Chapter 1: MCQs for Doctors and Medical Students for Exams and Interviews

5000 Plus MCQs for Doctors and Medical Students for Exams and Interviews. MCQs have long been a staple of medical education, and they continue to play a crucial role in the assessment of doctors and medical students. These questions typically consist of a stem, or a statement that poses a problem or question, followed by several options or answer choices, only one of which is correct. Doctors MCQs cover a wide range of topics, from basic sciences to clinical medicine, and they are used in a variety of contexts, including medical school exams, licensing and certification exams, and continuing medical education.

01 to 50 MCQs for Doctors and Medical Students for Exams and Interviews

Doctors MCQs cover a wide range of topics, from basic sciences to clinical medicine, and they are used in a variety of contexts, including medical school exams, licensing and certification exams, and continuing medical education.

01 to 50 MCQs

The renal medulla is composed of tissue called.
1. Renal pyramids ✔
2. Nephrons
3. Renal sinus
4. Renal pelvis
Which of the following is not in the sequence of proper kidney blood flow? The starting point is the renal artery and the finishing point is the renal vein.
1. Arciform artery
2. Afferent arteriole
3. Interlobar vein ✔
4. Arciform vein
Which is found in the highest concentration in the urine?
1. Uric acid
2. Urea ✔
3. Glucose
4. Creatinine
The primary function of the ascending loop of Henle in the kidney is?
1. The active re-absorption of sodium
2. The active re-absorption of chloride ions ✔
3. The passive re-absorption of potassium
4. The passive re-absorption of urea
The middle layer of the urinary bladder is identified as
1. Mucous coat
2. Submucous coat ✔
3. Muscular Coat
4. Sphincter Coat
The micturition reflex center is located in the ?
1. Pons
2. Midbrain
3. Lumbar plexus
4. Sacral plexus ✔
Which of the following match with the definition: a poor output of urine?
1. Oliguria ✔
2. Pyruia
3. Enuresis
4. Diuresis
Capillary loops located in the medulla are also known as
1. Vasa recta ✔
2. Urea collectors
3. Trigone
4. Macula densa
The primary function of the descending loop of Henle in the kidney is?
1. Reabsorption of sodium ions
2. Reabsoption of water by osmosis ✔
3. Secretion of hydrogen ions
4. Secretion of potassium ions
Which Diagnosis and treating abnormalities, diseases, and disorders of the heart.
1. Cardiology ✔
2. Urology
3. Nephrology
4. Radiology

Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating tumors and cancer.
1. Gynecology
2. Urology
3. Oncology ✔
4. Radiology
Which is Similiar to general practice in nature, but centering around the family unit.
1. Geriatrics
2. Pediatrics
3. Family Practice ✔
4. Obstetrics
Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating conditions of altered immunologic reactivity ?
1. Allergy ✔
2. Urology
3. Radiology
4. Oncology
Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the female reproductive tract; strong emphasis on preventive measures.
1. Urology
2. Neurology
3. Oncology
4. Gynecology ✔
Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the central nervous system.
1. Nephrology
2. Urology
3. Neurology ✔
4. Gynecology
Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating disorders and diseases of the ear, nose, and throat.
1. Otorhinolaryngology ✔
2. Endocrinology
3. Radiology
4. Ophthalmology
Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the kidney.
1. Oncology
2. Urology
3. Nephrology ✔
4. Neurology
Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders with Roentgen rays (x-rays) and other forms of radiant energy.
1. Urology
2. Neurology
3. Cardiology
4. Radiology ✔
Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating disorders of the skin.
1. Radiology
2. Cardiology
3. Neurology
4. Dermatology ✔
Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the stomach and intestines.
1. Nephrology
2. Dermatology
3. Gastroenterology ✔
4. Gynecology

The primary function of the descending loop of Henle in the kidney is ?
1. Reabsorption of sodium ions
2. Reabsoption of water by osmosis ✔
3. Secretion of hydrogen ions
4. Secretion of potassium ions
Which of the following is not considered a part of the male urethra?
1. Prostatic
2. Membranous
3. Vasapore ✔
4. Penile
When glucose if found in urine it is called.
1. Glucosuria ✔
2. Uremia
3. Ureteritis
4. Glucose intolerance
Which of the following is not considered a component of kidney stones?
1. Calcium phosphate
2. Uric Acid
3. Calcium oxalate
4. HCO3 ✔
The one of the functions occurring at the distal convoluted tubule in the kidney is?
1. Passive secretion of hydrogen ions
2. Passive secretion of potassium ions ✔
3. Limited re-absorption of water
4. No re-absorption of sodium
ADH has which of the following effects on the distal convoluted tubule?
1. Decrease water re-absorption
2. Increase water re-absorption ✔
3. Decrease the concentration of urine
4. Increase the urine volume
Which of the following is not associated with the role of the kidneys?
1. Release of erythropoietin (hormone)
2. Release of renin (enzyme)
3. Release of Vitamin E ✔
4. Activate Vitamin D
Each kidney contains approximately ______ nephrons.
1. 10 million
2. 1 million ✔
3. 100, 000
4. 10, 000
The release of Angiotension II causes which of the following to occur?
1. Increased filtration rate ✔
2. Decreased glomerular hydrostatic pressure
3. Increase synthesis of Vitamin E
4. Increased release of erythropoietin
Which of the following is an effect of a diuretic?
1. Decreased Cardiac Output ✔
2. Increased fluid volume
3. Increased sodium re-absorption
4. Increased chloride ion re-absorption

Which of the following is not considered a loop diuretic ?
1. Bumetadine (BUMEX)
2. Furosemide (LASIX)
3. Chlorthiazide (DIURIL) ✔
4. Ethacrynic Acid (EDECRIN)
Which of the following is not one of the key steps in the grief process?
1. Denial
2. Anger
3. Bargaining
4. Rejection ✔
Which of the following matches the definition: Covering up a weakness by stressing a desirable or stronger trait?
1. Compensation ✔
2. Projection
3. Rationalization
4. Dysphoria
Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found with light sleepers?
1. Theta ✔
2. Alpha
3. Beta
4. Zeta
Which of the following months matches with an infant first having the ability to sit-up independently?
1. 4 months
2. 6 months ✔
3. 8 months
4. 10 months
Object permanence for toddlers develops in this age range?
1. 5 − 10 months ✔
2. 10 − 14 months
3. 12 − 24 months
4. 15 − 24 months
Which of the following matches the definition: Attributing of our own unwanted trait onto another person?
1. Compensation
2. Projection ✔
3. Rationalization
4. Dysphoria
Which of the following matches the definition: The justification of behaviors using reason other than the real reason?
1. Compensation
2. Projection
3. Rationalization ✔
4. Dysphoria
Which of the following matches the definition: Response to severe emotion stress resulting in involuntary disturbance of physical functions?
1. Conversion disorder ✔
2. Depressive reaction
3. Bipolar disorder
4. Alzheimer’s disease
Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found when you are awake?
1. Theta
2. Alpha
3. Beta ✔
4. Zeta
The REM sleep cycle occur approximately every ____ minutes?
1. 45
2. 60
3. 75
4. 90 ✔
Which of the following reflexes is not found at birth?
1. Babinski
2. Palmar
3. Moro
4. Flexion ✔
Parallel play for toddlers develops in this age range?
1. 5 − 10 months
2. 10 − 14 months
3. 12 − 24 months
4. 24 − 48 months ✔
Which of the following is not a sign of anxiety?
1. Dyspnea
2. Hyperventilation
3. Moist mouth ✔
4. GI symptoms
Which of the following best describes a person that is completely awake falling asleep spontaneously?
1. Cataplexy ✔
2. Narcolepsy
3. Transitional sleep
4. REM absence
Which of the following best describes a person that is unable to tell you were there hand or foot is?
1. Autotopagnosia ✔
2. Cataplexy
3. Ergophobia
4. Anosognosia
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a panic disorder?
1. Nausea
2. Excessive perspiration
3. Urination ✔
4. Chest pain
Which of the following categories would a 70 year old adult be placed in?
1. Intimacy vs. Isolation
2. Generativitiy vs. Stagnation ✔
3. Integrity vs. Despair
4. Longevity vs. Guilt
Which of the following categories would a 60 year old adult be placed in?
1. Intimacy vs. Isolation
2. Generativitiy vs. Stagnation ✔
3. Integrity vs. Despair
4. Longevity vs. Guilt
Which of the following categories would a 20 year old adult be placed in?
1. Intimacy vs. Isolation ✔
2. Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
3. Integrity vs. Despair
4. Longevity vs. Guilt

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Chapter 2 >>

One of the advantages of MCQs is that they can test a large amount of information in a relatively short amount of time. This is especially important in medical education, where there is an overwhelming amount of information that needs to be learned and assessed. MCQs also allow for objective and standardized grading, which is essential for ensuring fairness and consistency in assessment.

However, designing effective MCQs can be a challenging task, and there are several key principles that need to be followed to ensure that these questions are reliable, valid, and useful. One of the most important principles is to ensure that the questions are written in a clear and concise manner, with a stem that accurately reflects the knowledge and skills that are being assessed. The answer options should be well-differentiated and plausible, and the correct answer should be defensible and based on sound clinical reasoning.

Another important principle is to ensure that the MCQs cover a representative sample of the knowledge and skills that are required for the specific exam or assessment. This means that the questions should be designed to test both basic and advanced knowledge, and they should cover a range of topics and clinical scenarios. The questions should also be designed to test different levels of cognitive complexity, from simple recall of facts to higher-order thinking and problem-solving.

There are several different types of MCQs that can be used to assess doctors, each with its own advantages and disadvantages. One common type is the single best answer MCQ, where the stem is followed by several options, only one of which is the correct answer. This type of MCQ is relatively straightforward to write and grade, and it is useful for testing basic knowledge and clinical reasoning.

Another type of MCQ is the extended matching item (EMI), which consists of a list of options that are matched to several stems or clinical scenarios. This type of MCQ is useful for testing a broad range of knowledge and skills, and it can be particularly effective for testing diagnostic reasoning and clinical decision-making.

A third type of MCQ is the key feature question (KFQ), which is designed to test the ability to identify important clinical features and to make appropriate management decisions. This type of MCQ is useful for testing advanced knowledge and clinical reasoning, and it can be particularly effective for testing the ability to integrate multiple pieces of information and to make complex decisions.

Regardless of the type of MCQ used, it is important to ensure that the questions are of high quality and that they accurately reflect the knowledge and skills required for the specific exam or assessment. This requires careful attention to the design and development of the questions, as well as rigorous testing and validation to ensure that they are reliable, valid, and useful.

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