Master the essential analytic procedures for bacteriology with this 118 free MCQ-based practice test. Designed for laboratory professionals and students, this quiz covers Gram staining, culture media, biochemical tests, rapid identification systems, and more. Prepare effectively for ASCP MLS, AMT MLT, AIMS, CSMLS, IBMS, HAAD, DHA, and MOH certification exams with these expertly crafted, copyright-free questions and answers.
118 MCQs (1358-1475):
- Which of the following is the first step in identifying an unknown bacterial isolate in the clinical laboratory?
a) Gram staining
b) Culture on selective media
c) Biochemical testing
d) Antibiotic susceptibility testing - What is the main purpose of performing a Gram stain before further testing?
a) To detect spore formation
b) To determine cell wall composition for classification
c) To assess motility
d) To identify oxygen requirements - Which test differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other Staphylococcus species?
a) Catalase test
b) Coagulase test
c) Oxidase test
d) Indole test - A positive oxidase test indicates the presence of which enzyme?
a) Cytochrome oxidase
b) Catalase
c) Urease
d) Nitrate reductase - The primary function of selective media in bacteriology is:
a) To differentiate bacterial species based on colony color
b) To allow growth of all microorganisms
c) To inhibit certain organisms while allowing others to grow
d) To detect motility - Which of the following tests is most useful in differentiating Enterobacteriaceae species?
a) Oxidase test
b) Triple Sugar Iron (TSI) agar test
c) Catalase test
d) Spore staining - What result would indicate a positive urease test?
a) Gas production in Durham tube
b) Blue-green color change
c) Pink color due to ammonia production
d) Black precipitate formation - Which test differentiates between Pseudomonas and Enterobacteriaceae?
a) Catalase test
b) Oxidase test
c) TSI agar test
d) Coagulase test - Which initial test is typically performed to classify bacteria in a clinical laboratory?
a) Oxidase test
b) Gram staining
c) Catalase test
d) Coagulase test - The Gram stain differentiates bacteria based on:
a) Enzyme activity
b) Cell wall composition and staining properties
c) Oxygen requirement
d) Growth rate on culture media - Selective culture media are primarily designed to:
a) Detect bacterial motility
b) Inhibit certain organisms while supporting the growth of others
c) Identify hemolytic patterns
d) Test antimicrobial resistance - Which biochemical test is key to differentiating many Enterobacteriaceae species?
a) Oxidase test
b) Triple Sugar Iron (TSI) test
c) Catalase test
d) Bile solubility test - The CAMP test is especially useful for identifying:
a) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B strep)
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Neisseria meningitidis - The indole test is performed to detect bacterial ability to:
a) Reduce nitrate to nitrite
b) Split urea into ammonia and CO₂
c) Convert tryptophan into indole
d) Utilize citrate as a carbon source - The phenol red lactose broth test is designed to detect:
a) Spore formation
b) Fermentation of lactose with acid or gas production
c) Urease activity
d) Gelatin liquefaction - A black precipitate forming on a TSI agar slant indicates:
a) Nitrate reduction
b) Hydrogen sulfide (H₂S) production
c) Presence of indole
d) Urease activity - A positive Voges-Proskauer (VP) test indicates:
a) Mixed acid fermentation pathway
b) Production of acetoin from glucose fermentation
c) Conversion of tryptophan into indole
d) Gas production in a Durham tube - The nitrate reduction test is used to detect:
a) Acid production from lactose
b) Reduction of nitrate to nitrite or nitrogen gas
c) Hydrogen sulfide formation
d) Beta-lactamase activity - Which test is most useful for differentiating Streptococcus pyogenes from other beta-hemolytic streptococci?
a) Bacitracin susceptibility test
b) Coagulase test
c) Oxidase test
d) Indole test - A positive oxidase test is typically observed in which bacterial group?
a) Enterobacteriaceae
b) Neisseria and Pseudomonas species
c) Staphylococcus species
d) Streptococcus species - The Kligler iron agar test is primarily used to detect:
a) Capsule production
b) Carbohydrate fermentation and H2S production
c) Beta-lactamase activity
d) Hemolysin production - Which rapid test differentiates Enterococcus species from other Gram-positive cocci?
a) PYR test
b) Coagulase test
c) Citrate test
d) DNase test - The oxidase reagent must be read within a short time because:
a) It is highly toxic to bacteria
b) It evaporates quickly
c) It can auto-oxidize and give false positives
d) It reacts only in the presence of catalase - Which test detects bacterial ability to convert tryptophan into indole using Kovac’s reagent?
a) Methyl red test
b) Indole test
c) Urease test
d) Citrate test - The presence of bubbles in the catalase test indicates:
a) Oxygen release from hydrogen peroxide breakdown
b) Production of carbon dioxide
c) Formation of indole
d) Presence of nitrate reductase enzyme - Which test differentiates between lactose fermenters and non-lactose fermenters among Gram-negative bacilli?
a) MacConkey agar fermentation test
b) Citrate utilization test
c) PYR test
d) Coagulase test - The satellite phenomenon, where small colonies grow around Staphylococcus aureus streaks, is characteristic of:
a) Haemophilus influenzae
b) Neisseria meningitidis
c) Proteus mirabilis
d) Escherichia coli - Which test detects bacterial ability to decarboxylate amino acids such as lysine or ornithine?
a) Lysine decarboxylase test
b) Citrate utilization test
c) Gelatin hydrolysis test
d) Oxidase test - The hanging drop method is commonly used to observe:
a) Spore formation
b) Capsule production
c) Bacterial motility
d) Cell wall structure - Which test is used to differentiate between Micrococcus and Staphylococcus species?
a) Coagulase test
b) Oxidase test
c) Bacitracin susceptibility test
d) Catalase test - Which organism is typically identified using the X and V factor requirement test?
a) Haemophilus species
b) Neisseria species
c) Corynebacterium species
d) Streptococcus species - What is the purpose of using mannitol salt agar?
a) To differentiate lactose fermenters
b) To select and differentiate Staphylococcus species
c) To detect hemolysis
d) To determine motility - Which test is performed to detect bacterial ability to hydrolyze esculin in the presence of bile salts?
a) PYR test
b) Bile esculin test
c) Citrate utilization test
d) Indole test - Which rapid test is commonly used to identify beta-hemolytic Group A Streptococcus directly from throat swabs?
a) Latex agglutination test
b) PYR test
c) Rapid antigen detection test
d) Coagulase test - A positive indole test produces which visible change?
a) Red ring after adding Kovac’s reagent
b) Blue-green color in the medium
c) Black precipitate formation
d) Gas bubble release - The urease test is useful for differentiating which organism from Escherichia coli?
a) Klebsiella pneumoniae
b) Proteus species
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) Neisseria meningitidis - Which test helps distinguish nonpathogenic Neisseria from pathogenic Neisseria species?
a) Oxidase test
b) Carbohydrate utilization test
c) PYR test
d) Gelatin hydrolysis test - The string test producing a viscous “string” from a bacterial colony when mixed in sodium deoxycholate is characteristic of:
a) Escherichia coli
b) Vibrio cholerae
c) Salmonella enterica
d) Enterococcus faecalis - Which test is used to identify bacteria capable of converting phenylalanine into phenylpyruvic acid?
a) Phenylalanine deaminase test
b) Citrate utilization test
c) Voges-Proskauer test
d) Indole test - The satellite test is commonly used to identify which bacterium?
a) Haemophilus influenzae
b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c) Escherichia coli
d) Streptococcus pyogenes
- Which rapid test detects the presence of catalase enzyme using hydrogen peroxide?
a) Oxidase test
b) Catalase test
c) DNase test
d) Nitrate reduction test - Which test differentiates Staphylococcus saprophyticus from Staphylococcus epidermidis?
a) Coagulase test
b) Novobiocin susceptibility test
c) Catalase test
d) DNase test - A positive string test is used to help identify:
a) Vibrio species
b) Escherichia coli
c) Neisseria meningitidis
d) Bacillus anthracis - The CAMP factor enhances hemolysis caused by which bacterial enzyme?
a) Streptolysin O
b) Beta-lactamase
c) Hemolysin produced by Staphylococcus aureus
d) Urease - Which of the following is a rapid test used to presumptively identify Moraxella catarrhalis?
a) Tributyrin hydrolysis test
b) Oxidase test
c) Indole test
d) Bile solubility test - What color change indicates a positive citrate test on Simmons citrate agar?
a) Red to yellow
b) Green to blue
c) Yellow to pink
d) Colorless to black - Which enzyme is detected by the β-lactamase test to determine penicillin resistance?
a) Cytochrome oxidase
b) Beta-lactamase
c) Nitrate reductase
d) DNA polymerase - Which carbohydrate fermentation test is essential for differentiating Neisseria species?
a) Glucose and maltose fermentation tests
b) Lactose fermentation only
c) Citrate utilization
d) Voges-Proskauer test - The CAMP test produces a characteristic arrowhead hemolysis when the test organism is streaked perpendicular to:
a) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Enterococcus faecalis
d) Bacillus cereus - Which test detects the ability of bacteria to produce β-galactosidase enzyme?
a) ONPG test
b) Indole test
c) Urease test
d) Catalase test - What is the main purpose of performing antimicrobial susceptibility testing?
a) To identify bacterial morphology
b) To determine appropriate antibiotic therapy
c) To detect spore formation
d) To confirm Gram reaction - Which test is used to differentiate Enterococcus species from non-enterococcal group D streptococci?
a) PYR test
b) Bile esculin hydrolysis
c) Growth in 6.5% NaCl
d) Oxidase test - A positive bile esculin test shows which result?
a) Pink color change
b) Blackening of the medium
c) Gas formation in a Durham tube
d) Blue-green coloration - Which test detects bacterial ability to degrade gelatin into amino acids?
a) DNase test
b) Gelatin hydrolysis test
c) Urease test
d) Catalase test - The oxidase test reagent contains which compound?
a) Tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride
b) Phenol red indicator
c) Crystal violet
d) Malachite green - Which medium is used to detect lactose fermentation and differentiate Gram-negative enteric bacteria?
a) MacConkey agar
b) Blood agar
c) Mannitol salt agar
d) Chocolate agar - Which test differentiates Klebsiella pneumoniae from Enterobacter aerogenes?
a) Motility test
b) Catalase test
c) Oxidase test
d) Indole test - Which of the following tests differentiates Escherichia coli from Enterobacter cloacae?
a) Indole test
b) Catalase test
c) Oxidase test
d) Coagulase test - Which rapid identification test is commonly used for Neisseria gonorrhoeae confirmation?
a) Oxidase test
b) Carbohydrate utilization test
c) Latex agglutination test
d) Urease test - A triple sugar iron (TSI) agar slant showing a yellow butt and red slant indicates:
a) Glucose only fermentation
b) Lactose fermentation
c) Sucrose fermentation
d) No fermentation - Which enzyme is detected using the beta-lactamase test?
a) Urease
b) Penicillinase
c) Oxidase
d) Coagulase - The hippurate hydrolysis test is used primarily to identify:
a) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Group B Streptococcus
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
d) Enterococcus faecalis - Which test is used to differentiate Proteus species from other Enterobacteriaceae?
a) Oxidase test
b) Urease test
c) Coagulase test
d) Bile solubility test - A positive DNase test indicates that the organism:
a) Produces an enzyme that hydrolyzes DNA
b) Utilizes nitrate as an electron acceptor
c) Produces hydrogen sulfide
d) Breaks down urea - The PYR test is most useful for identifying:
a) Enterococcus species and Group A Streptococcus
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Klebsiella pneumoniae - Which rapid test is commonly used to identify Staphylococcus aureus in clinical samples?
a) Slide coagulase (clumping factor) test
b) Catalase test
c) Indole test
d) TSI agar test - Which of the following media is specifically used to detect hemolytic patterns of bacteria?
a) MacConkey agar
b) Blood agar
c) EMB agar
d) Citrate agar - Which biochemical test detects bacterial ability to ferment lactose with gas production?
a) SIM test
b) Phenol red lactose broth
c) Citrate utilization test
d) Urease test - Which test differentiates Streptococcus pneumoniae from viridans streptococci?
a) Bile solubility test
b) Coagulase test
c) Catalase test
d) Oxidase test - The optochin sensitivity test is primarily used to identify:
a) Group A Streptococcus
b) Group B Streptococcus
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
d) Enterococcus species - Which test determines bacterial ability to use citrate as a sole carbon source?
a) Methyl red test
b) Citrate utilization test
c) Voges-Proskauer test
d) Indole test - The catalase test differentiates between:
a) Gram-positive cocci and Gram-negative rods
b) Streptococcus (catalase-negative) and Staphylococcus (catalase-positive)
c) Lactose and non-lactose fermenters
d) Motile and non-motile bacteria - Which test confirms bacterial motility?
a) SIM agar test
b) Citrate utilization test
c) Voges-Proskauer test
d) Oxidase test - A positive methyl red test indicates:
a) Production of neutral end products
b) Production of strong acids from glucose fermentation
c) Production of acetoin
d) Utilization of citrate - Relapsing fever in humans is caused by:
a) Borrelia recurrents
b) Brucella abortus
c) Leptospira interrogans
d) Spirillum minus - The most frequent cause of prosthetic heart valve infections occurring within 2-3 months after surgery is:
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Streptococcus pyogenes
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Staphylococcus epidermidis - Nutritionally variant” streptococci belong to which genera?
a) Enterococci
b) Group D enterococci
c) Beta-hemolytic streptococci
d) Granulicatella and Abiotrophia - The organism most commonly associated with neonatal purulent meningitis is:
a) Neisseria meningitidis
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Group B streptococci
d) Haemophilus influenzae - Cerebrospinal fluid test results most consistent with viral meningitis include:
a) Decreased protein level
b) Increased glucose level
c) Increased lactate level
d) Lymphocytes predominant - Anaerobic gram-positive bacilli with subterminal spores isolated from a peritoneal abscess are most likely:
a) Bacillus cereus
b) Clostridium septicum
c) Eggerthella lenta
d) Bifidobacterium dentium - An organism from a peritoneal abscess grows black colonies on BBE agar and is catalase-positive. The genus is:
a) Acidaminococcus
b) Bacteroides
c) Porphyromonas
d) Prevotella - A sputum culture from an alcoholic grows mucoid, dark pink colonies on MacConkey agar. The organism is:
a) Edwardsiella tarda
b) Klebsiella pneumoniae
c) Escherichia coli
d) Proteus vulgaris - Legionella pneumophila grows best on which medium?
a) Thiosulfate citrate bile salt media
b) Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar
c) MacConkey agar
d) Blood agar - A common cause of acute exudative pharyngitis is:
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Streptococcus agalactiae
d) Streptococcus pyogenes - The best medium for culture of Bordetella pertussis is:
a) Phenylethyl alcohol agar
b) Potassium tellurite blood agar
c) Regan-Lowe agar
d) Tinsdale agar - MacConkey agar for screening E. coli O157:H7 must contain:
a) Indole
b) Citrate
c) Sorbitol
d) Lactose - Which organism causes food poisoning by preformed enterotoxin?
a) Salmonella enteritidis
b) Shigella sonnei
c) Bacillus cereus
d) Aeromonas hydrophila - A wound culture grows gram-negative bacilli producing a blue-green pigment. The organism is:
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Serratia marcescens
c) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa - Anaerobic, box-car shaped, beta-hemolytic gram-positive bacilli from a wound are most likely:
a) Actinomyces israelii
b) Clostridium perfringens
c) Bacillus subtilis
d) Eggerthella lenta - A Gram stain of urethral discharge shows gram-negative intracellular diplococci. The most likely organism is:
a) Acinetobacter baumannii
b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c) Haemophilus ducreyi
d) Escherichia coli
- The best nonculture method for diagnosing Neisseria gonorrhoeae in females is:
a) Gram stain
b) MALDI-TOF MS
c) NAAT
d) Serology - A clean-catch urine culture grows >100,000 CFU/mL of a gram-negative bacillus that is indole-positive and urease-positive. The organism is:
a) Morganella morganii
b) Proteus mirabilis
c) Proteus vulgaris
d) Providencia stuartii - A urine isolate is non-lactose fermenting, motile, and phenylalanine deaminase-positive. The most likely genus is:
a) Edwardsiella
b) Morganella
c) Hafnia
d) Shigella - Which medium is optimal for isolating Legionella pneumophila?
a) MacConkey agar
b) Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar
c) Thayer-Martin agar
d) Blood agar - A sputum Gram stain shows numerous neutrophils and small gram-negative coccobacilli. The organism grows only on chocolate agar. This suggests:
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Haemophilus influenzae
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis - For Campylobacter jejuni isolation, fecal specimens should be incubated:
a) Aerobically at 35°C
b) Anaerobically at 42°C
c) Microaerophilically at 42°C
d) In ambient air at 25°C - A urine culture grows >100,000 CFU/mL of a gram-negative bacillus that is indole-positive and motile. The organism is likely:
a) Klebsiella pneumoniae
b) Escherichia coli
c) Proteus mirabilis
d) Serratia marcescens - The satellite phenomenon around Staphylococcus aureus colonies indicates the presence of:
a) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Haemophilus influenzae
c) Neisseria meningitidis
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa - Which test presumptively identifies Streptococcus pneumoniae?
a) Bile solubility
b) Catalase production
c) Coagulase test
d) Urease activity - A blood culture bottle shows gram-positive cocci in clusters. Colonies are catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. The organism is:
a) Staphylococcus epidermidis
b) Streptococcus agalactiae
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Enterococcus faecalis - The CAMP test is used to identify:
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Streptococcus agalactiae
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) Clostridium perfringens - A wound culture grows swarming gram-negative bacilli. This suggests:
a) Escherichia coli
b) Proteus mirabilis
c) Salmonella enterica
d) Klebsiella oxytoca - Which organism requires cysteine for growth and causes tularemia?
a) Brucella abortus
b) Francisella tularensis
c) Yersinia pestis
d) Bartonella henselae - A positive “string test” is characteristic of:
a) Vibrio cholerae
b) Campylobacter jejuni
c) Helicobacter pylori
d) Aeromonas hydrophila - For Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the optimal growth atmosphere is:
a) Strict anaerobic
b) Ambient air
c) 5–10% CO₂
d) Microaerophilic - A CSF Gram stain shows gram-negative diplococci. The most likely pathogen is:
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Haemophilus influenzae
c) Neisseria meningitidis
d) Listeria monocytogenes - A stool culture from a patient with bloody diarrhea grows lactose-negative colonies. Which selective medium would detect E. coli O157:H7?
a) Hektoen enteric agar
b) MacConkey sorbitol agar
c) Xylose lysine deoxycholate agar
d) Salmonella-Shigella agar - The urease breath test diagnoses infection with:
a) Salmonella typhi
b) Helicobacter pylori
c) Shigella dysenteriae
d) Clostridioides difficile - Which organism produces a blue-green pigment and grape-like odor?
a) Serratia marcescens
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Enterobacter cloacae
d) Acinetobacter baumannii - A positive PYR test identifies:
a) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Proteus vulgaris
d) Klebsiella pneumoniae - A vaginal swab shows clue cells. This suggests:
a) Candida albicans
b) Gardnerella vaginalis
c) Trichomonas vaginalis
d) Neisseria gonorrhoeae - The optochin disk is used to differentiate:
a) Staphylococcus from Streptococcus
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae from viridans streptococci
c) E. coli from Klebsiella
d) Pseudomonas from Acinetobacter - A sputum culture grows mucoid, lactose-fermenting colonies. The organism is likely:
a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b) Klebsiella pneumoniae
c) Proteus mirabilis
d) Salmonella enterica - Which test detects extended-spectrum beta-lactamases (ESBLs)?
a) Oxidase test
b) Cefoxitin disk test
c) Ceftazidime/clavulanic acid synergy
d) Bacitracin susceptibility - A gram-positive bacillus with “tumbling motility” at 25°C is:
a) Bacillus anthracis
b) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
c) Listeria monocytogenes
d) Clostridium botulinum - The D-test detects inducible resistance to:
a) Vancomycin
b) Clindamycin
c) Penicillin
d) Ciprofloxacin - A blood culture grows gram-negative rods that require X and V factors. The organism is:
a) Haemophilus influenzae
b) Brucella melitensis
c) Bordetella pertussis
d) Legionella pneumophila - Non-lactose-fermenting colonies on MacConkey agar suggest:
a) Escherichia coli
b) Enterobacter aerogenes
c) Salmonella or Shigella
d) Klebsiella pneumoniae
Answer Key
Answer Key:
- a) Gram staining
- b) To determine cell wall composition for classification
- b) Coagulase test
- a) Cytochrome oxidase
- c) To inhibit certain organisms while allowing others to grow
- b) Triple Sugar Iron (TSI) agar test
- c) Pink color due to ammonia production
- b) Oxidase test
- b) Gram staining
- b) Cell wall composition and staining properties
- b) Inhibit certain organisms while supporting the growth of others
- b) Triple Sugar Iron (TSI) test
- b) Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B strep)
- c) Convert tryptophan into indole
- b) Fermentation of lactose with acid or gas production
- b) Hydrogen sulfide (H₂S) production
- b) Production of acetoin from glucose fermentation
- b) Reduction of nitrate to nitrite or nitrogen gas
- a) Bacitracin susceptibility test
- b) Neisseria and Pseudomonas species
- b) Carbohydrate fermentation and H2S production
- a) PYR test
- c) It can auto-oxidize and give false positives
- b) Indole test
- a) Oxygen release from hydrogen peroxide breakdown
- a) MacConkey agar fermentation test
- a) Haemophilus influenzae
- a) Lysine decarboxylase test
- c) Bacterial motility
- a) Coagulase test
- a) Haemophilus species
- b) To select and differentiate Staphylococcus species
- b) Bile esculin test
- c) Rapid antigen detection test
- a) Red ring after adding Kovac’s reagent
- b) Proteus species
- b) Carbohydrate utilization test
- b) Vibrio cholerae
- a) Phenylalanine deaminase test
- a) Haemophilus influenzae
- b) Catalase test
- b) Novobiocin susceptibility test
- a) Vibrio species
- c) Hemolysin produced by Staphylococcus aureus
- a) Tributyrin hydrolysis test
- b) Green to blue
- b) Beta-lactamase
- a) Glucose and maltose fermentation tests
- b) Staphylococcus aureus
- a) ONPG test
- b) To determine appropriate antibiotic therapy
- a) PYR test
- b) Blackening of the medium
- b) Gelatin hydrolysis test
- a) Tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride
- a) MacConkey agar
- a) Motility test
- a) Indole test
- b) Carbohydrate utilization test
- a) Glucose only fermentation
- b) Penicillinase
- b) Group B Streptococcus
- b) Urease test
- a) Produces an enzyme that hydrolyzes DNA
- a) Enterococcus species and Group A Streptococcus
- a) Slide coagulase (clumping factor) test
- b) Blood agar
- b) Phenol red lactose broth
- a) Bile solubility test
- c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
- b) Citrate utilization test
- b) Streptococcus (catalase-negative) and Staphylococcus (catalase-positive)
- a) SIM agar test
- b) Production of strong acids from glucose fermentation
- a) Borrelia recurrents
- d) Staphylococcus epidermidis
- d) Granulicatella and Abiotrophia
- c) Group B streptococci
- d) Lymphocytes predominant
- b) Clostridium septicum
- b) Bacteroides
- b) Klebsiella pneumoniae
- b) Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar
- d) Streptococcus pyogenes
- c) Regan-Lowe agar
- c) Sorbitol
- c) Bacillus cereus
- d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- b) Clostridium perfringens
- c) NAAT
- c) Proteus vulgaris
- b) Morganella
- b) Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar
- b) Haemophilus influenzae
- c) Microaerophilically at 42°C
- b) Escherichia coli
- b) Haemophilus influenzae
- a) Bile solubility
- c) Staphylococcus aureus
- b) Streptococcus agalactiae
- b) Proteus mirabilis
- b) Francisella tularensis
- a) Vibrio cholerae
- c) 5–10% CO₂
- c) Neisseria meningitidis
- b) MacConkey sorbitol agar
- b) Helicobacter pylori
- b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- a) Streptococcus pyogenes
- b) Gardnerella vaginalis
- b) Streptococcus pneumoniae from viridans streptococci
- b) Klebsiella pneumoniae
- c) Ceftazidime/clavulanic acid synergy
- c) Listeria monocytogenes
- b) Clindamycin
- a) Haemophilus influenzae
- c) Salmonella or Shigella
Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams:
Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams that are recognized globally and can help professionals validate their credentials and enhance their career opportunities:
1. ASCP – American Society for Clinical Pathology (USA)
- Exam Name: MLS(ASCP)
- Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree with clinical laboratory experience.
- Global Recognition: High
- Purpose: Certifies Medical Laboratory Scientists in the United States and internationally.
2. AMT – American Medical Technologists (USA)
- Exam Name: MLT(AMT) or MT(AMT)
- Eligibility: Academic and/or work experience in medical laboratory technology.
- Global Recognition: Moderate
- Purpose: Credentialing for medical technologists and technicians.
3. AIMS – Australian Institute of Medical and Clinical Scientists
- Exam Name: AIMS Certification Exam
- Eligibility: Assessment of qualifications and work experience.
- Recognition: Required for practice in Australia.
- Purpose: Certification and registration in Australia.
4. CSMLS – Canadian Society for Medical Laboratory Science
- Exam Name: CSMLS General or Subject-specific Exams
- Eligibility: Graduation from a CSMLS-accredited program or equivalent.
- Recognition: Canada
- Purpose: Entry-to-practice certification in Canada.
5. IBMS – Institute of Biomedical Science (UK)
- Exam Name: Registration and Specialist Portfolio Assessment
- Eligibility: Accredited degree and lab experience.
- Recognition: UK and some Commonwealth countries.
- Purpose: Biomedical Scientist registration with the HCPC (UK).
6. HAAD / DOH – Department of Health, Abu Dhabi (UAE)
- Exam Name: DOH/HAAD License Exam
- Eligibility: Degree in medical laboratory science and experience.
- Recognition: UAE (Abu Dhabi)
- Purpose: Licensure for medical laboratory practice in Abu Dhabi.
7. DHA – Dubai Health Authority (UAE)
- Exam Name: DHA License Exam for Medical Laboratory Technologists
- Eligibility: Relevant degree and experience.
- Recognition: Dubai, UAE
- Purpose: Professional license for clinical laboratory practice in Dubai.
8. MOH – Ministry of Health (Gulf Countries like UAE, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait)
- Exam Name: MOH License Exam
- Eligibility: BSc/Diploma in Medical Laboratory + experience.
- Recognition: Varies by country.
- Purpose: Required for practicing in public and private sector labs.
Tags:
#ASCPMLS #MLSexam #LabTech #MedicalLaboratory #BOCexam #FreePracticeQuestions #QualityControl #LaboratorySafety
