabetes insipidus
d) Cystitis - What is the typical plasma glucose concentration threshold at which glucose begins to appear in urine in healthy adults?
a) 50 mg/dL
b) 100 mg/dL
c) 160 mg/dL
d) 300 mg/dL - A patient excretes 300 mL of urine in 24 hours. This condition is termed:
a) Anuria
b) Oliguria
c) Polyuria
d) Dysuria - What is the average glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in healthy adults?
a) 10 mL/min
b) 120 mL/min
c) 660 mL/min
d) 1,200 mL/min - Uric acid crystals in urine sediment are most commonly associated with which condition?
a) Gout
b) Cystitis
c) Cystinuria
d) Glomerulonephritis - Which analyte is uniquely abundant in urine but absent in amniotic fluid?
a) Protein
b) Glucose
c) Bilirubin
d) Creatinine - Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) primarily regulates reabsorption of:
a) Water
b) Glucose
c) Calcium
d) Potassium - Damage to the glomerular membrane allows which substance to enter the filtrate?
a) Urea
b) Red blood cells
c) Glucose
d) Amino acids
- Polyuria is a hallmark symptom of:
a) Viral hepatitis
b) Tubular damage
c) Diabetes mellitus
d) Acute glomerulonephritis - Complete cessation of urine flow is called:
a) Anuria
b) Dysuria
c) Diuresis
d) Azotemia - Ketonuria indicates increased metabolism of:
a) Lipids
b) Proteins
c) Amino acids
d) Carbohydrates - Bilirubin in urine most likely results from:
a) Strenuous exercise
b) Platelet destruction
c) Hepatobiliary obstruction
d) Acute interstitial nephritis - Liver disease may cause which crystals to form in urine?
a) Cystine
b) Cholesterol
c) Bilirubin
d) Uric acid - In renal tubular acidosis, urine pH is typically:
a) Low (acidic)
b) High (alkaline)
c) Neutral
d) Variable - Glycosuria can result from:
a) Hypoglycemia
b) Renal tubular dysfunction
c) Increased glucose reabsorption
d) Elevated glomerular filtration rate - Which nephron segment is impermeable to water?
a) Proximal convoluted tubule
b) Descending loop of Henle
c) Ascending loop of Henle
d) Distal convoluted tubule - Urine concentration primarily occurs in:
a) Renal pelvis
b) Renal papillae
c) Cortical nephrons
d) Juxtamedullary nephrons - After a transfusion reaction, urine shows hemoglobinuria and renal tubular cells. This suggests:
a) Renal glucosuria
b) Renal tubular acidosis
c) Acute tubular necrosis
d) Acute interstitial nephritis - Failure of renal ammonia production leads to urine with:
a) High pH
b) Positive nitrite
c) Positive protein
d) Low specific gravity - Microalbuminuria predicts:
a) Nephropathy
b) Hypertension
c) Diabetes insipidus
d) Nephrotic syndrome - Transitional epithelial cells in urine sediment indicate:
a) Cystitis
b) Contamination
c) Acute pyelonephritis
d) Chronic glomerulonephritis - Urine positive for glucose and protein suggests:
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Acute pyelonephritis
c) Renal tubular disease
d) Acute interstitial nephritis - Glucosuria with normal/low blood glucose indicates:
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Renal glycosuria
c) Diabetes insipidus
d) Nephrotic syndrome - Red blood cell casts and proteinuria are classic for:
a) Cystitis
b) Renal calculus
c) Pyelonephritis
d) Glomerulonephritis - Uric acid crystals in acidic urine imply increased metabolism of:
a) Lipids
b) Purines
c) Proteins
d) Carbohydrates - Proteinuria with fatty casts suggests:
a) Viral infection
b) Nephrotic syndrome
c) Acute pyelonephritis
d) Acute glomerulonephritis - Clue cells in urine sediment result from:
a) Diabetes insipidus
b) Bacterial vaginosis
c) Urinary tract infection
d) Improper sample storage - White blood cell casts without bacteriuria may indicate:
a) Cystitis
b) Pyelonephritis
c) Renal tubular acidosis
d) Acute interstitial nephritis - In lupus, RBC casts and proteinuria suggest:
a) Acute tubular necrosis
b) Recurrent pyelonephritis
c) Acute interstitial nephritis
d) Acute glomerulonephritis - Tyrosine crystals in urine are linked to:
a) Cystinuria
b) Tyrosinemia
c) Galactosemia
d) Maple syrup urine disease - Granular casts in urine sediment are associated with:
a) Renal glucosuria
b) Acute tubular necrosis
c) Recurrent pyelonephritis
d) Chronic glomerulonephritis - Calcium oxalate crystals in urine may signal:
a) Gout
b) Renal calculi
c) Acute interstitial nephritis
d) Maple syrup urine disease
Answer Key
Answer Key:
- c) Filtration of plasma
- b) Proximal convoluted tubule
- d) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
- c) Ascending loop of Henle
- b) Aldosterone
- d) Stimulates red blood cell production
- b) Proteinuria and oval fat bodies
- c) Acute glomerulonephritis
- d) Pyelonephritis
- c) Severe dehydration
- c) Proteinuria
- c) RTE cell casts
- b) Prerenal azotemia
- c) Diabetic nephropathy
- c) Glomerulonephritis
- c) Cystitis
- a) Acute renal failure
- b) Urine sodium concentration
- c) Nephrotic syndrome
- c) Acid secretion and bicarbonate reabsorption
- a) Lipids
- c) Hepatobiliary obstruction
- c) Bilirubin
- b) High (alkaline)
- b) Renal tubular dysfunction
- c) Ascending loop of Henle
- d) Juxtamedullary nephrons
- c) Acute tubular necrosis
- a) High pH
- a) Nephropathy
- b) Acute tubular necrosis
- b) Renal calculi
- c) Specific gravity
- b) Broad waxy casts
- d) Glomerular permeability
- d) Acute glomerulonephritis
- b) Hydronephrosis
- c) Nephrotic syndrome
- b) Goodpasture syndrome
- b) Granular casts and proteinuria
- b) Collecting duct
- b) Serum creatinine
- c) Diabetes insipidus
- c) 160 mg/dL
- b) Oliguria
- b) 120 mL/min
- a) Gout
- d) Creatinine
- a) Water
- b) Red blood cells
- c) Diabetes mellitus
- a) Anuria
- a) Cystitis
- c) Renal tubular disease
- b) Renal glycosuria
- d) Glomerulonephritis
- b) Purines
- b) Nephrotic syndrome
- b) Bacterial vaginosis
- d) Acute interstitial nephritis
- d) Acute glomerulonephritis
- b) Tyrosinemia
Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams:
Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams that are recognized globally and can help professionals validate their credentials and enhance their career opportunities:
1. ASCP – American Society for Clinical Pathology (USA)
- Exam Name: MLS(ASCP)
- Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree with clinical laboratory experience.
- Global Recognition: High
- Purpose: Certifies Medical Laboratory Scientists in the United States and internationally.
2. AMT – American Medical Technologists (USA)
- Exam Name: MLT(AMT) or MT(AMT)
- Eligibility: Academic and/or work experience in medical laboratory technology.
- Global Recognition: Moderate
- Purpose: Credentialing for medical technologists and technicians.
3. AIMS – Australian Institute of Medical and Clinical Scientists
- Exam Name: AIMS Certification Exam
- Eligibility: Assessment of qualifications and work experience.
- Recognition: Required for practice in Australia.
- Purpose: Certification and registration in Australia.
4. CSMLS – Canadian Society for Medical Laboratory Science
- Exam Name: CSMLS General or Subject-specific Exams
- Eligibility: Graduation from a CSMLS-accredited program or equivalent.
- Recognition: Canada
- Purpose: Entry-to-practice certification in Canada.
5. IBMS – Institute of Biomedical Science (UK)
- Exam Name: Registration and Specialist Portfolio Assessment
- Eligibility: Accredited degree and lab experience.
- Recognition: UK and some Commonwealth countries.
- Purpose: Biomedical Scientist registration with the HCPC (UK).
6. HAAD / DOH – Department of Health, Abu Dhabi (UAE)
- Exam Name: DOH/HAAD License Exam
- Eligibility: Degree in medical laboratory science and experience.
- Recognition: UAE (Abu Dhabi)
- Purpose: Licensure for medical laboratory practice in Abu Dhabi.
7. DHA – Dubai Health Authority (UAE)
- Exam Name: DHA License Exam for Medical Laboratory Technologists
- Eligibility: Relevant degree and experience.
- Recognition: Dubai, UAE
- Purpose: Professional license for clinical laboratory practice in Dubai.
8. MOH – Ministry of Health (Gulf Countries like UAE, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait)
- Exam Name: MOH License Exam
- Eligibility: BSc/Diploma in Medical Laboratory + experience.
- Recognition: Varies by country.
- Purpose: Required for practicing in public and private sector labs.
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