5000 Plus MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists are designed to test the knowledge and proficiency of laboratory professionals who work in the field of clinical laboratory science. These questions cover a wide range of topics related to laboratory science, including anatomy, physiology, microbiology, chemistry, and hematology.
2951 to 3000 MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologist Exam Preparation
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Questions 2951 to 3000
Streptococcus is classified based on_______?
- a) M Protein
- b) Cultural characteristics
- c) Bile Solubility
- d) Cell wall carbohydrate
Leprosy bacilli can be grown in______?
- a) Foot pad of nine-banded armadillo
- b) Tail of guinea pig
- c) Testes of albino rats
- d) Testes of guinea pig
Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with______?
- a) Ziel Nelson
- b) Kin Young stain
- c) Auramine-Rhodamine stain
- d) Giemsa stain
Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries_____?
- a) M. leprae
- b) M. avium intracellulare
- c) M. tuberculosis
- d) Kansasi
Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_______?
- a) Theta toxin
- b) Lecithinase
- c) Desmolase
- d) Cytokinin
Causative organism for gas gangrene______?
- a) Clostridium tetani
- b) Clostridium welchii
- c) Coli
- d) Strep. Faecalis
Rickettsiae______?
- a) Multiply within living cell
- b) Transmitted by arthropod vectors
- c) Respond to tetracycline therapy
- d) All of the above
False +ve for VDRL is seen in_____?
- a) Yaws
- b) Lepromatous Leprosy
- c) Malaria
- d) All of the above
The diagnostic investigation for syphilis is_______?
- a) TPI test
- b) VDRL test
- c) TPHA test
- d) FTAB test
- e) Both third & fourth
Which organism causes prosthetic valve endocarditis within 60 days of surgery______?
- a) Streptococcus Viridans
- b) Staphylococcus epidermis
- c) Staphylococcus aureus
- d) Fungus
What is the transport medium for cholera______?
- a) Tellurite Medium
- b) Cary Blair Medium
- c) Venkatraman – Ramakrishnan Medium
- d) Second & Third
Which of the following are non-spore forming anaerobic bacteria that assume major significance in disease processes______?
- a) Bacteroides fragilis
- b) Fusobacterium nucleatum
- c) Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
- d) Actinomyces Israeli
- e) All of the above
The diagnosis of gonorrhea is established by____?
- a) Compliment fixation tests
- b) Pili agglutination tests
- c) Haemagglutination tests
- d) All of the above tests
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by______?
- a) Streptococcus viridians
- b) Haemolytic streptococci
- c) Staphylococcus aureus
- d) Nisseria
Growth factor needed for Salmonella______?
- a) Tryptophan
- b) Niacin
- c) B-12
- d) Citrate
Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is______?
- a) Neisseria gonorrhea
- b) Escherichia coli
- c) T-strain mycoplasma
- d) Streptococcus fecalis
Neurotoxin of tetanus acts on_____?
- a) Synapse
- b) Muscle
- c) Brain
- d) Spinal cord
Encapsulation in bacteria helps in______?
- a) Spore formation
- b) Decreased virulence
- c) Prevent their phagocytosis
- d) Oxygen effect
Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces?
- a) Capsule
- b) Flagella
- c) Pili
- d) Mesosomes
Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with______?
- a) Decrease in virulence
- b) Loss of infectivity
- c) Inability to spread through tissue
- d) Increase in invasiveness
Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of_______?
- a) Malaria
- b) Whooping cough
- c) Gas gangrene
- d) Wool sorters disease
The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercle bacilli______?
- a) Acridine orange
- b) Thioglavin
- c) Congo red
- d) Auramine and Rhodamine
Actinomycosis is caused by______?
- a) Fungus
- b) Acid fast, non-motile bacillus
- c) Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria
- d) Retrovirus
The facultative anaerobic bacteria are those who are______?
- a) Unable to grow in the presence of oxygen
- b) Unable to grow in the absence of oxygen
- c) Able to grow in the presence of carbon dioxide
- d) Able to grow in the presence or absence of oxygen
One of the following is a zoonotic disease_____?
- a) Anthrax
- b) Typhoid
- c) Bacillary dysentery
- d) Cholera
Common inhabitant of throat and tonsils is_____?
- a) Alpha hemolytic streptococci (S. viridans)
- b) Staphylococci
- c) Beta hemolytic streptococci
- d) Pneumococci
Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus is due to __?
- a) Pleomorphism
- b) Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
- c) Penicillin analogue production
- d) Lack of nucleic acid in the cell wall
Malignant pustule is referred to_______?
- a) Facio-cervical actinomycosis
- b) Cutaneous anthrax
- c) Infected squamous cell carcinoma
- d) None of the above
The major intestinal pathogens which are non-lactose fermenters are_____?
- a) Salmonella
- b) Klebsiella
- c) Escherichia
- d) Paracolons
Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following_______?
- a) Salk vaccine
- b) Tetanus toxoid
- c) Sabin’s oral vaccine
- d) All of the above
Which of the following is anaerobic_____?
- a) E.coli
- b) Bacteroides
- c) Pseudomonas
- d) Klebsiella
Grape bunch shaped colonies are seen in____?
- a) Streptococcus
- b) Staphylococcus
- c) E.coli
- d) Gonococci
Which of the following enzyme is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot in pathogenic staphylococci______?
- a) Lysozyme
- b) Fibrinolysin
- c) Coagulase
- d) S protein
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except_____?
- a) Through plasmids
- b) Incorporating part of host DNA
- c) Through bacteriophages
- d) Through conjugation
Bacteria with potent exotoxin is______?
- a) Clostridium tetani
- b) Pseudomonas
- c) Shigella
- d) Klebsiella
Wasserman test is diagnostic of_______?
- a) Syphilis
- b) Gonorrhea
- c) TB
- d) Typhoid
Phage conversion is required for_____?
- a) Tularemia
- b) Diptheria
- c) Gonorrhoea
- d) All of the above
Anaerobic bacteria grow_______?
- a) in the presence of oxygen
- b) in the presence of nitrogen
- c) in the absence of oxygen
- d) differential media
The bacterial cell wall has all of the following properties except______?
- a) It consists of a mixed polymer called peptidoglycon
- b) It is the structure principally responsible for the reaction of gram staining
- c) It is a unique flexible plastic structure
- d) It contains D-isomers of amino acids
Each of the following can cause food poisoning except______?
- a) Cl. difficile
- b) Staphylococcus
- c) Cl. welchii
- d) Cl. botulinum
The following are applicable to bacterial genomes except______?
- a) It is composed of DNA
- b) It does not contain histones
- c) It is circular
- d) Its DNA has both introns and exons
Electron microscopic examination of the bacterial flora of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are______?
- a) Cocci
- b) Spirochetes
- c) Bacteriophages
- d) Filamentous rods
The structure involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface is______?
- a) Capsule
- b) Fimbria
- c) Flagella
- d) None of the above
Signs of typhoid fever is/are________?
- a) Haemorrhage
- b) Perforation
- c) Osteomyelitis
- d) All of the above
In initial stages of typhoid, salmonella can be detected in_______?
- a) Faecus
- b) Urine
- c) Blood
- d) All of the above
On a stained slide, Clostridium tetani has the appearance of a______?
- a) Bunch of a
- b) Chain of beads
- c) Drum stick
- d) Safely pin
The urine sample of a patient has been sent to the laboratory to look for Leptospira. The specimen is to be screened by use of the_______?
- a) Scanning microscope
- b) Inverted microscope
- c) Dark ground microscope
- d) Electron microscope
Which of the following fulfill all the criterias of Koch’s postulates?
- a) Treponema pallidum
- b) Mycobacterium leprae
- c) N. gonorrhoeae
- d) None of the above
Among the infectious diseases transmitted by food, one is_______?
- a) Viral stomatitis
- b) Diptheria
- c) Tuberculosis
- d) Typhoid fever
Black pigmented anaerobes include all of the following except_____?
- a) Tannerella
- b) Porphyromonas
- c) Buccae
- d) Prevotella
Answer Key Summary
The questions are typically designed to assess the technical skills and knowledge required for the laboratory profession, including the ability to analyze laboratory test results, perform laboratory procedures, and maintain laboratory equipment.
To prepare for these MCQs, candidates should have a thorough understanding of the key concepts and principles of laboratory science. They should also be familiar with common laboratory equipment and procedures, as well as laboratory safety protocols.
Candidates may also benefit from studying specific laboratory science textbooks or taking online courses that cover the material tested in the MCQs. Additionally, practicing sample MCQs and reviewing the answers can help candidates identify areas where they may need to improve their knowledge or skills.
Overall, the MCQs for lab technologists are designed to be challenging and comprehensive, requiring candidates to demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the field of laboratory science.
