This mock test on analytic procedures for mycology is specifically designed for medical laboratory technologists, microbiologists, and students preparing for global certification exams such as ASCP MLS, AMT MLT/MT, AIMS, CSMLS, IBMS, HAAD/DOH, DHA, and MOH . The test contains 85 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) focusing on fungal staining methods, direct microscopic techniques, specialized culture media, antigen detection, molecular diagnostics, and safety precautions in mycology labs. Practicing these questions helps build confidence, strengthen concepts, and prepare for real exam scenarios in clinical microbiology.
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ASCP MLS Exam MCQs Chapter 17
This Mock test on analytic procedures for mycology provides another set of challenging questions for advanced learners and laboratory professionals. The 85 MCQs focus on complex fungal identification methods, dimorphic fungi, morphological structures, molecular testing, and advanced diagnostic tools used in clinical laboratories. This practice resource is ideal for candidates preparing for ASCP MLS, AMT MLT/MT, AIMS, CSMLS, IBMS, HAAD/DOH, DHA, and MOH licensing exams , helping enhance problem-solving skills and real-world application of mycology concepts.
🔹 Simulate the Real Exam : Beat test-day nerves with timed conditions.
🔹 Track Your Progress : Review performance analytics to identify strengths and weaknesses.
🔹 Master Time Management : Sharpen your pacing skills under pressure.
🔹 Learn from Mistakes : Detailed answer explanations help you refine your understanding.
Ideal for final readiness checks , this mock test ensures you walk into the exam prepared, confident, and ready to excel! 🚀
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which clinical sample is most appropriate for diagnosing pulmonary aspergillosis?
Pulmonary aspergillosis (e.g., invasive aspergillosis, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis/ABPA) is best diagnosed using lower respiratory samples :
Sputum : Non-invasive but may lack sensitivity.
Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) : Gold standard for invasive disease ; allows direct microscopy (hyphae), culture, and molecular tests (e.g., Aspergillus PCR/Galactomannan ELISA).
Microscopy : Septate, 45° branching hyphae (KOH, Calcofluor white, or GMS stain).
Culture : Grows on Sabouraud agar (e.g., Aspergillus fumigatus shows green conidia).
Why Not the Others? a) Hair – Used for dermatophytes (e.g., Trichophyton ), not systemic molds.
b) Nail clippings – Diagnoses onychomycosis , not pulmonary infections.
d) Urine – Used for Histoplasma antigen testing, not aspergillosis.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Medium used to verify purity of a yeast isolate from blood culture is:
CHROMagar™ Candida is a chromogenic differential medium designed to:
Verify the purity of yeast isolates, especially Candida species .
Differentiate multiple Candida species based on colony color (e.g., Candida albicans appears green, Candida tropicalis blue-purple, Candida krusei pink with fuzzy edges).
It’s especially useful in detecting mixed infections or contamination by showing different colony colors .
Why not the others? a) Sabouraud dextrose agar – Supports general fungal growth but doesn’t differentiate species.
b) Potato dextrose agar – Promotes sporulation and pigmentation; not ideal for verifying purity.
c) Cornmeal agar – Used for microscopic morphology (e.g., chlamydospore formation in C. albicans ), not for confirming culture purity.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which laboratory method best demonstrates fungal viability and morphology simultaneously?
Sabouraud dextrose agar (SDA) is the gold standard for demonstrating both:
Viability : Only live fungi grow, forming visible colonies.
Morphology : Colonies show characteristic color/texture, while microscopy (e.g., lactophenol cotton blue) reveals hyphae, spores, or yeast forms.
Supports growth of most pathogenic fungi (e.g., Candida , dermatophytes, dimorphic fungi).
Why Not the Others? a) Gram staining – Shows fungal structures but cannot confirm viability (stains dead/live cells alike).
c) Saline wet mount – Reveals morphology but cannot prove viability (no growth observed).
d) Acid-fast stain – Used for Mycobacterium ; fungi are not acid-fast.
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ASCP Exam Questions
What is the preferred method to confirm mold identification in the laboratory?
The gold standard for mold identification involves microscopic analysis of reproductive structures (e.g., conidiophores, spores, hyphae) using:
Why Not the Other Options? a) Observation of colony pigmentation – Helpful for preliminary clues (e.g., Aspergillus niger is black), but not definitive due to variability.
b) Direct inoculation onto blood agar – Used for bacterial cultures, not molds (fungi grow better on Sabouraud dextrose agar ).
d) Gram staining and catalase testing – Used for bacteria , not fungi (molds are Gram-variable and catalase testing is irrelevant).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which medium enhances sporulation of molds for microscopic identification?
Potato dextrose agar (PDA) is a nutrient-rich fungal medium that enhances sporulation in molds, making it ideal for microscopic identification of fungal structures like conidia, spores, and hyphae .
The carbohydrates in PDA stimulate robust fungal growth and promote characteristic sporulation patterns (e.g., Aspergillus , Penicillium , dermatophytes).
Its slightly acidic pH (~5.6) also inhibits many bacteria, favoring fungal isolation.
Why Not the Others? a) Blood agar – Supports fungal growth but lacks specific nutrients to induce sporulation; primarily used for bacterial cultures.
c) MacConkey agar – Selective for Gram-negative bacteria; inhibits most fungi.
d) Thayer-Martin agar – Selective for Neisseria gonorrhoeae (bacteria); contains antibiotics that suppress fungi.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A mold with “salt and pepper” colonies at 2 days and LPCB stain showing sporangiophores is:
“Salt and pepper” colonies : This refers to a rapidly growing mold with both light and dark areas on the colony surface, typical of Zygomycetes , especially Rhizopus .
LPCB (Lactophenol Cotton Blue) stain showing sporangiophores :
Rhizopus produces large sporangiophores with sporangia (sac-like structures containing spores), characteristic of Zygomycetes .
Sporangiophores often arise from rhizoids , which help in differentiating Rhizopus from other genera.
Other options: a. Aspergillus – Produces conidiophores , not sporangiophores.
b. Cunninghamella – Belongs to Zygomycetes too but has vesicles with single-spored sporangiola , not typical “salt and pepper” colonies.
c. Fusarium – Produces macroconidia and microconidia , not sporangiophores.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which test detects urease production by yeast isolates?
The urease test is used to detect the enzyme urease , which breaks down urea into ammonia and CO₂, causing a pH shift that turns Christensen’s urea agar pink-red (positive result).
This test helps differentiate yeasts like:
Why not the others? a) Germ tube test – Identifies Candida albicans by tube-like hyphae formation, not urease.
c) Sugar fermentation test – Assesses carbohydrate utilization, not urease activity.
d) Slide agglutination test – Detects antigens (e.g., for Cryptococcus latex agglutination), not enzymes.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which temperature range is optimal for most pathogenic fungal cultures?
Most pathogenic fungi infect humans and thus thrive at body temperature , which is around 37°C . Therefore, 37–40°C is the optimal temperature range for culturing pathogenic fungi , such as Candida , Histoplasma , and Cryptococcus .
4°C is refrigeration temperature — used for storage, not growth.
25–30°C is optimal for environmental molds or saprophytic fungi (like Penicillium , Aspergillus in environmental studies).
50°C is too high and inhibits growth of most fungi.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which fungal structure is associated with Aspergillus identification?
Aspergillus species are identified microscopically by their unique asexual reproductive structures :
Conidiophore : A tall, unbranched stalk.
Vesicle : A swollen apex at the tip of the conidiophore.
Phialides : Flask-shaped cells that produce chains of conidia (spores) , radiating from the vesicle.
This arrangement is diagnostic for Aspergillus (e.g., A. fumigatus , A. flavus ).
Why Not the Others? a) Sporangium – Found in Zygomycetes (e.g., Rhizopus ), not Aspergillus.
c) Pseudohyphae – Seen in Candida species, not molds like Aspergillus.
d) Chlamydospores – Produced by some Candida species (e.g., C. albicans ), not Aspergillus.
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ASCP Exam Questions
To confirm an unknown mold is a pathogenic dimorphic fungus, use:
Dimorphic fungi (e.g., Histoplasma capsulatum , Blastomyces dermatitidis , Coccidioides immitis ) are identified by their temperature-dependent phase transition :
Procedure :
Culture at 25–30°C to observe mold morphology (e.g., tuberculate macroconidia in Histoplasma ).
Subculture at 37°C to confirm conversion to yeast/spherules.
Why Not the Others? a) Animal inoculation : Rarely used today due to ethical concerns and slower turnaround vs. culture.
c) Sexual/asexual reproduction : Useful for taxonomic classification but not diagnostic for dimorphism.
d) Molecular testing : Rapid (e.g., PCR for Histoplasma ), but conversion remains the gold standard for phenotypic confirmation.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The greatest risk for coccidioidomycosis is in:
Coccidioidomycosis , also known as Valley Fever , is caused by the dimorphic fungi Coccidioides immitis and Coccidioides posadasii . These fungi are endemic to arid regions of the southwestern United States , particularly:
Migrant farm workers in these areas are at increased risk due to:
Other options: a. Missouri cattle ranchers – Not an endemic area.
b. Wyoming rabbit ranchers – Not an endemic area.
d. Pregnant women with house cats – Not a risk group for coccidioidomycosis (but a concern in toxoplasmosis ).
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ASCP Exam Questions
The most sensitive initial test for cryptococcal disease is:
Cryptococcal antigen (CrAg) testing (e.g., lateral flow assay [LFA] or latex agglutination ) is the most sensitive initial test for cryptococcal disease, particularly in HIV-infected patients with suspected meningitis or disseminated infection:
Sensitivity :
Specificity : >99% for both methods.
Advantages : Rapid (10–15 minutes for LFA), point-of-care compatible, and detects early/subclinical infection (e.g., CrAg-positive blood before meningitis symptoms) .
Why Not the Others? a) India ink :
b) Gram stain :
d) Giemsa stain :
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ASCP Exam Questions
Sabouraud dextrose agar is commonly used for fungal culture because:
Sabouraud dextrose agar (SDA) is specifically designed for fungal cultivation due to:
Other options are incorrect because:
a) SDA does not contain high lipids.
c) It supports a wide range of fungi, not just dermatophytes.
d) It does not enhance bacterial pigmentation (in fact, it suppresses bacterial growth).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Caffeic acid media shows brown pigment production with a yeast isolate. This identifies:
Caffeic acid agar (or “birdseed agar”) is a selective medium used to identify Cryptococcus neoformans based on its phenoloxidase activity :
The yeast produces melanin from caffeic acid, turning colonies brown to black .
This test is highly specific for C. neoformans and C. gattii (other yeasts remain cream-colored).
Clinical relevance : C. neoformans is a major cause of meningitis in immunocompromised patients (e.g., HIV/AIDS).
Why Not the Others? a) Candida albicans – Forms green colonies on chromogenic agar but does not produce melanin.
b) Candida glabrata – Small, white colonies; phenoloxidase-negative.
c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae – No melanin production; used in brewing/baking.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The best method for preserving fungal morphology for microscopic identification is:
Lactophenol cotton blue (LPCB) is the gold standard for preserving and staining fungal structures for microscopic examination.
Lactic acid preserves fungal morphology.
Phenol kills the fungus, preventing further growth.
Cotton blue stains the fungal elements (hyphae, spores, conidia) for better visibility.
It provides excellent detail of septations, spores, and conidial arrangements , crucial for identifying molds like Aspergillus , Penicillium , and dermatophytes.
Why not the others? a) Wet mount with saline – Temporary, lacks staining, and does not preserve structures well.
c) Gram stain – Primarily for bacteria; fungi may stain but morphology is less clear.
d) Ziehl-Neelsen stain – Used for acid-fast bacteria (e.g., Mycobacterium ), not fungi.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which fungal genus is characterized by producing arthroconidia in culture?
Coccidioides immitis/posadasii is unique among pathogenic fungi for producing arthroconidia (barrel-shaped, alternate disjunctor cells) in its environmental mold phase :
Culture at 25–30°C : Hyphae fragment into arthroconidia , which are highly infectious when inhaled.
Tissue phase (37°C) : Converts to spherules containing endospores (not arthroconidia).
Microscopy : Lactophenol cotton blue (LPCB) shows rectangular arthroconidia with empty spaces (disjunctor cells) between them.
Why Not the Others? b) Cryptococcus – Encapsulated yeast; no arthroconidia.
c) Histoplasma – Produces microconidia and tuberculate macroconidia in mold phase.
d) Blastomyces – Forms lollipop-like conidiophores with pyriform conidia .
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following best describes dimorphic fungi?
Dimorphic fungi exhibit temperature-dependent morphological changes :
Yeast form (37°C) : Found in human tissues (e.g., Histoplasma capsulatum , Blastomyces dermatitidis ).
Mold form (25°C) : Found in the environment (soil, decaying matter).
Why not the others? a) Incorrect – Dimorphic fungi do not grow only as yeast; they switch forms.
c) Incorrect – They are visible under a light microscope (no need for electron microscopy).
d) Incorrect – While special stains (e.g., GMS, PAS) help visualize them, dimorphism itself is defined by temperature-dependent shape-shifting , not staining.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which fungal structure is commonly used for microscopic identification of molds?
Conidia are asexual, non-motile spores of fungi that are commonly used for microscopic identification of molds . They are produced by various molds (like Aspergillus , Penicillium , etc.) and have distinctive shapes, sizes, and arrangements that help in identifying fungal species under a microscope.
Endospores are produced by certain bacteria (not fungi).
Capsule and flagella are structures associated mainly with bacteria, not molds.
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ASCP Exam Questions
What is the role of cycloheximide in fungal culture media?
Cycloheximide (also known as actidione ) is an antifungal agent added to selective fungal culture media (e.g., Sabouraud dextrose agar with cycloheximide ) for the following purposes:
Suppresses saprophytic fungi – Many environmental molds (e.g., Aspergillus , Penicillium ) are sensitive to cycloheximide, allowing pathogenic fungi (e.g., Histoplasma , Blastomyces , dermatophytes) to grow preferentially.
Inhibits some bacteria – While primarily antifungal, it also has mild antibacterial effects, further reducing contamination.
Why Not the Other Options? a) Incorrect – Cycloheximide does not enhance sporulation; it suppresses fast-growing contaminants.
c) Incorrect – It is not a stain ; it’s an inhibitory agent.
d) Incorrect – Germ tube production (e.g., in Candida albicans ) occurs in serum media , not cycloheximide-containing media.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The India ink preparation is primarily used for the identification of:
The India ink preparation is a rapid microscopic technique used to detect Cryptococcus neoformans (and other Cryptococcus species) in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or other clinical samples.
Key Features: Visualizes the capsule : The ink particles cannot penetrate the thick polysaccharide capsule of C. neoformans , creating a clear halo around the yeast cells against a dark background.
Used for presumptive diagnosis of cryptococcal meningitis (though antigen tests like CRAG are now more sensitive).
Why Not the Others? b) Candida tropicalis – No capsule; identified via germ tube tests or chromogenic agar.
c) Aspergillus fumigatus – Seen as septate hyphae (KOH mount or calcofluor white).
d) Histoplasma capsulatum – Intracellular yeast in macrophages (stained with GMS or Wright-Giemsa ).
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ASCP Exam Questions
A sputum specimen from a patient with a known Klebsiella pneumoniae infection is received for fungus culture. The proper procedure is to:
Selective fungal media (e.g., Sabouraud dextrose agar with antibiotics ) are designed to:
Chloramphenicol : Inhibits bacteria (including Klebsiella ).
Cycloheximide : Suppresses saprophytic fungi (e.g., Penicillium , Aspergillus ), allowing pathogenic fungi (e.g., Candida , Histoplasma ) to grow.
This approach maximizes recovery of clinically relevant fungi despite bacterial contamination.
Why Not the Others? a) Rejecting the specimen – Unnecessary; fungal infections can coexist with bacterial infections (e.g., Candida in sputum).
b) Room-temperature incubation – Inhibits some bacteria but also delays growth of systemic fungi (e.g., Histoplasma prefers 30°C).
d) PAS stain rejection – Microscopy may miss low fungal loads; culture is more sensitive.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The preferred specimen for diagnosing dermatophyte infections is:
Dermatophytes are fungi that infect keratinized tissues such as the skin, hair, and nails .
Skin scrapings and hair (or nail clippings) are the best specimens because they contain the fungal hyphae and spores, which can be examined microscopically (e.g., with KOH prep) or cultured for diagnosis.
a) Urine sample – Not relevant for dermatophyte infections.
c) Blood sample – Dermatophytes do not typically cause systemic infections.
d) Nasal swab – Used for respiratory infections, not skin/hair fungal infections.
Thus, skin scrapings and hair are the standard specimens for diagnosing dermatophytosis (e.g., ringworm, athlete’s foot).
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ASCP Exam Questions
A mold at 25°C has conidiophores with oval conidia; at 37°C, it produces cigar-shaped yeast cells. The organism is:
Sporothrix schenckii is a dimorphic fungus with the following characteristics:
At 25°C (mold phase):
Produces delicate, slender conidiophores .
Conidia are oval or “flower-like” (rosette) in arrangement.
At 37°C (yeast phase):
Forms cigar-shaped yeast cells , which are a hallmark feature.
Found in tissue or culture incubated at body temperature.
This dimorphism is diagnostic of Sporothrix schenckii , the causative agent of sporotrichosis (“rose gardener’s disease”).
Why not the others? a. Histoplasma capsulatum – Yeast cells are small and intracellular, not cigar-shaped.
c. Blastomyces dermatitidis – Yeast phase shows broad-based budding , not cigar-shaped.
d. Acremonium falciforme – Not a dimorphic fungus and does not form cigar-shaped yeast cells.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A mold from a bone marrow culture produces a red pigment. It should be suspected as:
Talaromyces marneffei (formerly Penicillium marneffei ) is a dimorphic fungus that is especially notable for:
Producing a characteristic red pigment on culture media at 25°C (mold phase)
Causing systemic infection in immunocompromised patients , particularly in Southeast Asia
Growing as yeast-like cells at 37°C (in tissue and body fluids like bone marrow)
Why not the others? a. Blastomyces dermatitidis – Dimorphic, but does not produce red pigment .
b. Aspergillus niger – Produces black colonies , not red.
d. Rhizopus species – Produces white to grayish colonies , not red.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which stain is most useful for detecting fungal elements in histopathological tissue sections?
The Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain is the gold standard for detecting fungal elements in tissue sections because it specifically stains polysaccharides in fungal cell walls (chitin, glucans, and mannans), making fungi appear magenta/pink against a light background.
PAS highlights hyphae, yeast cells, and spores clearly, even in low fungal loads, and is especially useful for diagnosing invasive fungal infections (e.g., Aspergillus , Candida , Mucor ).
Why Not the Others? a) Giemsa stain – Mainly for blood parasites (e.g., malaria) and some bacteria; fungi may stain poorly.
c) Gram stain – Primarily for bacteria; fungi (if stained) appear Gram-positive but lack structural detail.
d) Safranin stain – Used in microbiology for bacterial capsules or endospores, not optimized for fungi.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Dermatophytes are best differentiated based on:
Dermatophytes (e.g., Trichophyton , Microsporum , Epidermophyton ) are primarily identified by their microscopic morphology and macroscopic colony characteristics on fungal-specific media (e.g., Sabouraud dextrose agar, potato dextrose agar).
Microscopic features : Shape and arrangement of macroconidia , microconidia , and hyphae (e.g., Microsporum has spindle-shaped macroconidia, Epidermophyton produces smooth-walled club-shaped macroconidia).
Macroscopic features : Colony color, texture, and growth rate.
Why Not the Others? a) Blood culture results – Dermatophytes rarely invade blood; they infect keratinized tissues (skin, hair, nails).
c) Gram reaction and motility – Fungi are Gram-positive but nonmotile; these traits don’t differentiate dermatophytes.
d) Antigen detection in CSF – Used for systemic fungi (e.g., Cryptococcus ), not dermatophytes
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ASCP Exam Questions
A corneal isolate grows white/violet on Sabouraud agar and shows slender sickle-shaped macroconidia. It is:
A corneal isolate growing white to violet colonies and showing slender, sickle- or canoe-shaped macroconidia is characteristic of Fusarium species.
🔬 Key identifying features of Fusarium : Colony color : Often white, lavender, or violet on Sabouraud dextrose agar.
Microscopy :
Large, multicelled, sickle- or banana-shaped macroconidia .
Frequently also has small microconidia .
Common cause of keratitis (corneal infections) and mycotic keratitis , especially in tropical or agricultural settings.
❌ Why not the others? a. Acremonium : Produces slimy phialides with small conidia , no sickle-shaped macroconidia .
b. Aspergillus : Has conidial heads with chains of conidia, not sickle-shaped spores.
d. Geotrichum : Produces arthroconidia (rectangular cells in chains), not macroconidia.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which safety level is recommended for handling systemic pathogenic fungi?
Systemic pathogenic fungi (e.g., Histoplasma capsulatum , Coccidioides immitis , Blastomyces dermatitidis ) require Biosafety Level 3 (BSL-3) containment due to:
BSL-3 practices include:
Class II/III biological safety cabinets for all procedures.
Negative pressure labs with HEPA-filtered exhaust.
Respiratory protection (N95 masks) and double-door access controls .
Why Not the Others? a) BSL-1 – For non-pathogenic microbes (e.g., Saccharomyces cerevisiae ).
b) BSL-2 – For moderate-risk pathogens (e.g., Candida , dermatophytes); insufficient for systemic dimorphic fungi .
d) BSL-4 – Reserved for lethal airborne viruses (e.g., Ebola), not fungi.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The major advantage of using chromogenic agar for Candida species is:
Chromogenic agar (e.g., CHROMagar™ Candida) contains substrates that react with species-specific enzymes , producing distinct colony colors :
Candida albicans : Light to dark green
Candida tropicalis : Blue with pink halo
Candida krusei : Pink/fuzzy
Candida glabrata : White/purple
Allows rapid presumptive ID directly from primary culture (within 24–48 hours).
Why Not the Others? a) Eliminates bacteria – While chromogenic agar may include antibiotics, its primary purpose is fungal differentiation , not bacterial suppression.
c) Speeds spore germination – Color change is due to enzymatic activity, not germination rate.
d) Enhances hyphae – Designed for yeast (Candida), not mold, identification.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A slow-growing black mold with cladosporium, phialophora, and fonsecaea sporulation is:
Fonsecaea pedrosoi is a slow-growing dematiaceous (dark-pigmented) fungus associated with chromoblastomycosis , a chronic fungal infection of the skin and subcutaneous tissue.
It shows multiple types of sporulation , including:
Cladosporium-type
Phialophora-type
Fonsecaea-type
This polymorphic sporulation pattern is characteristic of Fonsecaea pedrosoi and helps in its identification in the lab.
Other options:
b. Pseudallescheria boydii – Not dematiaceous, and does not show the same sporulation types.
c. Phialophora verrucosa – Shows only Phialophora-type sporulation.
d. Cladosporium carrionii – Shows Cladosporium-type sporulation only.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Calcofluor white stain is used in fungal microscopy because it:
Calcofluor white is a fluorescent dye that binds to chitin and cellulose in fungal cell walls, causing them to glow bright blue-white or apple-green under UV light microscopy .
This enhances detection of hyphae, yeast cells, and spores even in low concentrations or mixed with debris.
Often combined with KOH to clear background material while highlighting fungi.
Why Not the Others? a) Stains fungal elements red – Describes PAS stain , not Calcofluor white.
c) Dissolves tissue background – This is the role of KOH , not the dye itself.
d) Selectively kills bacteria – Calcofluor white has no antimicrobial properties.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A dense grayish growth filling the container like “cotton candy” on day 3 is likely a:
Zygomycetes (e.g., Rhizopus , Mucor , Lichtheimia ) often produce rapid, cotton candy-like growth within 48–72 hours , characterized by:
Dense, grayish aerial mycelium filling the culture container.
Non-septate (coenocytic) hyphae visible under microscopy.
Sporangia containing sporangiospores (absent in dermatophytes/dimorphic molds).
This morphology contrasts with slower-growing molds like dermatophytes or dimorphic fungi.
Why Not the Others? a) Dermatophyte : Grows slower (1–2 weeks), with powdery or velvety colonies (e.g., Trichophyton ).
b) Dimorphic mold : At 25–30°C, dimorphic fungi (e.g., Histoplasma ) form mold colonies with micro/macroconidia , not fluffy hyphae.
d) Dematiaceous mold : Pigmented (brown/black), with septate hyphae (e.g., Cladosporium ).
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ASCP Exam Questions
The primary method to diagnose Histoplasma capsulatum in tissue sections is:
Histoplasma capsulatum appears in tissues as small (2–4 µm), oval, intracellular yeasts , primarily within macrophages.
Giemsa stain highlights the yeast forms within phagocytic cells , showing purple nuclei and blue cytoplasm.
Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) and Grocott’s methenamine silver (GMS) stains are also used to clearly visualize the yeast cell walls (magenta with PAS, black with GMS).
Why Not the Others? a) Acid-fast stain – Used for Mycobacterium , not fungi (though Histoplasma may rarely show weak acid-fastness).
b) Direct Gram staining – Fungi may appear Gram-positive but lack specificity for Histoplasma .
d) Lactophenol cotton blue (LPCB) – Used for mold identification in culture , not tissue sections.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which stain is most commonly used to visualize fungal elements in direct microscopic examination?
Lactophenol cotton blue (LPCB) is the most commonly used stain for visualizing fungal elements in direct microscopic examination. It stains the chitin in fungal cell walls, making hyphae and spores clearly visible.
Gram stain (a) is mainly used for bacteria, though some fungi (like yeasts) may also appear Gram-positive.
Wright-Giemsa stain (c) is used for blood smears and some parasites, not typically for fungi.
Ziehl-Neelsen stain (d) is used for acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis , not fungi.
Thus, LPCB is the best choice for fungal microscopy.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which fungal test differentiates Candida albicans from Candida glabrata based on sugar fermentation and assimilation profiles?
The carbohydrate assimilation test is a biochemical method that distinguishes Candida species by their ability to utilize specific sugars as carbon sources.
Candida albicans : Ferments and assimilates glucose, maltose, and sucrose , but not lactose .
Candida glabrata : Assimilates glucose and trehalose , but not sucrose or maltose .
Commercial systems (e.g., API 20C AUX , VITEK 2 YST ) automate this profiling for rapid ID.
Why Not the Others? a) Germ tube test – Positive only for C. albicans (not C. glabrata ), but does not assess sugar use.
c) Urease test – Negative for both C. albicans and C. glabrata (useful for Cryptococcus ).
d) Cornmeal agar – Shows pseudohyphae/chlamydospores in C. albicans (absent in C. glabrata ), but does not test sugars.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Fungal serological tests detect:
Fungal serological tests are used to diagnose infections by detecting:
Fungal antigens (e.g., Cryptococcal capsular polysaccharide , Histoplasma galactomannan , Aspergillus galactomannan ).
Host antibodies (e.g., Coccidioides IgM/IgG, Blastomyces antibodies).
These tests are critical for systemic mycoses where cultures may be slow or negative (e.g., histoplasmosis, cryptococcosis).
Why Not the Others? a) Bacterial toxins – Detected by assays like ELISA (e.g., Clostridium difficile toxin), not fungal serology.
c) Viral RNA – Identified via PCR, not serology.
d) Mycotoxins in food – Analyzed by chromatography/mass spectrometry, not patient serum tests.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A dematiaceous mold from a foot wound with chaining macroconidia (longitudinal/horizontal septations) is:
This morphology is distinctive for Alternaria , especially in tissue infections like phaeohyphomycosis or chromoblastomycosis .
Other options: b. Curvularia – Produces curved conidia , but not typically muriform (no longitudinal septations).
c. Paecilomyces – Produces elongated phialoconidia , not dematiaceous , and no chaining macroconidia.
d. Scopulariopsis – Produces lemon-shaped conidia , not darkly pigmented or muriform.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which test helps differentiate Candida albicans from other Candida species?
The germ tube test is a rapid and specific test used to identify Candida albicans by detecting its ability to form germ tubes (hyphal projections) within 2–4 hours when incubated in serum (e.g., human or fetal bovine serum).
Why not the others? a) Urease test : Used to differentiate Cryptococcus (urease-positive) from Candida species (usually urease-negative).
c) Coagulase test : Used for Staphylococcus (e.g., S. aureus), not Candida.
d) Oxidase test : Used for bacteria like Pseudomonas , not fungi.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A positive germ tube test after 2–3 hours in serum indicates:
The germ tube test is a rapid and specific test for Candida albicans , the most common pathogenic yeast in clinical infections.
When incubated in human serum at 37°C for 2–3 hours , C. albicans produces germ tubes (short, filamentous extensions without constrictions at their base).
This test is highly specific for C. albicans and helps differentiate it from other Candida species (e.g., C. tropicalis , C. glabrata ), which do not form true germ tubes.
Why not the others? a) Cryptococcus neoformans – Does not produce germ tubes; identified by urease test, capsule, or latex agglutination.
c) Aspergillus fumigatus – A mold, not a yeast; identified by hyphae and conidial structures.
d) Histoplasma capsulatum – A dimorphic fungus, detected by mold-to-yeast conversion or antigen tests, not germ tubes.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which mycological test involves detection of chlamydospore formation on cornmeal agar?
The cornmeal agar morphology test is used to identify Candida species , particularly by observing:
Chlamydospore formation (thick-walled, spherical survival spores)
Pseudohyphae and blastoconidia (budding yeast) patterns
Key Features: Candida albicans typically forms chlamydospores at the ends of hyphae (a diagnostic clue).
Other Candida species (e.g., C. tropicalis , C. glabrata ) show different pseudohyphal structures but usually do not produce chlamydospores .
Why Not the Other Options? a) Slide culture technique – Used for studying mold structures (e.g., conidiophores) under microscopy, not chlamydospores.
b) Germ tube test – Detects C. albicans via germ tube formation in serum (not chlamydospores).
c) Sporulation test – General term for inducing fungal spores (not specific to cornmeal agar).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which reagent clears tissue debris, making fungal elements more visible in direct smears?
Potassium hydroxide (KOH, 10–20%) is the primary clearing agent used in direct microscopy of fungal infections (e.g., skin scrapings, nail clippings, hair).
Dissolves keratin and cellular debris , leaving fungal hyphae/spores intact and more visible under the microscope.
Often combined with calcofluor white (a fluorescent dye) to enhance fungal detection.
Why Not the Others? a) Ethanol – Fixes specimens but does not clear debris.
c) Sodium chloride – Used in saline wet mounts, but lacks clearing properties.
d) Sulfuric acid – Destroys organic material; not used for fungal microscopy.
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Which fungal test uses carbohydrate assimilation patterns to differentiate yeasts?
The sugar assimilation test evaluates how yeasts metabolize different carbohydrates (e.g., glucose, lactose, maltose) by observing growth in media containing specific sugars.
This biochemical profiling helps differentiate yeast species (e.g., Candida albicans vs. Candida tropicalis ) based on their unique assimilation patterns .
Why Not the Others? a) Urease test – Detects urease enzyme (e.g., for Cryptococcus ), not sugar metabolism.
b) Germ tube test – Rapid ID for Candida albicans (no carbohydrates involved).
d) Chlamydospore test – Identifies C. albicans on cornmeal agar, not sugar use.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which method is recommended for safe handling and minimizing spore aerosol exposure during mold identification?
Biological safety cabinets (BSCs) are essential for handling molds because they:
Filter airborne spores (HEPA filtration) , preventing inhalation or environmental contamination.
Provide physical containment during procedures like subculturing or slide preparation.
This is critical for pathogenic molds (e.g., Aspergillus , Histoplasma , Coccidioides ) that can cause opportunistic infections or allergic reactions if inhaled.
Why Not the Others? a) Open bench culture handling – High risk of spore dispersal; unsafe for lab personnel.
c) Incubating in ambient air without cover – Allows spore release into the environment.
d) Using only slide culture without protection – Slide cultures still require BSC handling to avoid spore exposure.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which rapid test detects Cryptococcus antigen in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
The latex agglutination test is a rapid, sensitive, and specific method to detect Cryptococcus neoformans capsular polysaccharide antigen in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), serum, or urine .
It uses antibody-coated latex particles that clump (agglutinate) in the presence of Cryptococcal antigen, providing results within minutes.
Particularly crucial for diagnosing cryptococcal meningitis , a life-threatening fungal infection.
Why Not the Others? b) Germ tube test – Identifies Candida albicans (not Cryptococcus).
c) Coagulase test – Differentiates Staphylococcus aureus (bacteria) from other staphylococci.
d) Catalase test – Used to distinguish bacterial species (e.g., Staphylococcus vs. Streptococcus ).
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ASCP Exam Questions
The most useful microscopic structures for identifying dermatophytes are:
Dermatophytes (e.g., Trichophyton , Microsporum , Epidermophyton ) are primarily identified by their reproductive structures :
Macroconidia : Large, multicellular spores with distinct shapes:
Microsporum : Spindle-shaped , thick-walled, rough-surfaced.
Epidermophyton : Club-shaped , smooth-walled, with 1–5 septa.
Trichophyton : Pencil-shaped (rare or absent in some species).
Microconidia : Small, single-celled spores (round, teardrop, or club-shaped), abundant in Trichophyton .
These structures are best observed via lactophenol cotton blue (LPCB) mounts from culture.
Why Not the Others? a) Septate and branching hyphae : Non-specific (seen in most molds).
b) Racquet/pectinate hyphae : Ancillary features (not diagnostic).
c) Chlamydospores : Formed under stress (e.g., Candida ), not key for dermatophytes.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A direct fungal smear shows broad, ribbon-like, non-septate hyphae. The most likely causative agent is:
The description of broad, ribbon-like, non-septate (aseptate) hyphae with irregular branching is pathognomonic for Mucorales fungi (e.g., Mucor , Rhizopus , Lichtheimia ).
These are angioinvasive molds causing mucormycosis , a life-threatening infection in diabetics or immunocompromised patients.
Their hyphae appear wide (5–20 µm) and lack septations , unlike the narrow, septate hyphae of Aspergillus .
Why Not the Others? a) Candida albicans – Forms pseudohyphae (constricted at septa) and yeast cells , not broad hyphae.
c) Aspergillus species – Has narrow, septate hyphae with 45° angle branching .
d) Cryptococcus neoformans – A yeast with capsules (visible with India ink), not hyphae.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following is the most reliable criterion for mold identification in the laboratory?
Microscopic examination of reproductive structures (e.g., conidia, conidiophores, sporangiophores) is the gold standard for mold identification. Key features include:
Conidiophore morphology (e.g., Aspergillus vesicles with phialides, Penicillium brush-like conidiophores).
Spore type/arrangement (e.g., Microsporum spindle-shaped macroconidia, Rhizopus sporangia).
These structures are species-specific and unaffected by environmental variables (unlike pigmentation/growth rate).
Why Not the Others? a) Colony pigmentation – Variable (e.g., Aspergillus flavus may be yellow-green or brown).
b) Hyphal width – Non-specific (e.g., Zygomycetes have broad hyphae, but so do other molds).
d) Growth rate – Influenced by media/temperature; not diagnostic.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A mold resembling Talaromyces with long, tapering phialides bending away from the axis is:
Paecilomyces is characterized by long, tapering phialides that bend away from the conidiophore axis, forming a divergent brush-like (penicillus) arrangement 6 9 . This morphology closely resembles Talaromyces but differs in key features:
Phialide shape : Paecilomyces phialides are elongated and slender , often with a distinct neck , while Talaromyces phialides are typically flask-shaped (acerose) and more rigid.
Conidiophore structure : Paecilomyces lacks the vesicle seen in Aspergillus and the biverticillate metulae-phialide complex of Talaromyces .
Why Not the Others? a) Exophiala : A black yeast with short annellides (not phialides) and dematiaceous hyphae; no tapering phialides.
b) Acremonium : Produces straight, awl-shaped phialides that do not bend away from the axis.
c) Cladosporium : Forms dark-pigmented conidiophores with branching chains of blastoconidia (no phialides)
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ASCP Exam Questions
A common cause of eumycotic mycetoma in the USA is:
Eumycotic mycetoma is a chronic, granulomatous fungal infection involving skin, subcutaneous tissue, and sometimes bone, commonly presenting with draining sinuses and granules (grains) .
Why not the others? b. Nocardia brasiliensis : Causes actinomycetoma (bacterial), not eumycetoma .
c. Coccidioides immitis : Causes systemic fungal infections like valley fever , not localized mycetoma .
d. Aspergillus fumigatus : Causes aspergillosis , not a typical agent of mycetoma in the USA .
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Medium most helpful for yeast morphology is:
Cornmeal agar with Tween 80 is the gold standard medium for observing yeast morphology (e.g., pseudohyphae, blastoconidia, chlamydospores) due to its:
Nutritional deficiency , which promotes structural differentiation .
Tween 80 (a surfactant) enhances hyphae/pseudohyphae formation in Candida spp. .
Why Not the Others? b) Brain-heart infusion (BHI) : Supports yeast growth but lacks morphological differentiation .
c) Potato dextrose agar (PDA) : Used for pigmentation (e.g., Candida albicans cream-colored colonies) but not optimal for hyphae.
d) Urea agar : Identifies urease-positive yeasts (e.g., Cryptococcus ) but does not show morphology .
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ASCP Exam Questions
The most useful morphological feature for identifying Histoplasma capsulatum mycelial phase is:
Histoplasma capsulatum in its mycelial (mold) phase is best identified by its tuberculate macroconidia :
Size : 8–14 μm in diameter.
Appearance : Round, thick-walled, and covered with finger-like projections (tubercules) —resembling a “knobby golf ball” .
Microscopy : Visible with lactophenol cotton blue (LPCB) stains .
Microconidia (2–5 μm) are also produced but are less distinctive (smooth-walled, globose).
Why Not the Others? a) Arthrospores in every other cell : Diagnostic for Coccidioides immitis (barrel-shaped arthroconidia with disjunctor cells) .
b) 2–5 μm microspores : Present but not pathognomonic (also seen in Blastomyces and Sepedonium ).
d) 5–7 μm nonseptate macroconidia : Found in Zygomycetes (e.g., Mucor ), which lack septations entirely .
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ASCP Exam Questions
A mycological specimen showing septate hyphae with dichotomous branching at 45° angles is most consistent with:
The key microscopic features described—septate hyphae with dichotomous branching at 45° angles —are classic for Aspergillus species .
Why Aspergillus? Septate hyphae : Aspergillus has divided (septate) hyphae , unlike Mucor (aseptate).
Dichotomous branching at 45° : A hallmark of Aspergillus, seen under microscopy (e.g., in tissue or culture).
Reproductive structures : Produces conidiophores with vesicles and phialides (e.g., A. fumigatus has columnar conidial heads).
Why Not the Others? a) Mucor species : Aseptate hyphae with wide-angle (90°) irregular branching (ribbon-like).
b) Candida species : Yeast forms (blastoconidia, pseudohyphae)—no true hyphae (except germ tubes in C. albicans ).
d) Cryptococcus species : Encapsulated yeast (no hyphae unless rare pseudohyphae in C. neoformans var. gattii ).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Germ tube formation presumptively identifies:
Why Not the Others? a) Candida tropicalis – Forms pseudohyphae (constricted at septa), not true germ tubes.
b) Candida parapsilosis – Produces “giant” pseudohyphae but no germ tubes.
c) Candida glabrata – Grows as small yeast cells only (no hyphae or germ tubes).
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