Enhance your knowledge of non-ABO/Rh blood group systems with this Blood Banking mock test designed for Medical Laboratory Students and Professionals. This test evaluates your understanding of antigen characteristics, antibody behavior, and clinical significance across systems such as Kell, Kidd, Duffy, MNS, and Lewis .
What This Mock Test Covers Major blood group systems (Kell, Kidd, Duffy, MNS, Lewis, etc.) Antibody characteristics and detection Clinical significance and transfusion reactions Inheritance and antigen frequency Advanced antibody identification patterns
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ASCP MLS Exam MCQs Chapter 59
Why Take This Mock Test? Strengthens exam confidence Highlights areas for improvement Provides practice with clinically relevant scenarios This mock test (60 MCQs (4481 – 4540) ) is part of our ongoing ASCP MLS Exam Practice Series , giving you structured preparation for all major immunology topics.
Our Blood Banking – Other Blood Group Systems Mock Test is specifically designed for candidates appearing in ASCP MLS, AMT MLT/MT, AIMS, CSMLS, IBMS, HAAD/DOH, DHA, and MOH exams. This mock test mirrors the structure, difficulty level, and question style you can expect in the actual examination.
Take this test to: ✅ Strengthen your Pathology exam preparation. ✅ Boost confidence before the ASCP MLS Exam .
Who Should Use This Mock Test? Medical Laboratory Scientists and Technicians
Pathology Students
Professionals preparing for international laboratory certification exams
Anyone seeking to strengthen their knowledge of Blood Banking – Other Blood Group Systems
How to Use This Mock Test Effectively Simulate Exam Conditions: Attempt the test in one sitting without referring to notes.
Track Your Time: Keep within the allotted time limit to build speed.
Review Explanations: Study the answer explanations to strengthen understanding.
Repeat for Retention: Re-attempt after revision to measure improvement.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Antibodies in the Kell system are usually:
Kell system antibodies (like anti-K) are almost always immune-mediated (resulting from transfusion, pregnancy, or transplant).
They are IgG (mostly IgG1 and IgG3) and react at 37°C.
They do not occur naturally and are not cold-reactive.
They are clinically significant — can cause HDFN and acute/delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions.
Other options:
a) Naturally occurring and IgM → False; Kell antibodies are not naturally occurring.
c) Cold-reactive and complement-binding → False; Kell antibodies are warm-reactive.
d) Clinically insignificant → False; they are highly significant.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The Lewis antibodies are generally:
Other options:
b) Clinically significant and warm-reactive → False; they are not usually clinically significant and are cold-reactive.
c) Complement-binding and hemolytic → They can bind complement and cause in vitro hemolysis, but this is not their primary characteristic; in vivo they are insignificant.
d) IgG and reactive at 37°C → False; they are mostly IgM and react better at colder temperatures.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The Lea and Leb antigens differ because:
Leᵃ is formed when the FUT3 (Lewis) gene acts on type 1 precursor chains, adding fucose.
Leᵇ is formed when the individual is a secretor (has the FUT2 gene), which first makes H substance from type 1 chains, and then the Lewis gene adds another fucose to form Leᵇ.
Thus, Leᵇ requires both the Secretor (H) gene and the Lewis gene , while Leᵃ requires only the Lewis gene.
Other options:
b) Leᵃ is stronger in men → False; strength is not gender-dependent.
c) Leᵇ reacts only at 4°C → False; Lewis antibodies can react at higher temperatures too.
d) Leᵃ is not adsorbed onto red cells → False; both Leᵃ and Leᵇ are adsorbed from plasma.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-I?
Anti-I is a common cold-reactive autoantibody.
In infectious mononucleosis (caused by Epstein–Barr virus), patients often produce a transient cold agglutinin with anti-I specificity .
This anti-I is typically IgM and can cause mild to moderate hemolytic anemia.
Let’s check the other options:
a) Associated with warm AIHA → No, anti-I is a cold antibody; warm AIHA is usually associated with IgG antibodies against Rh antigens.
c) Detected at 37°C in normal individuals → No, anti-I reacts best at cold temperatures (0–4°C), not at 37°C in normal people.
d) Usually IgG → No, anti-I is typically IgM.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The K (KEL1) antigen is characterized by which of the following?
Let’s go through the options for the K (KEL1) antigen :
a) It is absent from the red cells of neonates — False .
K antigen is well developed at birth and can be detected on neonatal red cells.
b) It is strongly immunogenic — True .
After the ABO and Rh systems, K is one of the most immunogenic red cell antigens in transfusion medicine.
c) It is destroyed by proteolytic enzymes — False .
K antigen is part of the Kell glycoprotein, which is sensitive to some reducing agents (like DTT) but not destroyed by proteolytic enzymes (ficin, papain, etc.).
d) It has a frequency of 50% in the random population — False .
The K antigen frequency is about 9% in Caucasians, lower in other populations — far from 50%.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Antibodies to which of the following systems are NOT implicated in Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI)?
TRALI (Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury) is caused by antibodies in donor plasma reacting with recipient leukocytes , leading to neutrophil activation and pulmonary capillary leakage .
Antibodies implicated in TRALI:
HLA class I and II – against recipient leukocytes.
HNA (Human Neutrophil Antigens) – neutrophil-specific antibodies.
Neutrophil-specific antigens – subset of HNA antibodies.
ABO antibodies – cause hemolytic transfusion reactions , but do not cause TRALI .
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ASCP Exam Questions
The K antigen in the Kell system is highly immunogenic because:
The K (KEL1) antigen is highly immunogenic, meaning that after exposure (e.g., through transfusion or pregnancy), there is a high likelihood of antibody production .
It is the third most immunogenic antigen after ABO and Rh D.
Even a single exposure can provoke anti-K formation in K-negative individuals.
Other options:
a) It’s present in high frequency → False; K antigen has a low frequency (~9% in Caucasians).
b) It’s easily destroyed by enzymes → False; Kell antigens are resistant to proteolytic enzymes (but sensitive to DTT).
d) It is a cold-reactive antigen → False; anti-K is IgG and reacts at 37°C.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The S and s antigens are part of the same system as:
The S and s antigens are part of the MNS blood group system , along with M and N .
M and N are located on glycophorin A , while S and s are located on glycophorin B .
Other options:
a) Kell – Includes K, k, Kpᵃ, Kpᵇ, etc.
c) Duffy – Includes Fyᵃ, Fyᵇ.
d) P – Includes P1, P, Pᵏ (globoside system).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which blood group system includes antigens that are found in secretions and plasma?
Lewis antigens (Leᵃ and Leᵇ) are not intrinsic to the red cell membrane but are adsorbed from the plasma onto red cells.
They are glycolipids synthesized in tissues and secreted into body fluids (plasma, saliva).
Red cell Lewis phenotype can change if plasma environment changes (e.g., after transfusion).
Other options:
a) Duffy – Intrinsic transmembrane protein.
c) Kidd – Intrinsic red cell urea transporter.
d) Lutheran – Intrinsic red cell membrane protein.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Anti-M antibodies are usually:
Anti-M antibodies are often naturally occurring (can appear without previous red cell exposure).
They are typically IgM and react best at cold temperatures (room temperature or below).
They are not usually clinically significant for transfusion, but rare IgG anti-M can cause HDFN or hemolytic transfusion reactions.
Other options:
b) Warm-reactive IgG → False; most are cold-reactive IgM, though IgG can occur.
c) Clinically significant in all patients → False; most are not significant.
d) Found only after transfusion → False; they can occur naturally.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The M and N antigens belong to which system?
The M and N antigens are part of the MNS blood group system (ISBT 002).
They are located on glycophorin A of the red cell membrane.
The MNS system also includes other antigens such as S, s, and many variants.
Other options:
b) Kidd – Includes Jkᵃ and Jkᵇ.
c) Lewis – Includes Leᵃ and Leᵇ.
d) Lutheran – Includes Luᵃ and Luᵇ.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Individuals who are Fy(a–b–) are resistant to infection by:
The Duffy antigen (Fy) acts as a receptor for Plasmodium vivax merozoites to invade red blood cells.
Individuals with the Fy(a–b–) phenotype lack this receptor and are therefore resistant to P. vivax malaria.
This phenotype is very common in people of African descent, which explains the lower incidence of P. vivax malaria in Africa.
Other options:
a) Hepatitis B virus – Not related to Duffy antigen.
c) Cytomegalovirus – Not related.
d) Epstein–Barr virus – Not related.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The McLeod phenotype, associated with chronic granulomatous disease (CGD), is characterized by a weak expression of which blood group system antigens?
The McLeod phenotype is a result of mutations in the XK gene, which codes for the Kx protein .
The Kx protein is linked to the Kell glycoprotein on the red cell membrane.
In McLeod syndrome, absence or defect of Kx causes weak expression of all Kell system antigens .
This is associated with chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) when the XK mutation occurs together with a mutation in the closely linked CYBB gene on the X chromosome.
Other options:
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ASCP Exam Questions
The Jkᵃ and Jkᵇ antigens belong to which blood group system?
Other options:
a) Kell – Includes K, k, Kpᵃ, Kpᵇ, etc.
b) Duffy – Includes Fyᵃ, Fyᵇ, etc.
d) Lutheran – Includes Luᵃ, Luᵇ, etc.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The second most clinically significant blood group system after ABO and Rh is:
After ABO and Rh , the Kell system (especially anti-K) is considered the most clinically significant in transfusion medicine.
Anti-K can cause severe hemolytic transfusion reactions (HTR) and hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN).
It is highly immunogenic and often leads to strong IgG antibodies.
Other options:
a) Kidd – Clinically significant (especially delayed HTR), but not ranked above Kell.
c) Duffy – Can cause HTR and HDFN, but less immunogenic than Kell.
d) MNS – Anti-M is often not clinically significant; anti-S and anti-s can be significant but less common than Kell.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following antibodies is most likely to cause in vitro hemolysis when fresh complement is present?
Kidd antibodies (anti-Jka, anti-Jkb) are IgG and often react weakly in vitro , making them sometimes hard to detect.
However, they are potent complement activators , and in the presence of fresh complement , they can cause in vitro hemolysis .
Clinical significance: Kidd antibodies are notorious for causing delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions and in vivo hemolysis .
Other options:
Anti-Leᵃ – usually IgM, clinically insignificant, rarely causes hemolysis.
Anti-K – IgG, clinically significant, but does not usually cause complement-mediated hemolysis .
Anti-Fyᵃ – IgG, can cause hemolysis in vivo, but less efficient at activating complement in vitro compared to Kidd.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The Lewis phenotype Le(a–b+) indicates:
Le(a–b+) phenotype requires:
Lewis gene (FUT3 ) – to produce the Lewis fucosyltransferase
Secretor gene (FUT2 ) – to produce H substance, which is then converted to Leᵇ
Without the Lewis gene → Le(a–b–)
Without the Secretor gene → Le(a+b–)
With both genes → Le(a–b+)
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ASCP Exam Questions
Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is associated with an autoantibody that has specificity for which antigen?
Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is associated with the Donath-Landsteiner antibody .
This is an IgG autoantibody that has specificity for the P antigen (also known as globoside).
It binds to red cells in the cold and fixes complement; upon warming, complement-mediated hemolysis occurs, leading to hemoglobinuria.
Other options:
a) I – Associated with cold agglutinin disease (IgM anti-I).
b) i – Also associated with cold agglutinins (less common).
d) Leᵇ – Not associated with PCH.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The antigen that is strongly immunogenic and often second only to D in causing HDFN is:
Anti-K is highly immunogenic and is the most common cause of HDFN outside the ABO and Rh systems .
It can cause severe HDFN, including hydrops fetalis, by suppressing fetal erythropoiesis in addition to hemolysis.
Anti-K is considered second only to anti-D in clinical significance for HDFN in populations where D-negative women are immunized.
Other options:
a) Fyᵇ – Less immunogenic; rarely causes severe HDFN.
c) Jkᵃ – Can cause HDFN but usually mild.
d) S – Can cause HDFN but less common and severe than anti-K.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following phenotypes is most commonly found in the African American population and confers resistance to Plasmodium vivax malaria?
The Duffy blood group system includes the Fyᵃ and Fyᵇ antigens.
The Fy(a–b–) phenotype is very common among people of African descent (> 68% in African Americans).
This phenotype results from a mutation in the Duffy promoter that prevents Duffy antigen expression on red cells.
The Duffy antigen (Fy) is a receptor for Plasmodium vivax ; without it, the red cells are resistant to invasion by this malaria parasite.
The other options do not match:
Lu(a–b–) is very rare and not linked to malaria resistance.
Jk(a–b–) causes urinary concentrating defects but not malaria resistance.
K–k– is extremely rare and unrelated to malaria.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which antibody is known to cause both immediate and delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?
Other options:
a) Anti-Fyᵃ – Can cause delayed reactions, but less commonly immediate severe reactions.
c) Anti-Jkᵃ – Primarily causes delayed hemolytic reactions; immediate reactions are rare.
d) Anti-Leᵃ – Usually not clinically significant; rarely causes hemolytic reactions.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Proteolytic enzyme treatment of red blood cells will typically destroy which of the following antigens?
Proteolytic enzymes (such as ficin, papain, bromelin) destroy certain blood group antigens, including those in the Duffy system (Fyᵃ and Fyᵇ).
Enzyme treatment typically enhances the reactivity of some other antigens (like Rh, Kidd), but destroys M, N, Fyᵃ, and Fyᵇ.
Let’s check the options:
a) Jkᵃ – Not destroyed; enzymes may actually enhance Kidd system reactivity.
b) E – Not destroyed; Rh antigens are generally resistant or enhanced.
c) Fyᵃ – Destroyed by enzyme treatment.
d) k – Not destroyed; Kell system antigens are sensitive to DTT but not to proteolytic enzymes.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The P system antigen associated with parvovirus B19 infection is:
Parvovirus B19 uses the P antigen (also known as globoside) as its cellular receptor to infect red cell precursors.
Individuals who lack the P antigen (very rare p phenotype) are resistant to parvovirus B19 infection.
Other options:
a) P1 – Not the receptor for parvovirus B19.
c) Pk – Intermediate in biosynthesis of P, but not the primary receptor.
d) p – This is the phenotype lacking P antigen, not the antigen itself.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following blood group chemicals is used to produce K₀ (Kell null) red cells for serological testing?
K₀ (Kell null) red cells lack all Kell system antigens.
Dithiothreitol (DTT) is a reducing agent that destroys Kell system antigens by breaking disulfide bonds in the Kell glycoprotein.
Treating normal red cells with DTT can create in vitro K₀-like cells for antibody identification (e.g., to confirm anti-Kpᵇ by showing loss of reactivity after DTT treatment).
Other options:
a) Ficin – A proteolytic enzyme; affects MNS, Duffy, but not Kell antigens.
b) Chloroquine diphosphate – Used to remove IgG from red cells (for phenotyping in the presence of IgG coating), not to destroy Kell antigens.
d) Polyethylene glycol (PEG) – An enhancement medium for antibody detection, not for antigen destruction.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Antibodies in the Kidd (JK) blood group system are most associated with which of the following?
Kidd (JK) antibodies (anti-Jkᵃ and anti-Jkᵇ) are well known for causing delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions (DHTR) .
They often drop to very low or undetectable levels in the plasma after initial immunization, making pre-transfusion antibody screens sometimes negative.
Upon re-exposure to the antigen during transfusion, a rapid anamnestic response occurs, leading to antibody production and destruction of transfused red cells days after the transfusion.
They are not a common cause of severe immediate hemolytic reactions, significant HDFN, or allergic reactions.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Lewis antigens are formed by:
Lewis antigens are glycolipids produced by tissue cells (especially gastrointestinal) and secreted into plasma .
They are adsorbed onto the red cell membrane from the plasma.
Their formation depends on the interaction of two genes:
FUT3 (Lewis gene) – Encodes a fucosyltransferase that adds fucose to precursor substance to form Leᵃ.
FUT2 (Secretor gene) – Encodes a fucosyltransferase that makes H substance; if present, Leᵇ is formed.
Other options:
a) Genes on the X chromosome → False; Lewis gene (FUT3 ) is on chromosome 19.
c) Structural proteins on the red cell membrane → False; they are adsorbed glycolipids, not intrinsic proteins.
d) Inheritance through mitochondrial DNA → False.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The Lutheran system antibodies (Luᵃ and Luᵇ) are usually:
Lutheran antibodies (anti-Luᵃ and anti-Luᵇ) are often naturally occurring (can appear without prior red cell exposure).
They are typically IgM and react best at room temperature or below.
They are generally not clinically significant and rarely cause hemolytic transfusion reactions or HDFN.
Other options:
b) Clinically significant and IgG → False; they are usually not significant and are IgM.
c) Complement-binding → Some may bind complement, but it’s not a defining feature.
d) IgE and heat-labile → False; not IgE.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A patient with the rare p phenotype would likely have an antibody with which specificity?
The p phenotype (also called globoside-deficient ) results from the lack of P, P1, and Pᵏ antigens due to a defect in the synthesis of the globoside series.
Individuals with the p phenotype naturally produce a potent IgM antibody called anti-PP1Pᵏ (historically known as anti-Tjᵃ ).
This antibody reacts with all red cells except those of the very rare p phenotype, making it clinically significant.
Other options:
a) Anti-P1 – Found in P1-negative individuals (common), not the p phenotype.
b) Anti-P – Found in Pᵏ phenotype individuals, not the p phenotype.
d) Anti-Pᵏ – Not relevant to p phenotype.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The antigen associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is:
Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is associated with the Donath-Landsteiner antibody , which is an IgG autoantibody with specificity for the P antigen (globoside).
This antibody binds to red cells in the cold, fixes complement, and upon warming causes intravascular hemolysis.
Other options:
b) P1 – Not associated with PCH.
c) S – Part of MNS system, unrelated.
d) Leᵃ – Lewis system, unrelated.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The Kpᵃ and Kpᵇ antigens belong to which system?
Kpᵃ (KEL3) and Kpᵇ (KEL4) are antithetical antigens in the Kell blood group system .
They are located on the Kell glycoprotein along with other Kell antigens like K, k, Jsᵃ, Jsᵇ.
Other options:
a) Kidd – Includes Jkᵃ and Jkᵇ.
c) Lutheran – Includes Luᵃ and Luᵇ.
d) Duffy – Includes Fyᵃ and Fyᵇ.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following is the preferred treatment for a newborn with Fetal and Neonatal Alloimmune Thrombocytopenia (FNAIT)?
In FNAIT , the newborn has thrombocytopenia due to maternal alloantibodies against fetal platelet antigens (most often HPA-1a).
Maternal platelets are the preferred treatment because they lack the target antigen and are not susceptible to the maternal antibody.
They must be washed and irradiated to remove maternal plasma (which contains the antibody) and prevent transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease.
Other options:
a) Random donor platelets – Likely to be destroyed by the maternal antibody.
b) Paternal platelets – Would likely have the offending antigen and be destroyed.
d) Granulocyte transfusions – Not indicated for FNAIT.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following antigens is destroyed by treatment of red cells with proteolytic enzymes such as ficin or papain?
Proteolytic enzymes (ficin, papain, bromelin, trypsin) alter or destroy certain red cell antigens by cleaving protein structures on the membrane.
S antigen (MNS system) is enzyme-sensitive and is destroyed or weakened by enzyme treatment.
Other options:
K (Kell system) – generally resistant to enzyme treatment.
Jka (Kidd system) – resistant to enzymes.
E (Rh system) – resistant to enzymes.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following statements is true about the Lewis system?
Let’s check each option:
a) Lewis antigens are well developed at birth → False . Lewis antigens are poorly developed at birth and may not be detectable until several months of age.
b) Lewis antibodies are often IgG and cause HDFN → False . Lewis antibodies are typically IgM and do not cause Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn because the antigens are poorly developed on fetal/neonatal red cells and are not synthesized by the fetus.
c) Lewis antigens are absorbed from the plasma onto the red cell membrane → True . Lewis substances are glycolipids produced by tissue cells and secreted into plasma, where they adsorb onto red cells.
d) Lewis antibodies are typically clinically significant → False . Most Lewis antibodies (anti-Leᵃ, anti-Leᵇ) are not considered clinically significant for transfusion because they often do not cause reduced red cell survival.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The Cartwright (Yt) blood group system antigens are located on which membrane-bound enzyme?
The Cartwright (Yt) blood group system antigens (Ytᵃ and Ytᵇ) are carried on acetylcholinesterase , an enzyme anchored to the red cell membrane.
This enzyme’s function in red cells is not fully understood, but it may have a role in regulating acetylcholine.
Other options:
b) Alkaline phosphatase – Not associated with a known blood group system.
c) Lactate dehydrogenase – A cytoplasmic enzyme, not a red cell surface antigen carrier.
d) Glycophorin A – Carries M/N antigens (MNS system).
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ASCP Exam Questions
The Colton null phenotype, Co(a-b-), is associated with a defect in which red cell channel?
The Colton blood group system antigens (Coᵃ, Coᵇ) are located on aquaporin-1 (AQP1) , a water channel protein.
The Co(a–b–) null phenotype results from mutations in the AQP1 gene, causing absence of the Colton antigens.
Individuals with this phenotype have a subclinical reduction in red cell water permeability but are generally healthy.
Other options:
a) Glucose transporter – Carries the GLUT1 protein (associated with the Gill blood group system).
b) Urea transporter – Carries the Kidd antigens (JK system).
d) Anion exchanger (Band 3) – Carries the Diego blood group system antigens.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The MNS system antibodies can sometimes show:
MNS system antibodies (especially anti-S, anti-s, and some anti-M) can demonstrate a dosage effect — stronger reactivity with homozygous expression (e.g., SS vs. Ss) than with heterozygous expression.
This is common with many blood group systems where antigen strength correlates with gene dose.
Other options:
b) No serologic reaction → False; they do react.
c) Weak reactions only at cold temperatures → Anti-M is often cold-reactive, but anti-S/s are IgG and react at 37°C.
d) No enzyme sensitivity → False; MNS antigens (M, N, S, s) are sensitive to proteolytic enzymes.
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ASCP Exam Questions
An individual has been sensitized to the k antigen and has produced anti-k. What is the most probable KEL genotype for this individual?
The k antigen (Cellano) is highly prevalent , present in ~99% of the population .
For an individual to produce anti-k , they must lack the k antigen .
Therefore, their red cell phenotype must be k-negative .
The KEL genotype options:
KK → has K antigen, usually K-positive, k-positive as well.
Kk → has K and k antigens.
kk → lacks K antigen , but actually expresses k normally. Wait — let’s carefully check:
Let’s reason step by step:
KEL system: two main antithetical antigens are K (KEL1) and k (KEL2) .
K is low frequency (~9%), k is high frequency (~99%) .
To make anti-k , a person must lack the k antigen , which is extremely rare.
The genotype K₀K₀ is used to denote someone negative for both K and k .
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following is a high-incidence antigen?
Other options:
a) K – Low incidence (~9% in Caucasians).
b) Jkᵃ – Relatively common (~77% in Caucasians) but not >99%.
d) Leᵃ – Present in ~22% of Caucasians, not high incidence.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which antibody reacts best at 37°C and is often detected in the AHG phase?
Other options:
a) Anti-M – Usually IgM, reacts best at room temperature or below.
b) Anti-Leᵃ – Usually IgM, reacts best at immediate spin or room temperature.
d) Anti-P1 – Usually IgM, cold-reactive.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which antigen combination occurs together on the same red cell membrane in most individuals?
Each of these antigen pairs represents allelic antigens from the same blood group system , and most individuals express both members (one inherited from each parent):
M and N (MNS system):
K and k (Kell system):
Codominant alleles on the Kell glycoprotein .
Most individuals are Kk , expressing both K and k antigens.
S and s (MNS system):
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ASCP Exam Questions
Kidd antibodies are notorious because they:
Kidd antibodies (anti-Jkᵃ, anti-Jkᵇ) are known to decline rapidly after initial immunization and can become undetectable in routine antibody screening.
Upon re-exposure to the antigen during transfusion, a strong anamnestic response occurs, leading to delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions (DHTR) .
This makes them particularly dangerous because pre-transfusion testing may miss them.
Other options:
a) Are easily detected in screening tests → False; they are often missed.
b) Often cause mild transfusion reactions only → False; they can cause severe hemolysis.
d) Are naturally occurring → False; they are immune-stimulated.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following blood group systems is associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?
Kidd system antibodies (anti-Jkᵃ, anti-Jkᵇ) are notorious for causing delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions (DHTR) .
They often drop to undetectable levels between exposures, leading to negative pre-transfusion screens, but upon re-exposure, they can cause rapid anamnestic responses and hemolysis days after transfusion.
Other options:
a) Lewis – Usually not clinically significant; rarely cause DHTR.
b) P – Anti-P1 is typically not significant; anti-PP1Pᵏ can cause immediate, not delayed, reactions.
d) MNS – Anti-M is often not significant; anti-S/s can cause DHTR but less commonly than Kidd.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following antibodies is typically IgG and reactive at the antiglobulin phase, but its reactivity is enhanced by treating red cells with proteolytic enzymes?
Anti-S (MNS system) is usually IgG and reacts best at the antiglobulin (AHG) phase .
Its reactivity can be enhanced by proteolytic enzyme treatment (e.g., ficin, papain), which removes steric hindrance and exposes certain epitopes.
Other options:
Anti-M – typically IgM , reacts at cold temperatures, and enzyme treatment usually destroys or weakens it .
Anti-Fyᵃ – IgG, enzyme-sensitive , so treatment destroys its antigen ; reactivity is reduced.
Anti-Leᵃ – IgM, enzyme-sensitive; reactivity decreases with enzyme treatment .
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ASCP Exam Questions
A patient with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAIHA) has an autoantibody that demonstrates Rh specificity. What is the most appropriate course of action when crossmatching blood?
In warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAIHA) , the patient produces IgG autoantibodies that often react with all red cells , including donor units, making crossmatching difficult.
If the autoantibody shows Rh specificity , selecting blood that is negative for the corresponding Rh antigens (i.e., phenotypically matched ) can help reduce hemolysis .
Other options:
Rh-null blood – unnecessary unless the patient requires complete Rh antigen-negative blood; extremely rare.
Saline-washed red cells – may reduce plasma antibodies but does not solve the problem of autoantibodies .
Selecting units incompatible at 37°C – unsafe; only compatible units should be transfused.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Fetal and Neonatal Alloimmune Thrombocytopenia (FNAIT) is most frequently caused by maternal antibodies against which antigen?
Fetal and Neonatal Alloimmune Thrombocytopenia (FNAIT) occurs when maternal alloantibodies against fetal platelet antigens cross the placenta and destroy fetal platelets.
In Caucasian populations, the most common cause is maternal anti-HPA-1a (about 80% of cases).
The mother is usually HPA-1a negative and the father/fetus is HPA-1a positive.
Other options:
a) HLA-A – HLA antibodies can cause platelet refractoriness in transfusion but are not the main cause of FNAIT.
c) HPA-5b – The second most common cause in Caucasians, but far less frequent than HPA-1a.
d) ABO – ABO incompatibility is not a common cause of FNAIT.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which blood group system antigens are located on glycoprotein A and B?
Other options:
a) Kidd – Located on the urea transporter (UT-B1).
c) Duffy – Located on the Duffy glycoprotein (Fy), a chemokine receptor.
d) Lewis – Not intrinsic to red cell membrane; glycolipids adsorbed from plasma.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Duffy antigens are destroyed by:
Duffy antigens (Fyᵃ and Fyᵇ) are destroyed by proteolytic enzymes like papain, ficin, and bromelin.
This property is used in blood bank serology to help identify antibodies — if an antibody stops reacting with enzyme-treated cells, it may be anti-Fyᵃ or anti-Fyᵇ.
Other options:
b) Heat – Not typically used to destroy Duffy antigens; heat can denature proteins but is not specific for Duffy.
c) Chemicals such as EDTA – EDTA is an anticoagulant that chelates calcium; it does not destroy Duffy antigens.
d) Low ionic strength solution – Used to enhance antibody uptake, not to destroy antigens.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following antibodies is usually an IgM cold agglutinin and is considered clinically insignificant?
Anti-P1 is typically a naturally occurring IgM cold-reactive antibody .
It reacts best at lower temperatures (e.g., 4°C) and often shows weak or no reactivity at 37°C.
It is generally not clinically significant for transfusion, as it rarely causes hemolytic transfusion reactions.
Compare with the others:
a) Anti-K – IgG, clinically significant.
b) Anti-Jkᵃ – IgG, can cause delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions.
d) Anti-Fyᵃ – IgG, clinically significant.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The Fyᵃ and Fyᵇ antigens are part of the:
Fyᵃ and Fyᵇ are the main antithetical antigens of the Duffy blood group system (ISBT 008).
The Duffy glycoprotein is a receptor for Plasmodium vivax malaria parasites.
The Fy(a–b–) phenotype is common in people of African descent and confers resistance to this form of malaria.
Other options:
b) Lewis system – Includes Leᵃ and Leᵇ.
c) MNS system – Includes M, N, S, s, etc.
d) Kell system – Includes K, k, Kpᵃ, Kpᵇ, etc.
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ASCP Exam Questions
M and N antigens are destroyed by:
M and N antigens are located on glycophorin A , which is sensitive to proteolytic enzymes.
Treatment with ficin, papain, or bromelin destroys M and N antigen activity.
This is used in serological testing to help identify antibodies — loss of reactivity after enzyme treatment suggests anti-M or anti-N.
Other options:
b) Heat only – Not typically used to destroy M/N; heat can denature proteins but is not specific.
c) Acids – Not standard for antigen destruction in blood bank testing.
d) Formaldehyde – Can modify red cell antigens but is not routinely used for this purpose.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following antibodies is most likely to show a dosage effect?
A dosage effect means the antibody reacts more strongly with red cells that are homozygous for the corresponding antigen than with cells that are heterozygous.
Let’s check each option:
a) Anti-Leᵃ – Lewis antibodies (anti-Leᵃ) generally do not show a clear dosage effect because Lewis antigens are not intrinsic to the red cell membrane but are adsorbed from plasma.
b) Anti-P1 – Anti-P1 often shows variable reactivity, but not a consistent dosage effect based on zygosity because P1 antigen strength is influenced by factors other than gene dose.
c) Anti-M – Anti-M can show dosage in some cases, but many examples react well regardless of zygosity; it’s not the most classic example.
d) Anti-Fyᵃ – Anti-Fyᵃ is well known for showing a strong dosage effect — it reacts more strongly with Fy(a+b–) cells than with Fy(a+b+) cells.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The Lutheran null phenotype, Lu(a-b-), is inherited as what type of trait?
The Lutheran blood group system (Luᵃ and Luᵇ) is controlled by the LU gene on chromosome 19 .
The null phenotype Lu(a-b-) occurs when an individual inherits two nonfunctional LU alleles , meaning it is autosomal recessive .
Characteristics:
Other options:
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following blood group systems is most commonly associated with platelet refractoriness and Febrile Non-Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions (FNHTR)?
Platelet refractoriness occurs when transfused platelets fail to produce the expected rise in platelet count.
The most common cause is alloimmunization to HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigen) class I antigens on donor platelets.
Febrile Non-Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions (FNHTR) are also frequently caused by HLA antibodies reacting with donor leukocytes or platelets.
Other options:
Rh, Kell, Kidd – primarily relevant to red blood cells and hemolytic reactions, not platelet refractoriness .
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ASCP Exam Questions
The Diego blood group system antigens are carried on which red cell membrane protein?
The Diego blood group system antigens (including Diᵃ, Diᵇ, Wrᵃ, etc.) are located on Band 3 , the red cell anion exchange protein (AE1).
Band 3 is important for CO₂ transport and red cell structural integrity.
Other options:
a) Glycophorin A – Carries M/N antigens.
c) Aquaporin – Carries Colton antigens.
d) Decay-accelerating factor (DAF) – Carries Cromer antigens
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ASCP Exam Questions
The red cells of a nonsecretor (se/se) will most likely type as:
Lewis antigens (Leᵃ and Leᵇ) are not directly produced by red cell precursors, but are absorbed from the plasma onto the red cell membrane.
Their formation depends on the interaction of the FUT3 (Lewis gene) and FUT2 (Secretor gene) enzymes:
Nonsecretor (se/se) → no H substance secreted in body fluids → cannot make Leᵇ.
If the Lewis gene (FUT3 ) is active, the person makes Leᵃ antigen in secretions, which gets adsorbed onto RBCs.
So phenotype: Le(a+b–) .
Le(a–b+) requires being a secretor (to make H, then Leᵇ).
Le(a–b–) occurs if the Lewis gene itself is inactive (FUT3 deficient).
Le(a+b+) is rare and usually temporary, seen in infants or some populations.
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