5000 Plus MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists are designed to test the knowledge and proficiency of laboratory professionals who work in the field of clinical laboratory science. These questions cover a wide range of topics related to laboratory science, including anatomy, physiology, microbiology, chemistry, and hematology.
4101 to 4150 MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologist Exam Preparation
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Questions 4101 to 4150
Hydroxyurea increases the serum uric acid levels
- a) True
- b) False
- c) Both
- d) None
Decitabine increases the fetal hemoglobin production by inducing methylation of DNA and thus prevents the switch from gamma to beta-globin production.
- a) True
- b) False
- c) Both
- d) None
Hypocupremia is seen in
- a) Osteoporosis, nephrotic disease
- b) Sprue, celiac disease
- c) Cardiovascular disease, colon cancer
- d) A and B
- e) B and C
- f) All of the above
Wilson’s disease can cause liver problems
- a) True
- b) False
- c) Both
- d) None
What are the treatment options for Wilson’s disease?
- a) Pencillamine
- b) Riboflavin
- c) Trientine
- d) Potassium disulfide
- e) Zinc
- f) A, B and C
- g) A, C, and D
- h) A, C, D, and E
Aplasia can occur because of riboflavin deficiency?
- a) True
- b) False
- c) Both
- d) None
Angular stomatitis/cheilosis is a symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency?
- a) True
- b) False
- c) Both
- d) None
What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body?
- a) Hemosiderin
- b) Ferritin
- c) Transferrin
- d) Hemoglobin
Which test can be used to detect hemolytic anemia?
- a) Coombs test
- b) Genetic testing
- c) Peripheral blood smear (PBS)
- d) Schilling test
Which anemia is classified as not being able to use iron properly to synthesize hemoglobin because of an inherited cause?
- a) Iron deficiency anemia
- b) Hypochromic anemia
- c) Aplastic anemia
What is normal fasting blood sugar?
- a) 100-200
- b) 70-110
- c) 90-120
- d) None
This fatal disorder results from clot/thrombus formation in the blood circulation
- a) Thromboembolism
- b) DVT
- c) PAD
- d) Pulmonary embolism
- e) All of the above
Homan’s sign is classified as pain behind the knee
- a) True
- b) False
- c) None
Patients that are sensitive to aspirin can take
- a) Sulfinpyrazone
- b) Clopidogrel
- c) Ticlopidine
- d) 1 and 2
- e) 2 and 3
What is the life span of RBC?
- a) 120
- b) 100
- c) 200
- d) 80
What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body?
- a) Hemosiderin
- b) Ferritin
- c) Transferrin
- d) Hemoglobin
The most common type of protein found in the cell membrane is:
- a) Lipoprotein
- b) Mucoprotein
- c) Glycoprotein
- d) Nucleoprotein
A multilineage cytokine among the ILs is
- a) IL-1
- b) IL-2
- c) IL-3
- d) IL-4
Warfarin should be used with caution in the following:
- a) Alcoholic liver disease
- b) Gastrointestinal bleeding
- c) Recent neurosurgery
- d) Liver impairment
Isozymes of 2C can greatly affect warfarin
- a) True
- b) False
- c) None
Absolute lymphocytosis (≥5000/mm³) without adenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, thrombocytopenia is what stage in CLL prognosis (Rai Staging System)?
- a) Stage 0
- b) Stage I
- c) Stage II
- d) Stage III
- e) Stage IV
Conventional treatment for Rai stage II is
- a) Antibiotics
- b) Chemotherapy
- c) Antivirals
- d) Rest
In patients with low numbers of neoplastic cells, sometimes due to treatment, PCR to amplify DNA can improve sensitivity, and detect signs of relapse.
- a) True
- b) False
- c) None
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is most common leukemia in what kind of people? (Slide 4)
- a) Young adults
- b) Older adults
- c) None
Absolute lymphocytosis and thrombocytopenia (<100,000/mm³) with or without lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, or anemia is what stage in CLL prognosis (Rai Staging System)?
- a) Stage 0
- b) Stage I
- c) Stage II
- d) Stage III
- e) Stage IV
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia is characterized by peripheral blood and bone marrow:
- a) Lymphocytopenia
- b) Lymphocytosis
Absolute lymphocytosis with either hepatomegaly or splenomegaly, with or without lymphadenopathy, is what stage in CLL prognosis (Rai Staging System)?
- a) Stage 0
- b) Stage II
- c) Stage II
- d) Stage II
- e) Stage IV
Absolute lymphocytosis without lymphadenopathy, without hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, or thrombocytopenia is what stage in CLL prognosis (Rai Staging System)?
- a) Stage 0
- b) Stage I
- c) Stage II
- d) Stage II
- e) Stage IV
In Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia, the lymphocyte appearance: small or slightly larger than normal, hyper-condensed nuclear chromatin pattern, bare nuclei called “smudge cells” are common.
- a) Soccer-ball
- b) Basketball
- c) Football
- d) Tennis-ball
Which of the following forms of Hh molecule has the lowest affinity for oxygen?
- a) Tense
- b) Relaxed
- c) Arterial
- d) Venous
What is the recommended cleaner for removing all oil from objective lens?
- a) 70% alcohol or lens cleaner
- b) Xylene
- c) Water
- d) Benzene
Intravascular hemolysis is the result of trauma to RBCs while in the circulation.
- a) True
- b) False
Blood Hb level changes in morning and evening time.
- a) 1 gm%
- b) 2 gm%
- c) 1.5 Gm%
- d) 2.5 gm%
The shape of a cell is maintained by which of the following?
- a) Microtubules
- b) Spindle Fibers
- c) Ribosomes
- d) Centrioles
At which month of fetal development does the bone marrow become the primary site of hematopoiesis?
- a) 2nd
- b) 5th
- c) End of 6th month
- d) End of 7th month
Which types of cells develop from yolk sac (Mesoblastic phase)?
- a) Hb F, Hg A2, and Hg A
- b) Gower 1 and Gower 2 Hgb
- c) Portland Hgb
- d) Only Erythroblast
Which of the following viruses are NOT cultivable on tissue cultures?
- a) Rubeola
- b) Hepatitis B virus
- c) Respiratory Syncytial Virus
- d) Ebola virus
Which of the following statement regarding sensitivity and specificity of a test is TRUE?
- a) A highly sensitive test would have least number of false negative results
- b) A highly specific test would have least number of false negative results
- c) A poorly sensitive test would have more number of true positives
- d) A poorly specific test would have more number of true positives
Von Magnus phenomenon in virus replication is:
- a) Production of non-infective daughter virions
- b) No release of daughter virions after replication
- c) Production of ghost virions after replication
- d) Production of low infectivity daughter virions
Which of the following cells is known as Large Granular Lymphocytes?
- a) Plasma cells
- b) NK cells
- c) T-cells
- d) K-cells
Which of the following is a Pan T-cell marker?
- a) CD-2
- b) CD3
- c) CD19
- d) CD25
Which of the following is NOT a tick-borne hemorrhagic fever?
- a) Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever
- b) Omsk hemorrhagic fever
- c) Kyasanur forest disease
- d) Yellow fever
Which of the following statement is TRUE about light and heavy chains of Ig molecule?
- a) Coded in the same site of a chromosome
- b) Coded in the different site of a chromosome
- c) The chains are formed by genetic rearrangement after maturation
- d) Different chains of same Ig are coded by same chromosome
A parasite that must spend at least part of its life cycle on or in a host is called:
- a) Facultative parasite
- b) Hyperparasite
- c) Obligate parasite
- d) Pathogenic parasite
Which of the following antiviral agent is part of HAART (Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy)?
- a) Lamivudine
- b) Amprenavir
- c) Saquinavir
- d) Delavirdine
Acute and highly infectious Hepatitis B Virus infection will have serological profile as:
- a) HBsAg +, HBeAg +, Anti-HBcIgM -, Anti-HBs -, Anti-HBe –
- b) HBsAg +, HBeAg +, Anti-HBcIgM +, Anti-HBs -, Anti-HBe –
- c) HBsAg -, HBeAg -, Anti-HBcIgM -, Anti-HBs +, Anti-HBe –
- d) HBsAg -, HBeAg -, Anti-HBcIgG -, Anti-HBs +, Anti-HBe +
Lesions on genitalia in case of Chancroid have characteristic features of:
- a) It is painless, circumscribed, indurated, superficial ulcer
- b) Multiple painful and tender vesicular lesions
- c) Painless, granulomatous nodule producing deep red sharply defined ulcer
- d) Multiple, tender, painful, purulent, ragged edges of ulcers
Which of the following is NOT causing infection in fetuses?
- a) Toxoplasma gondii
- b) Parvovirus B19
- c) Reovirus
- d) Rubella virus
Which of the following is NOT a gene of HIV-1?
- a) Nef
- b) Vpx
- c) Rev
- d) Vif
Which of the following is NOT a human infection caused by slow viruses?
- a) Visna
- b) PML
- c) Kuru
- d) CJ disease
Answer Key Summary
The questions are typically designed to assess the technical skills and knowledge required for the laboratory profession, including the ability to analyze laboratory test results, perform laboratory procedures, and maintain laboratory equipment.
To prepare for these MCQs, candidates should have a thorough understanding of the key concepts and principles of laboratory science. They should also be familiar with common laboratory equipment and procedures, as well as laboratory safety protocols.
Candidates may also benefit from studying specific laboratory science textbooks or taking online courses that cover the material tested in the MCQs. Additionally, practicing sample MCQs and reviewing the answers can help candidates identify areas where they may need to improve their knowledge or skills.
Overall, the MCQs for lab technologists are designed to be challenging and comprehensive, requiring candidates to demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the field of laboratory science.
