Master Urinalysis and Other Body Fluids for your laboratory certification exam with our comprehensive collection of 96 multiple-choice questions (MCQs). Focused exclusively on Urinalysis (Physical), these practice questions align with the latest syllabi of ASCP MLS, AMT MLT/MT, AIMS, CSMLS, IBMS, HAAD/DOH, DHA, and MOH exams. Each MCQ includes detailed explanations and references to reinforce key concepts. Sharpen your critical thinking, identify knowledge gaps, and build speed with exam-style questions—all for free. Ideal for targeted revision!
96 MCQs (733-828):
- What is the typical daily urine volume for a healthy adult?
a) 200–500 mL
b) 400–800 mL
c) 800–2,000 mL
d) 2,500–3,000 mL - Which term describes a marked increase in urine output?
a) Oliguria
b) Nocturia
c) Polyuria
d) Anuria - A decrease in urine output is referred to as:
a) Oliguria
b) Anuria
c) Enuresis
d) Nocturia - Anuria is best defined as:
a) Output >3 liters/day
b) Nighttime urination
c) Urine output <100 mL/day
d) Painful urination - Which of the following is a possible cause of polyuria?
a) Dehydration
b) Congestive heart failure
c) Diabetes mellitus
d) Shock - The yellow color of urine is primarily due to:
a) Hemoglobin
b) Bilirubin
c) Urochrome
d) Porphyrins - Dark yellow to amber-colored urine may indicate the presence of:
a) Urobilinogen
b) Protein
c) Bilirubin
d) Hemoglobin - Red urine that tests negative for blood by reagent strip may contain:
a) Hemoglobin
b) Myoglobin
c) Porphyrins
d) Intact red blood cells - A clear, red urine sample suggests the presence of:
a) RBCs
b) Hemoglobin or myoglobin
c) Bacteria
d) Uric acid - Orange urine may be caused by:
a) Hematuria
b) Urobilinogen
c) Phenazopyridine
d) Proteinuria - Cloudy urine is most commonly caused by:
a) Uric acid
b) Mucus
c) Bacteria and WBCs
d) Ketones - A urine specimen that becomes cloudy after refrigeration may contain:
a) WBCs
b) Crystals
c) Bacteria
d) Yeast - Urine clarity should be assessed:
a) After centrifugation
b) Following chemical testing
c) Immediately after collection
d) After refrigeration - The specific gravity of urine reflects its:
a) Color intensity
b) Osmolality
c) Clarity
d) Protein concentration - The normal reference range for urine specific gravity is:
a) 1.005–1.030
b) 1.000–1.020
c) 1.010–1.040
d) 1.015–1.025 - A fixed specific gravity of 1.010 in several specimens indicates:
a) Glomerulonephritis
b) Pyelonephritis
c) Isosthenuria
d) Dehydration - Reagent strip testing for specific gravity is primarily based on:
a) Osmotic pressure
b) Ionic concentration
c) Refractive index
d) Density - The refractometer measures specific gravity by evaluating:
a) Light refraction
b) Color change
c) Chemical reaction
d) Ion exchange - Refractometer readings must be corrected for:
a) Glucose and protein
b) Ketones and bilirubin
c) Blood and nitrite
d) Urobilinogen and bacteria - A specific gravity of 1.040 by refractometer suggests:
a) Normal hydration
b) Accurate result
c) Interference by radiographic contrast
d) Proteinuria - Low urine specific gravity may indicate:
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Heart failure
c) Diabetes insipidus
d) Dehydration - High specific gravity in urine is commonly due to:
a) Renal failure
b) Diabetes insipidus
c) Overhydration
d) Diabetes mellitus - Which condition causes turbid, milky urine due to chyle?
a) Nephrotic syndrome
b) Pyuria
c) Lymphatic obstruction
d) Proteinuria - Normal urine may appear hazy due to:
a) Crystals
b) Mucus
c) Bacteria
d) WBCs - Brown-black urine could indicate:
a) Hemoglobin
b) Melanin
c) Myoglobin
d) Bilirubin - Foul-smelling urine is characteristic of:
a) Ketones
b) Glucosuria
c) Bacterial infection
d) Proteinuria - The best method to distinguish myoglobin from hemoglobin in red urine is:
a) Microscopic examination
b) Reagent strip for blood
c) Serum testing for creatine kinase
d) Specific gravity measurement - Foam formation in urine is usually due to:
a) Ketones
b) Bilirubin
c) Protein
d) Crystals
- Which specimen is most affected by light exposure?
a) Protein
b) Bilirubin
c) Nitrite
d) Ketone - Urine odor resembling ammonia may indicate:
a) UTI
b) Diabetes mellitus
c) Liver disease
d) Starvation - Which of the following affects urine color interpretation?
a) Temperature
b) Volume
c) Medications
d) Collection time - The presence of RBCs in urine gives it a:
a) Milky appearance
b) Pink to red color
c) Brown color
d) Green hue - What is the primary pigment responsible for the yellow color of urine?
a) Hemoglobin
b) Urobilin
c) Urochrome
d) Bilirubin - A dark amber urine that forms yellow foam when shaken likely contains:
a) Urobilinogen
b) Bilirubin
c) Hemoglobin
d) Myoglobin - Which condition can cause red or pink urine?
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Hematuria
c) Proteinuria
d) Hypersthenuria - A red urine sample with a negative reagent strip test for blood is most likely due to:
a) Hematuria
b) Myoglobin
c) Porphyrins
d) Hemoglobin - Which factor would most likely cause urine to appear brown or black upon standing?
a) Oxidation of urobilinogen
b) Presence of myoglobin
c) Melanin in acidic urine
d) Light exposure to bilirubin - A urine sample appears milky white. What is the most probable cause?
a) Hematuria
b) Pyuria
c) Chyluria
d) Phosphaturia - Which of the following does NOT typically cause urine to appear cloudy?
a) WBCs
b) Bacteria
c) Mucus
d) Glucose - What is the best course of action for identifying unknown urine turbidity?
a) Discard the sample
b) Perform a chemical test for protein
c) Perform a microscopic examination
d) Refrigerate the specimen - The term used to describe the degree of urine concentration is:
a) Osmolality
b) Specific gravity
c) pH
d) Turbidity - Which instrument measures urine specific gravity using light refraction?
a) Osmometer
b) Urinometer
c) Refractometer
d) Densitometer - The refractometer measures:
a) Ion concentration
b) Light absorbance
c) Light refraction
d) Particle density - Which component contributes the most to high urine specific gravity?
a) Protein
b) Glucose
c) Urea
d) Sodium - A fixed specific gravity of 1.010 regardless of fluid intake suggests:
a) Dehydration
b) Diabetes mellitus
c) Chronic renal disease
d) Urinary tract infection - Urine with low specific gravity (hyposthenuria) is most often seen in:
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Diabetes insipidus
c) Acute glomerulonephritis
d) Hepatic failure - Which factor does not interfere with refractometer readings?
a) Glucose
b) Protein
c) Temperature
d) Sodium - To calibrate a refractometer, which solution is commonly used?
a) Urine control
b) Sodium chloride
c) Distilled water
d) Sucrose solution - The specific gravity of distilled water at room temperature should read:
a) 0.000
b) 1.000
c) 1.005
d) 1.010 - Reagent strip methods for specific gravity primarily detect:
a) Glucose concentration
b) Ionic solutes
c) All solutes
d) Proteins - What is the principle behind reagent strip specific gravity testing?
a) Conductivity
b) Color change due to pKa alterations
c) Turbidity measurement
d) Refractive index - Which condition may result in a falsely low specific gravity by reagent strip?
a) High protein concentration
b) Low pH
c) Non-ionic solutes like glucose
d) High temperature - Which of the following is a physical characteristic of urine?
a) Nitrites
b) Leukocyte esterase
c) Color
d) Urobilinogen - When does normal urine appear colorless?
a) After strenuous exercise
b) In the early morning
c) Following excessive fluid intake
d) Due to proteinuria - Which of the following might cause urine to appear orange?
a) Hematuria
b) Rifampin medication
c) Diabetes insipidus
d) High bilirubin - Urine pH affects:
a) Color
b) Odor
c) Crystal precipitation
d) Specific gravity - Cloudy urine due to amorphous phosphates is typically associated with:
a) Acidic pH
b) Alkaline pH
c) High specific gravity
d) Proteinuria - Which physical change in urine is commonly seen after prolonged room temperature storage?
a) Increase in bilirubin
b) Decrease in specific gravity
c) Increase in bacteria and turbidity
d) Increased clarity - The clarity of urine refers to:
a) Color
b) Foam presence
c) Transparency
d) Odor - Normal urine odor is primarily due to:
a) Ketones
b) Bacteria
c) Ammonia
d) Urea breakdown - Which odor is characteristic of maple syrup urine disease?
a) Fruity
b) Musty
c) Ammoniacal
d) Sweet - Urine with a strong ammonia odor likely indicates:
a) Contamination
b) Long-standing urine
c) Hepatic disease
d) Diabetes mellitus - Which method best measures specific gravity in very small urine volumes?
a) Urinometer
b) Dipstick
c) Refractometer
d) Gravimetric method - Which of the following is not considered a physical property of urine?
a) pH
b) Color
c) Clarity
d) Specific gravity - In uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, urine typically appears:
a) Pale yellow with elevated specific gravity
b) Dark yellow with elevated specific gravity
c) Pale yellow with low specific gravity
d) Dark yellow with low specific gravity - A “mousy” odor in an infant’s urine suggests the presence of:
a) Phenylpyruvic acid
b) Acetone
c) Coliform bacteria
d) Porphyrin derivatives - An ammonia-like urine odor is characteristic of:
a) Phenylketonuria
b) Viral hepatitis
c) Bacterial urinary infection
d) Fungal infection - Urine developing “port wine” color after exposure to air may contain:
a) Melanin
b) Porphobilinogen
c) Bilirubin
d) Urobilinogen
- The most sterile urine collection method is:
a) Random void
b) Catheterization
c) Suprapubic aspiration
d) Midstream clean-catch - Amber/dark brown urine in hepatic disease is primarily due to:
a) Biliverdin
b) Conjugated bilirubin
c) Phenazopyridine
d) Melanin - Urine clarity should be assessed after:
a) Centrifugation
b) Thorough agitation
c) Adding sulfosalicylic acid
d) Warming to 37°C - Bright orange urine in cystitis patients commonly results from:
a) Bilirubin
b) Phenazopyridine
c) Rifampin therapy
d) Ammonia - Post-exposure black urine discoloration suggests:
a) Bile pigments
b) Porphyrin precursors
c) Homogentisic acid
d) Hematuria - Normal urine color derives mainly from:
a) Urochrome pigment
b) Melanin
c) Bilirubin
d) Stercobilin - Reddish-brown urine after trauma may indicate:
a) Stercobilin
b) Porphyrinogens
c) Myoglobin release
d) Fresh erythrocytes - Transient postprandial cloudiness with normal dipstick suggests:
a) Bacteriuria
b) Pyuria
c) Amorphous urates
d) Amorphous phosphates - Darkening urine upon standing occurs in:
a) Phenylketonuria
b) Alkaptonuria
c) Maple syrup urine disease
d) Diabetic ketoacidosis - For delayed urinalysis (>1 hr), samples should be:
a) Frozen
b) Refrigerated
c) Acidified
d) Discarded - Specific gravity measurement evaluates renal:
a) Filtration capacity
b) Concentrating ability
c) Erythropoietin synthesis
d) Waste excretion - Osmolality quantifies:
a) Total dissolved solutes
b) Non-ionized molecules
c) Sodium chloride content
d) Ionic compounds only - Refractometer-specific gravity elevation with normal dipstick may indicate:
a) Proteinuria
b) Hypernatremia
c) Acidosis
d) Ketonuria - Preferred collection for ambulatory UTI suspects:
a) Random void
b) Catheterization
c) Suprapubic aspiration
d) Midstream clean-catch - Reagent strip specific gravity depends on:
a) Color/clarity
b) Ionic concentration
c) Total volume
d) Cellular content - Isosthenuria reflects fixed specific gravity near:
a) 1.001
b) 1.010
c) 1.020
d) 1.040 - Optimal specimen for concentration assessment:
a) Random urine
b) First-morning void
c) Post-meal sample
d) 24-hour collection - Arginine vasopressin deficiency causes:
a) Glycosuria
b) Proteinuria
c) Hyposthenuria
d) Bilirubinuria - Refractometer measurements require correction for:
a) Ambient temperature
b) Atmospheric pressure
c) Glucose levels
d) Specimen volume - Diurnal variation compensation requires:
a) Random sampling
b) First-morning void
c) 24-hour collection
d) Timed 2-hour sample - Post-radiocontrast concentration assessment uses:
a) Osmometry
b) Refractometry
c) Spectrophotometry
d) Densitometry - Renal tubular function is assessed via:
a) Creatinine clearance
b) Specific gravity
c) Urea nitrogen
d) Daily volume - Refractive index compares light:
a) Speed in solutions vs. solids
b) Speed in air vs. solutions
c) Scatter in air vs. solutions
d) Scatter by solutes - Biliverdin may impart _____ urine color.
a) Black
b) Dark red
c) Blue-green
d) Bright orange - Caramel-scented neonatal urine suggests:
a) Cystinuria
b) Alkaptonuria
c) Phenylketonuria
d) Maple syrup urine disease - Diabetes insipidus urine typically appears:
a) Pale yellow
b) Yellow
c) Dark yellow
d) Brown - >3000 mL daily urine output defines:
a) Anuria
b) Oliguria
c) Nocturia
d) Polyuria - Urine with SG 1.003 usually appears:
a) Amber
b) Yellow
c) Colorless
d) Dark yellow
Answer Key
Answer Key:
- c) 800–2,000 mL
- c) Polyuria
- a) Oliguria
- c) Urine output <100 mL/day
- c) Diabetes mellitus
- c) Urochrome
- c) Bilirubin
- c) Porphyrins
- b) Hemoglobin or myoglobin
- c) Phenazopyridine
- c) Diabetes insipidus
- Diabetes mellitus
- c) Lymphatic obstruction
- b) Mucus
- b) Melanin
- c) Bacterial infection
- c) Serum testing for creatine kinase
- c) Protein
- b) Bilirubin
- a) UTI
- b) Specific gravity
- c) Refractometer
- c) Light refraction
- c) Urea
- c) Chronic renal disease
- b) Diabetes insipidus
- c) Temperature
- c) Distilled water
- b) 1.000
- b) Ionic solutes
- d) Sweet
- b) Long-standing urine
- c) Refractometer
- a) pH
- a) Pale yellow with elevated specific gravity
- a) Phenylpyruvic acid
- c) Bacterial urinary infection
- b) Porphobilinogen
- c) Suprapubic aspiration
- b) Conjugated bilirubin
- a) Proteinuria
- d) Midstream clean-catch
- b) Ionic concentration
- b) 1.010
- b) First-morning void
- c) Hyposthenuria
- c) Glucose levels
- c) 24-hour collection
- a) Osmometry
- b) Specific gravity
- c) Bacteria and WBCs
- b) Crystals
- c) Immediately after collection
- b) Osmolality
- a) 1.005–1.030
- c) Isosthenuria
- b) Ionic concentration
- a) Light refraction
- a) Glucose and protein
- c) Interference by radiographic contrast
- c) Medications
- b) Pink to red color
- c) Urochrome
- b) Bilirubin
- b) Hematuria
- c) Porphyrins
- c) Melanin in acidic urine
- c) Chyluria
- d) Glucose
- c) Perform a microscopic examination
- b) Color change due to pKa alterations
- c) Non-ionic solutes like glucose
- c) Color
- c) Following excessive fluid intake
- b) Rifampin medication
- c) Crystal precipitation
- b) Alkaline pH
- c) Increase in bacteria and turbidity
- c) Transparency
- d) Urea breakdown
- b) Thorough agitation
- b) Phenazopyridine
- c) Homogentisic acid
- a) Urochrome pigment
- c) Myoglobin release
- d) Amorphous phosphates
- b) Alkaptonuria
- b) Refrigerated
- b) Concentrating ability
- a) Total dissolved solutes
- b) Speed in air vs. solutions
- c) Blue-green
- d) Maple syrup urine disease
- a) Pale yellow
- d) Polyuria
- c) Colorless
Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams:
Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams that are recognized globally and can help professionals validate their credentials and enhance their career opportunities:
1. ASCP – American Society for Clinical Pathology (USA)
- Exam Name: MLS(ASCP)
- Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree with clinical laboratory experience.
- Global Recognition: High
- Purpose: Certifies Medical Laboratory Scientists in the United States and internationally.
2. AMT – American Medical Technologists (USA)
- Exam Name: MLT(AMT) or MT(AMT)
- Eligibility: Academic and/or work experience in medical laboratory technology.
- Global Recognition: Moderate
- Purpose: Credentialing for medical technologists and technicians.
3. AIMS – Australian Institute of Medical and Clinical Scientists
- Exam Name: AIMS Certification Exam
- Eligibility: Assessment of qualifications and work experience.
- Recognition: Required for practice in Australia.
- Purpose: Certification and registration in Australia.
4. CSMLS – Canadian Society for Medical Laboratory Science
- Exam Name: CSMLS General or Subject-specific Exams
- Eligibility: Graduation from a CSMLS-accredited program or equivalent.
- Recognition: Canada
- Purpose: Entry-to-practice certification in Canada.
5. IBMS – Institute of Biomedical Science (UK)
- Exam Name: Registration and Specialist Portfolio Assessment
- Eligibility: Accredited degree and lab experience.
- Recognition: UK and some Commonwealth countries.
- Purpose: Biomedical Scientist registration with the HCPC (UK).
6. HAAD / DOH – Department of Health, Abu Dhabi (UAE)
- Exam Name: DOH/HAAD License Exam
- Eligibility: Degree in medical laboratory science and experience.
- Recognition: UAE (Abu Dhabi)
- Purpose: Licensure for medical laboratory practice in Abu Dhabi.
7. DHA – Dubai Health Authority (UAE)
- Exam Name: DHA License Exam for Medical Laboratory Technologists
- Eligibility: Relevant degree and experience.
- Recognition: Dubai, UAE
- Purpose: Professional license for clinical laboratory practice in Dubai.
8. MOH – Ministry of Health (Gulf Countries like UAE, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait)
- Exam Name: MOH License Exam
- Eligibility: BSc/Diploma in Medical Laboratory + experience.
- Recognition: Varies by country.
- Purpose: Required for practicing in public and private sector labs.
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