Master fungal identification and infections with 100 free ASCP MLS practice questions (2241–2340). Perfect for lab students and professionals preparing for certification exams.
Fungal infections remain an important area of study in clinical microbiology, particularly for laboratory professionals preparing for certification exams such as ASCP MLS, AMT, AIMS, and CSMLS. This section focuses on fungal identification and associated infections, with an emphasis on diagnostic techniques, characteristic structures, and clinical relevance.
Through these practice questions, students and professionals can strengthen their knowledge of medically significant fungi including Candida, Aspergillus, Cryptococcus, Histoplasma, and dermatophytes, as well as their laboratory differentiation.
This resource is designed to help you prepare effectively by reviewing key microbiological features, diagnostic tests, and infection presentations.
100 MCQs (2241-2340):
- Which fungal structure is most useful for identifying dermatophytes?
a) Septate hyphae
b) Racquet hyphae
c) Macroconidia and microconidia
d) Chlamydospores - The germ tube test is used to presumptively identify:
a) Candida albicans
b) Cryptococcus neoformans
c) Aspergillus fumigatus
d) Histoplasma capsulatum - Which medium is commonly used to enhance the formation of fungal structures like chlamydospores?
a) Sabouraud dextrose agar
b) Cornmeal agar with Tween 80
c) Blood agar
d) Chocolate agar - A mold that produces tuberculate macroconidia is most likely:
a) Histoplasma capsulatum
b) Aspergillus niger
c) Microsporum canis
d) Rhizopus species - Which fungus is a common cause of tinea capitis and fluoresces under Wood’s lamp?
a) Trichophyton rubrum
b) Microsporum audouinii
c) Epidermophyton floccosum
d) Candida albicans - The satellite phenomenon is associated with which organism?
a) Haemophilus influenzae
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Cryptococcus neoformans
d) Candida albicans - Which fungal infection is associated with bird droppings and pigeon excreta?
a) Coccidioidomycosis
b) Cryptococcosis
c) Aspergillosis
d) Blastomycosis - A positive urease test is characteristic of:
a) Candida glabrata
b) Cryptococcus neoformans
c) Aspergillus fumigatus
d) Mucor species - Which fungus is dimorphic and appears as yeast with broad-based buds at 37°C?
a) Histoplasma capsulatum
b) Blastomyces dermatitidis
c) Coccidioides immitis
d) Sporothrix schenckii - Which fungal stain uses calcofluor white?
a) Gram stain
b) KOH preparation
c) Fluorescent stain for chitin
d) Acid-fast stain - Talaromyces (formerly Penicillium) marneffei is characterized by:
a) Blue-green pigment
b) Red diffusible pigment
c) Yellow pigment
d) Black pigment - Which fungus is known to cause mycetoma?
a) Pseudallescheria boydii
b) Candida albicans
c) Cryptococcus neoformans
d) Malassezia furfur - The string test is used to identify:
a) Candida species
b) Cryptococcus species
c) Trichophyton species
d) Aspergillus species - Which fungus is commonly associated with otomycosis and aspergilloma?
a) Aspergillus fumigatus
b) Candida albicans
c) Rhizopus arrhizus
d) Fusarium species - Chromoblastomycosis is caused by which type of fungi?
a) Hyaline molds
b) Dematiaceous molds
c) Yeasts
d) Zygomycetes - Which fungal infection is most associated with immunocompromised patients and neutropenia?
a) Candidiasis
b) Histoplasmosis
c) Blastomycosis
d) Coccidioidomycosis - The reverse CAMP test is used to identify:
a) Clostridium perfringens
b) Streptococcus agalactiae
c) Candida albicans
d) Cryptococcus neoformans - Which fungus is associated with “spaghetti and meatball” appearance on KOH mount?
a) Malassezia furfur
b) Candida albicans
c) Trichophyton rubrum
d) Microsporum canis - Which fungal structure is characteristic of Rhizopus species?
a) Rhizoids
b) Phialides
c) Arthroconidia
d) Blastoconidia - Which test is used to differentiate Cryptococcus neoformans from other yeasts?
a) Germ tube test
b) Urease test
c) Phenol oxidase test
d) Lactophenol cotton blue mount - Which fungus is associated with “black dot” tinea capitis?
a) Trichophyton tonsurans
b) Microsporum canis
c) Epidermophyton floccosum
d) Candida albicans - Which fungal infection is acquired via inhalation of spores from soil contaminated with bat or bird droppings?
a) Histoplasmosis
b) Candidiasis
c) Sporotrichosis
d) Dermatophytosis - Which medium is used to culture Malassezia furfur?
a) Sabouraud dextrose agar
b) Olive oil–enriched medium
c) Blood agar
d) Chocolate agar - Which fungus is a common contaminant and allergen but can cause invasive disease in immunocompromised hosts?
a) Aspergillus fumigatus
b) Cryptococcus neoformans
c) Candida albicans
d) Blastomyces dermatitidis - Which fungal infection presents with subcutaneous nodules along lymphatic channels?
a) Sporotrichosis
b) Coccidioidomycosis
c) Histoplasmosis
d) Blastomycosis - Which structure is characteristic of Coccidioides immitis?
a) Spherules with endospores
b) Yeast with broad-based buds
c) Pseudohyphae
d) Septate hyphae with conidiophores - Which fungus is urease-positive and produces a capsule?
a) Cryptococcus neoformans
b) Candida albicans
c) Histoplasma capsulatum
d) Aspergillus fumigatus - Which fungal infection is also known as “Valley Fever”?
a) Coccidioidomycosis
b) Histoplasmosis
c) Blastomycosis
d) Cryptococcosis - Which fungus is identified by its ability to produce germ tubes in serum?
a) Candida albicans
b) Candida glabrata
c) Candida tropicalis
d) Candida krusei - Which fungal infection is most commonly associated with AIDS patients?
a) Cryptococcal meningitis
b) Blastomycosis
c) Sporotrichosis
d) Dermatophytosis - A mold that produces nonseptate, ribbon-like hyphae with right-angle branching is most suggestive of:
a) Aspergillus species
b) Zygomycetes (e.g., Mucor, Rhizopus)
c) Dermatophytes
d) Fusarium species - The teleomorph (sexual form) of the fungus often identified as Penicillium marneffei is now correctly classified as:
a) Talaromyces marneffei
b) Aspergillus nidulans
c) Pseudallescheria boydii
d) Geotrichum candidum - Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Candida glabrata?
a) Formation of germ tubes
b) Production of pseudohyphae and true hyphae
c) Growth as small, creamy colonies that do not form hyphae
d) Production of a capsule - A positive phenol oxidase test, resulting in a brown pigment on birdseed agar, is used to identify:
a) Candida albicans
b) Cryptococcus neoformans
c) Histoplasma capsulatum
d) Blastomyces dermatitidis - Which fungal infection is typically associated with a granulomatous reaction and can cause pulmonary disease resembling tuberculosis?
a) Candidiasis
b) Cryptococcosis
c) Histoplasmosis
d) Tinea versicolor - The “rainwheel” or “racquet” hyphae are microscopic structures often associated with:
a) Aspergillus fumigatus
b) Dermatophytes
c) Zygomycetes
d) Candida species - Which medium is specifically designed to inhibit bacterial growth and suppress saprophytic molds for the isolation of pathogenic fungi?
a) Blood agar
b) MacConkey agar
c) Sabouraud dextrose agar with antibiotics (chloramphenicol and cycloheximide)
d) Thayer-Martin agar - A fungal culture from a skin scraping grows a dematiaceous mold with sclerotic bodies. This is most indicative of:
a) Chromoblastomycosis
b) Aspergillosis
c) Sporotrichosis
d) Candidiasis - Which of the following dimorphic fungi is characterized by forming conidia that become airborne and transform into spherules in the lungs?
a) Histoplasma capsulatum
b) Blastomyces dermatitidis
c) Coccidioides immitis
d) Sporothrix schenckii - The “spaghetti and meatball” appearance on a potassium hydroxide (KOH) preparation is classic for:
a) Dermatophyte hyphae and spores
b) Malassezia furfur hyphae and yeast cells
c) Candida pseudohyphae and blastoconidia
d) Aspergillus hyphae and conidiophores - A fungus that shows “sleeve” macroconidia with echinulations (rough-walled) is most likely:
a) Microsporum canis
b) Trichophyton rubrum
c) Epidermophyton floccosum
d) Trichophyton mentagrophytes - Which test is most useful for differentiating Cryptococcus neoformans from other nonpigmented yeasts?
a) Germ tube test
b) Urease test
c) Phenol oxidase test
d) Carbohydrate assimilation - A patient with diabetes presents with rhinocerebral infection and black, necrotic turbinates. A direct KOH prep shows broad, nonseptate hyphae. The most likely causative agent is:
a) Aspergillus fumigatus
b) Candida albicans
c) Zygomycetes (e.g., Rhizopus)
d) Pseudallescheria boydii - The exoantigen test is an immunodiffusion method used for the definitive identification of:
a) Dermatophytes
b) Dimorphic fungi (e.g., Histoplasma, Blastomyces)
c) Candida species
d) Cryptococcus species - Fusarium species are often associated with:
a) Nail infections (onychomycosis) in immunocompetent hosts
b) Disseminated infection in severely neutropenic patients
c) Cutaneous infections only in tropical regions
d) Pulmonary allergic disease (ABPA) - Which structure is diagnostic for Coccidioides immitis in tissue?
a) Broad-based budding yeast
b) Small intracellular yeast
c) Spherules filled with endospores
d) Septate hyphae with 45-degree angle branching - A positive hair perforation test is used to help differentiate between:
a) Trichophyton rubrum and Trichophyton mentagrophytes
b) Microsporum canis and Microsporum audouinii
c) Candida albicans and Candida tropicalis
d) Aspergillus fumigatus and Aspergillus flavus - Which antifungal agent works by inhibiting ergosterol synthesis in the fungal cell membrane?
a) Amphotericin B
b) Flucytosine
c) Caspofungin
d) Fluconazole - A fungal isolate produces smooth, cream-colored colonies that show conversion to a white, cottony mold at 25°C. At 37°C, it grows as a yeast. This describes:
a) A dermatophyte
b) A dimorphic fungus
c) A zygomycete
d) A dematiaceous fungus - Pneumocystis jirovecii is best detected by which staining method?
a) Gram stain
b) KOH preparation
c) Gomori methenamine silver (GMS) stain
d) Lactophenol cotton blue - The “black dot” pattern of tinea capitis is most commonly caused by:
a) Microsporum canis
b) Trichophyton tonsurans
c) Epidermophyton floccosum
d) Microsporum audouinii - Which of the following is NOT a common cause of eumycotic mycetoma (fungal mycetoma)?
a) Madurella mycetomatis
b) Pseudallescheria boydii
c) Actinomyces israelii
d) Exophiala jeanselmei - A positive India ink preparation of cerebrospinal fluid is used to detect the capsule of:
a) Candida albicans
b) Cryptococcus neoformans
c) Histoplasma capsulatum
d) Coccidioides immitis - Which antifungal class inhibits beta-(1,3)-D-glucan synthesis in the fungal cell wall?
a) Polyenes
b) Azoles
c) Echinocandins
d) Pyrimidine analogs - A fungus that produces Arthroconidia from its hyphae is:
a) Coccidioides immitis
b) Blastomyces dermatitidis
c) Candida albicans
d) Aspergillus fumigatus - Tinea nigra is a superficial infection causing brown to black macules on the palms, caused by:
a) Hortaea werneckii
b) Trichophyton rubrum
c) Malassezia furfur
d) Piedraia hortae - The “blueberry muffin” baby presentation is associated with congenital infection by:
a) Candida albicans
b) Cryptococcus neoformans
c) Histoplasma capsulatum
d) This is not a fungal infection; it’s associated with rubella or CMV. - Which of the following fungi is a common laboratory contaminant but can cause opportunistic infections like onychomycosis and keratitis?
a) Alternaria species
b) Cryptococcus neoformans
c) Sporothrix schenckii
d) Histoplasma capsulatum - The “molar tooth” appearance of colonies is characteristic of which anaerobic, gram-positive bacterium often confused with fungi?
a) Actinomyces israelii
b) Nocardia asteroides
c) Clostridium perfringens
d) Lactobacillus species - For which fungal infection is the antigen detection test in urine and serum considered highly sensitive and specific for diagnosis?
a) Candidiasis
b) Aspergillosis
c) Histoplasmosis
d) Dermatophytosis - Which test uses potassium hydroxide solution to detect fungal elements in skin scrapings?
a) Gram stain
b) India ink
c) KOH preparation
d) Acid-fast stain - The “spaghetti and meatball” appearance on KOH prep is typical of:
a) Dermatophytes
b) Candida albicans
c) Malassezia furfur
d) Aspergillus fumigatus - The most common causative agents of dermatophytosis belong to which genera?
a) Histoplasma and Blastomyces
b) Penicillium and Aspergillus
c) Trichophyton, Microsporum, Epidermophyton
d) Candida and Cryptococcus - Tinea capitis refers to a fungal infection of:
a) Nails
b) Skin of abdomen
c) Scalp and hair
d) Feet - Which fungus causes tinea nigra with pigmented macules on palms?
a) Trichophyton rubrum
b) Hortaea werneckii
c) Malassezia furfur
d) Candida albicans - Which fungus is most commonly associated with onychomycosis affecting nails?
a) Histoplasma capsulatum
b) Epidermophyton floccosum
c) Cryptococcus neoformans
d) Rhizopus species - Onychomycosis is confirmed by:
a) Blood culture
b) Antibody test
c) Clinical appearance and lab testing
d) PCR only - Epidermophyton floccosum typically produces what form of conidia?
a) Club-shaped macroconidia
b) Arthroconidia
c) Blastoconidia
d) Sporangiospores - Which test is used to differentiate skin fungi from non-fungal causes like psoriasis?
a) India ink
b) Giemsa stain
c) KOH prep
d) Silver stain - Dermatophytes often fluoresce under Wood’s lamp; which organisms are primarily involved?
a) Candida species
b) Trichophyton only
c) Trichophyton, Microsporum, Epidermophyton
d) Aspergillus species - Which technique helps visualize fungal hyphae by dissolving keratinized debris?
a) Gram staining
b) KOH mount
c) Ziehl-Neelsen staining
d) Lactophenol cotton blue - Tinea versicolor is caused by which organism?
a) Epidermophyton floccosum
b) Malassezia furfur
c) Candida albicans
d) Aspergillus niger - KOH prep that includes calcofluor white staining aids detection how?
a) Enhances color contrast
b) Causes fungi to fluoresce
c) Kills bacteria
d) Preserves specimen - Which fungal type is responsible for ringworm of the scalp?
a) Malassezia furfur
b) Microsporum audouinii
c) Candida albicans
d) Histoplasma capsulatum - Tinea cruris is commonly referred to as:
a) Athlete’s foot
b) Ringworm of the scalp
c) Jock itch
d) Nail infection - A KOH exam of skin suspects shows septate hyphae and arthroconidia. Likely diagnosis:
a) Candida infection
b) Dermatophyte infection
c) Mucormycosis
d) Pseudallescheriasis - Which term refers to fungal infection of the fingernails or toenails?
a) Tinea corporis
b) Onychomycosis
c) Tinea pedis
d) Tinea barbae - Fungal lipid testing such as ergosterol is characteristic of which?
a) Plant cells
b) Mammalian cells
c) Fungal cell membranes
d) Bacterial membranes - A superficial yeast infection showing oval budding yeasts in mouth or vagina indicates:
a) Dermatophytosis
b) Candidiasis
c) Aspergillosis
d) Cryptococcosis - AIDS patients frequently suffer from which fungal meningitis?
a) Histoplasma
b) Cryptococcus neoformans
c) Blastomyces
d) Sporothrix schenckii - The India ink preparation is used to visualize:
a) Candida pseudohyphae
b) Cryptococcus neoformans capsule
c) Aspergillus conidia
d) Dermatophyte hyphae - A brown pigment on birdseed agar indicates which fungus?
a) Candida albicans
b) Cryptococcus neoformans
c) Histoplasma capsulatum
d) Blastomyces dermatitidis - Talaromyces marneffei (formerly Penicillium marneffei) primarily infects:
a) Diabetics
b) AIDS patients
c) Immunocompetent individuals
d) Neonates - Which systemic mycosis resembles tuberculosis histologically?
a) Candidiasis
b) Cryptococcosis
c) Histoplasmosis
d) Tinea versicolor - Which dimorphic fungus forms spherules in lungs?
a) Histoplasma capsulatum
b) Coccidioides immitis
c) Blastomyces dermatitidis
d) Sporothrix schenckii - Exoantigen immunodiffusion is used to confirm:
a) Dermatophytes
b) Dimorphic fungi like Histoplasma, Blastomyces
c) Candida species
d) Cryptococcus species - Fusarium species are commonly problematic in:
a) Skin only
b) Allergies only
c) Disseminated infections in neutropenic patients
d) Nail infections only - Hair perforation tests help differentiate:
a) Microsporum vs Trichophyton only
b) Candida species
c) Aspergillus species
d) Cryptococcus species - A dimorphic fungus that shows yeast at 37 °C and mold at 25 °C is typical for:
a) Dermatophytes
b) Dimorphic fungi
c) Mucormycetes
d) Dematiaceous fungi - Pneumocystis jirovecii is best visualized by:
a) Gram stain
b) KOH
c) GMS (Gomori methenamine silver)
d) India ink - The reverse CAMP test helps identify:
a) Clostridium perfringens
b) Streptococcus agalactiae
c) Candida albicans
d) Cryptococcus neoformans - A mold producing non-septate hyphae with right-angle branching suggests:
a) Aspergillus
b) Zygomycetes (e.g., Rhizopus)
c) Dermatophytes
d) Fusarium - Macroconidia with echinulations (“sleeve” macroconidia) are seen in:
a) Microsporum canis
b) Trichophyton rubrum
c) Epidermophyton floccosum
d) Candida albicans - “Spaghetti and meatball” refers to:
a) Dermatophytes
b) Candida forms
c) Malassezia furfur
d) Aspergillus conidiophores - Chromoblastomycosis is caused by:
a) Hyaline molds
b) Dematiaceous molds
c) Yeasts
d) Zygomycetes - Satellite phenomenon (satellite colonies) around Staphylococcus in culture is associated with:
a) Haemophilus influenzae
b) Candida albicans
c) Cryptococcus neoformans
d) Dermatophytes - What fungal stain fluoresces chitin?
a) Gram stain
b) KOH
c) Calcofluor white
d) Acid-fast stain - Mucormycosis in diabetics often shows:
a) Septate hyphae with acute angles
b) Non-septate hyphae with right angles
c) Yeast cells only
d) Spherules - What is the primary fungal infection caused by Cryptococcus?
a) Skin tinea
b) Meningitis
c) Nail infection
d) Pulmonary infection only - Which medium is used to isolate pathogenic fungi while suppressing saprophytic molds?
a) Blood agar
b) MacConkey agar
c) Sabouraud dextrose agar with chloramphenicol and cycloheximide
d) Chocolate agar
Answer Key
Answer Key:
- c) Macroconidia and microconidia
- a) Candida albicans
- b) Cornmeal agar with Tween 80
- a) Histoplasma capsulatum
- b) Microsporum audouinii
- a) Haemophilus influenzae
- b) Cryptococcosis
- b) Cryptococcus neoformans
- b) Blastomyces dermatitidis
- c) Fluorescent stain for chitin
- b) Red diffusible pigment
- a) Pseudallescheria boydii
- a) Candida species
- a) Aspergillus fumigatus
- b) Dematiaceous molds
- a) Candidiasis
- a) Clostridium perfringens
- a) Malassezia furfur
- a) Rhizoids
- c) Phenol oxidase test
- a) Trichophyton tonsurans
- a) Histoplasmosis
- b) Olive oil–enriched medium
- a) Aspergillus fumigatus
- a) Sporotrichosis
- a) Spherules with endospores
- a) Cryptococcus neoformans
- a) Coccidioidomycosis
- a) Candida albicans
- a) Cryptococcal meningitis
- b) Zygomycetes (e.g., Mucor, Rhizopus)
- a) Talaromyces marneffei
- c) Growth as small, creamy colonies that do not form hyphae
- b) Cryptococcus neoformans
- c) Histoplasmosis
- b) Dermatophytes
- c) Sabouraud dextrose agar with antibiotics (chloramphenicol and cycloheximide)
- a) Chromoblastomycosis
- c) Coccidioides immitis
- b) Malassezia furfur hyphae and yeast cells
- a) Microsporum canis
- c) Phenol oxidase test
- c) Zygomycetes (e.g., Rhizopus)
- b) Dimorphic fungi (e.g., Histoplasma, Blastomyces)
- b) Disseminated infection in severely neutropenic patients
- c) Spherules filled with endospores
- a) Trichophyton rubrum and Trichophyton mentagrophytes
- d) Fluconazole
- b) A dimorphic fungus
- c) Gomori methenamine silver (GMS) stain
- b) Trichophyton tonsurans
- c) Actinomyces israelii
- b) Cryptococcus neoformans
- c) Echinocandins
- a) Coccidioides immitis
- a) Hortaea werneckii
- d) This is not a fungal infection; it’s associated with rubella or CMV.
- a) Alternaria species
- a) Actinomyces israelii
- c) Histoplasmosis
- c) KOH preparation
- c) Malassezia furfur
- c) Trichophyton, Microsporum, Epidermophyton
- c) Scalp and hair
- b) Hortaea werneckii
- b) Epidermophyton floccosum
- c) Clinical appearance and lab testing
- a) Club-shaped macroconidia
- c) KOH prep
- c) Trichophyton, Microsporum, Epidermophyton
- b) KOH mount
- b) Malassezia furfur
- b) Causes fungi to fluoresce
- b) Microsporum audouinii
- c) Jock itch
- b) Dermatophyte infection
- b) Onychomycosis
- c) Fungal cell membranes
- b) Candidiasis
- b) Cryptococcus neoformans
- b) Cryptococcus neoformans capsule
- b) Cryptococcus neoformans
- b) AIDS patients
- c) Histoplasmosis
- b) Coccidioides immitis
- b) Dimorphic fungi like Histoplasma, Blastomyces
- c) Disseminated infections in neutropenic patients
- a) Microsporum vs Trichophyton only
- b) Dimorphic fungi
- c) GMS (Gomori methenamine silver)
- a) Clostridium perfringens
- b) Zygomycetes (e.g., Rhizopus)
- a) Microsporum canis
- c) Malassezia furfur
- b) Dematiaceous molds
- a) Haemophilus influenzae
- c) Calcofluor white
- b) Non-septate hyphae with right angles
- b) Meningitis
- c) Sabouraud dextrose agar with chloramphenicol and cycloheximide
Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams:
Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams that are recognized globally and can help professionals validate their credentials and enhance their career opportunities:
1. ASCP – American Society for Clinical Pathology (USA)
- Exam Name: MLS(ASCP)
- Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree with clinical laboratory experience.
- Global Recognition: High
- Purpose: Certifies Medical Laboratory Scientists in the United States and internationally.
2. AMT – American Medical Technologists (USA)
- Exam Name: MLT(AMT) or MT(AMT)
- Eligibility: Academic and/or work experience in medical laboratory technology.
- Global Recognition: Moderate
- Purpose: Credentialing for medical technologists and technicians.
3. AIMS – Australian Institute of Medical and Clinical Scientists
- Exam Name: AIMS Certification Exam
- Eligibility: Assessment of qualifications and work experience.
- Recognition: Required for practice in Australia.
- Purpose: Certification and registration in Australia.
4. CSMLS – Canadian Society for Medical Laboratory Science
- Exam Name: CSMLS General or Subject-specific Exams
- Eligibility: Graduation from a CSMLS-accredited program or equivalent.
- Recognition: Canada
- Purpose: Entry-to-practice certification in Canada.
5. IBMS – Institute of Biomedical Science (UK)
- Exam Name: Registration and Specialist Portfolio Assessment
- Eligibility: Accredited degree and lab experience.
- Recognition: UK and some Commonwealth countries.
- Purpose: Biomedical Scientist registration with the HCPC (UK).
6. HAAD / DOH – Department of Health, Abu Dhabi (UAE)
- Exam Name: DOH/HAAD License Exam
- Eligibility: Degree in medical laboratory science and experience.
- Recognition: UAE (Abu Dhabi)
- Purpose: Licensure for medical laboratory practice in Abu Dhabi.
7. DHA – Dubai Health Authority (UAE)
- Exam Name: DHA License Exam for Medical Laboratory Technologists
- Eligibility: Relevant degree and experience.
- Recognition: Dubai, UAE
- Purpose: Professional license for clinical laboratory practice in Dubai.
8. MOH – Ministry of Health (Gulf Countries like UAE, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait)
- Exam Name: MOH License Exam
- Eligibility: BSc/Diploma in Medical Laboratory + experience.
- Recognition: Varies by country.
- Purpose: Required for practicing in public and private sector labs.
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