Free ASCP MLS Exam Practice Questions: Part 1 – (Quality Assessment/Troubleshooting )

Prepare for the ASCP Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Certification Exam with 60 free practice questions focused on Quality Assessment and Troubleshooting (Section I of the BOC Exam Outline). These multiple-choice questions (MCQs) cover critical topics like preanalytical errors, quality control (QC), regulatory compliance (CLIA, HIPAA), method validation, and laboratory safety protocols. Each question includes detailed rationales to reinforce key concepts and test-taking strategies.

Key Features of This Practice Set:

1. Comprehensive Coverage
   • Preanalytical/Analytical/Postanalytical errors
   • Levy-Jennings charts & Westgard rules
   • Proficiency testing (PT) requirements
   • Instrument troubleshooting
2. Exam-Focused Rationales
   • Explanations reference CLSI, CAP, and OSHA standards
   • Highlights high-yield topics from the ASCP BOC blueprint
3. Real-World Scenarios
   • Case-based questions on:
     • Urine specimen rejection criteria
     • Blood gas analyzer failures
     • Critical value reporting delays
4. Regulatory Knowledge
   • CLIA test complexity classifications
   • HIPAA patient data protections
   • OSHA chemical hygiene plans

MCQs 01 – 60

1. Which pre-collection factor impacts specimen validity?
   A. Analytical instrument calibration
   B. Patient identification protocol
   C. Post-test data archiving
   D. Reagent storage temperature
2. Vigorous shaking of blood tubes may cause:
   A. Lipemia
   B. Hemolysis
   C. Clotting
   D. Fibrinolysis
3. Urine culture acceptability after 7-hour storage requires:
   A. Room temperature placement
   B. Freezing at -20°C
   C. Refrigeration at 4-7°C
   D. Preservative additives
4. Delayed urinalysis beyond 1 hour risks false increases in:
   A. Urobilinogen
   B. Glucose
   C. Ketones
   D. Specific gravity
5. A Levy-Jennings QC point beyond ±2SD should first be:
   A. Averaged with previous data
   B. Repeated with fresh control material
   C. Excluded as outlier
   D. Corrected via recalibration
6. ±2SD control limits represent what probability range?
   A. 50% of values
   B. 75% of values
   C. 95% of values
   D. 99% of values
7. Instrument calibration verification requires:
   A. Testing patient samples across reportable ranges
   B. Comparing two independent methodologies
   C. Using expired control materials
   D. Single-point pre-use checks
8. IQCP (Individualized QC Plan) core components exclude:
   A. Risk assessment
   B. Reagent lot validation
   C. QC strategy design
   D. Performance monitoring
9. Critical value communication failures are classified as:
   A. Preanalytical errors
   B. Analytical errors
   C. Postanalytical errors
   D. Phlebotomy errors
10. Delta checks primarily monitor:
    A. Instrument precision
    B. Patient result consistency
    C. Reagent stability
    D. Staff competency

11. Constant bias in method comparisons indicates:
    A. Random measurement scatter
    B. Proportional error at all concentrations
    C. Unacceptable correlation
    D. Optimal agreement
12. Bichromatic analysis reduces interference by:
    A. Using two wavelengths simultaneously
    B. Doubling sample incubation time
    C. Testing duplicate aliquots
    D. Diluting specimens 1:2
13. CLIA test complexity categorization is performed by:
    A. Laboratory director
    B. FDA
    C. CDC
    D. CAP
14. HIPAA mandates protection of:
    A. Instrument maintenance logs
    B. Electronic patient health data
    C. QC validation records
    D. Staff training certificates
15. Proficiency testing (PT) samples must not be:
    A. Tested during routine workflow
    B. Shared between CLIA-certified labs
    C. Processed by senior technologists
    D. Repeated if out of range
16. Urine culture after urinalysis requires:
    A. Centrifugation and supernatant culture
    B. Immediate rejection if delayed
    C. Refrigeration prior to plating
    D. Nitrate positivity confirmation
17. First response to QC failure is:
    A. Repeat patient testing
    B. Halt test reporting
    C. Review PT performance
    D. Adjust control limits
18. Blood gas analyzer failure for all parameters warrants:
    A. Electrode replacement
    B. Immediate recalibration
    C. Control material repetition
    D. Shift deferral
19. Primary POCT advantage is:
    A. Lower reagent costs
    B. Reduced training requirements
    C. Faster result availability
    D. Higher analytical sensitivity
20. Microassay benefits include:
    A. Enhanced diagnostic specificity
    B. Smaller specimen volumes
    C. Fewer repeat analyses
    D. Longer reagent stability
21. Specimen stability studies must assess:
    A. Reagent expiration dates
    B. Centrifugation timing variables
    C. Instrument throughput rates
    D. Staff shift schedules
22. Procedure manuals must include:
    A. Reagent storage locations
    B. Test interpretation criteria
    C. Employee shift rotations
    D. Budget allocation details
23. QNS (Quantity Not Sufficient) specimens represent:
    A. Postanalytical error
    B. Preanalytical error
    C. Analytical error
    D. Reporting error
24. Hemoglobin delta check: Monday=11.3 g/dL, Tuesday=11.8 g/dL (SD±0.2 g/dL). Interpretation:
    A. Lab error likely
    B. Poor precision
    C. Requires repeat
    D. Clinically insignificant
25. Clean-catch urine processing priority:
    A. Perform urinalysis first
    B. Culture immediately
    C. Refrigerate both aliquots
    D. Centrifuge for supernatant
26. OSHA’s Chemical Hygiene Plan requires:
    A. Semi-annual formaldehyde monitoring
    B. Designated chemical safety officer
    C. Prohibition of carcinogens
    D. Monthly fume hood checks
27. Unlabeled secondary chemical containers:
    A. Require full hazard warnings
    B. Need emergency contact numbers
    C. Are exempt if used immediately
    D. Must match original labels
28. Incompatible chemical storage pair:
    A. Acetone/Xylene
    B. Ethanol/Acetone
    C. Ammonia/Chlorine
    D. Sodium/Potassium
29. Xylene waste disposal requires:
    A. Sink drainage with dilution
    B. Open-air evaporation
    C. Biohazard bag disposal
    D. EPA-licensed hauler
30. Chemical exposure symptom response:
    A. Self-treat with antidotes
    B. Consult SDS independently
    C. Report to supervisor
    D. Continue work if mild

31. Employer-covered medical evaluations occur:
    A. During employee vacation
    B. On work time without pay loss
    C. Via personal insurance
    D. After 3 incident reports
32. Chemical exposure retesting is triggered by:
    A. Annual facility audits
    B. Procedure/equipment changes
    C. Quarterly inspections
    D. New employee training
33. Formaldehyde spill response priority:
    A. Contain with absorbent
    B. Evacuate area
    C. Notify emergency services
    D. Don PPE
34. “Danger” signage indicates:
    A. General caution
    B. Immediate hazard
    C. Biohazard presence
    D. Fire equipment location
35. Fire prevention mandates:
    A. Monthly announced drills
    B. Single-exit labs for flammables
    C. Pre-operation hazard checks
    D. Unobstructed corridors
36. Electrical fire response after alarm activation:
    A. Extinguish with water
    B. Evacuate facility
    C. Close compartment doors
    D. Disconnect power mains
37. Chemical eye exposure first aid:
    A. Neutralize with pH solution
    B. Bandage and seek help
    C. 15-minute water flush
    D. Apply antibiotic ointment
38. Acid skin decontamination after clothing removal:
    A. Apply baking soda paste
    B. Safety shower rinse
    C. Seek immediate help
    D. Use chemical wipes
39. Specimen rejection criteria documentation location:
    A. QC charts
    B. Procedure manuals
    C. Incident reports
    D. Training records
40. Auto-verification requires all EXCEPT:
    A. Validated LIS rules
    B. Technologist review
    C. Prior acceptable QC
    D. Instrument interfacing
41. LIS validation frequency for calculations:
    A. Every 6 months
    B. Annually
    C. Biennially
    D. Post-installation only
42. Unavailable PT material alternative:
    A. Repeat prior PT
    B. Use another lab’s samples
    C. Implement AAP
    D. Waive testing
43. ASR (Analyte-Specific Reagent) reporting requires:
    A. FDA clearance statement
    B. Medicare reimbursement codes
    C. Manufacturer performance data
    D. Lab-developed test disclaimer
44. False Claims Act prohibits:
    A. Unintentional billing errors
    B. Services not rendered
    C. Test reflex algorithms
    D. Ordering provider audits
45. Biological specimen shipping regulations vary by:
    A. DOT/IATA/USPS
    B. OSHA/CLIA
    C. CAP/TJC
    D. FDA/CDC
46. Test validation must include:
    A. Turnaround time studies
    B. Staff satisfaction surveys
    C. Reference intervals
    D. Cost-per-test analysis
47. Precision verification method:
    A. Comparison to reference method
    B. Inter-laboratory sample exchange
    C. Replicate same-sample testing
    D. Linearity studies
48. Reference interval determination excludes:
    A. Biological variability assessment
    B. Age/sex stratification
    C. 120+ reference subjects
    D. Fixed limits for all analytes
49. Delta check application:
    A. Reagent lot validation
    B. Patient result trending
    C. Staff competency
    D. Temperature monitoring
50. Postanalytical error example:
    A. Mislabeled collection tube
    B. Incorrect test coding
    C. Critical value call delay
    D. Expired calibration

51. Urine culture after prolonged refrigeration:
    A. Requires chemical preservation
    B. Acceptable if stored at 4°C
    C. Must be rejected >4 hours
    D. Needs centrifugation
52. ICD-10 codes relate to:
    A. Test pricing
    B. Diagnostic conditions
    C. Lab accreditation
    D. Methodology
53. CMS payment eligibility requires:
    A. CAP accreditation
    B. Current CLIA certificate
    C. State licensure
    D. HIPAA compliance
54. Prohibited PT practice:
    A. Testing alongside patient samples
    B. Submitting ungraded challenges
    C. Sharing results pre-submission
    D. Using alternate instruments
55. Refrigerator temperature documentation frequency:
    A. Daily
    B. Weekly
    C. Monthly
    D. Quarterly
56. HIPAA violation example:
    A. Unannounced inspection
    B. Critical value documentation
    C. Accessing friend’s results
    D. PT sample exchange
57. Chemical hygiene officer responsibility:
    A. Prohibits carcinogen use
    B. Oversees safety protocols
    C. Approves reagent orders
    D. Performs exposure monitoring
58. Package insert usage:
    A. Replaces lab procedures
    B. Bench reference only
    C. Requires director signature
    D. Supplemental to manuals
59. POCT regulatory status:
    A. Exempt from CLIA
    B. Has reduced oversight
    C. Follows central lab rules
    D. Requires pathologist review
60. Recovery experiment formula:
    A. (Spiked result – Baseline)/Added amount × 100
    B. (Baseline – Spiked result)/Added amount × 100
    C. Added amount/(Spiked result) × 100
    D. (Spiked result)/Added amount × 100

Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams:

Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams that are recognized globally and can help professionals validate their credentials and enhance their career opportunities:

1. ASCP – American Society for Clinical Pathology (USA)

• Exam Name: MLS(ASCP)
• Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree with clinical laboratory experience.
• Global Recognition: High
• Purpose: Certifies Medical Laboratory Scientists in the United States and internationally.

2. AMT – American Medical Technologists (USA)

• Exam Name: MLT(AMT) or MT(AMT)
• Eligibility: Academic and/or work experience in medical laboratory technology.
• Global Recognition: Moderate
• Purpose: Credentialing for medical technologists and technicians.

3. AIMS – Australian Institute of Medical and Clinical Scientists

• Exam Name: AIMS Certification Exam
• Eligibility: Assessment of qualifications and work experience.
• Recognition: Required for practice in Australia.
• Purpose: Certification and registration in Australia.

4. CSMLS – Canadian Society for Medical Laboratory Science

• Exam Name: CSMLS General or Subject-specific Exams
• Eligibility: Graduation from a CSMLS-accredited program or equivalent.
• Recognition: Canada
• Purpose: Entry-to-practice certification in Canada.

5. IBMS – Institute of Biomedical Science (UK)

• Exam Name: Registration and Specialist Portfolio Assessment
• Eligibility: Accredited degree and lab experience.
• Recognition: UK and some Commonwealth countries.
• Purpose: Biomedical Scientist registration with the HCPC (UK).

6. HAAD / DOH – Department of Health, Abu Dhabi (UAE)

• Exam Name: DOH/HAAD License Exam
• Eligibility: Degree in medical laboratory science and experience.
• Recognition: UAE (Abu Dhabi)
• Purpose: Licensure for medical laboratory practice in Abu Dhabi.

7. DHA – Dubai Health Authority (UAE)

• Exam Name: DHA License Exam for Medical Laboratory Technologists
• Eligibility: Relevant degree and experience.
• Recognition: Dubai, UAE
• Purpose: Professional license for clinical laboratory practice in Dubai.

8. MOH – Ministry of Health (Gulf Countries like UAE, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait)

• Exam Name: MOH License Exam
• Eligibility: BSc/Diploma in Medical Laboratory + experience.
• Recognition: Varies by country.
• Purpose: Required for practicing in public and private sector labs.

Tags:
#ASCPMLS #MLSexam #LabTech #MedicalLaboratory #BOCexam #FreePracticeQuestions #QualityControl #LaboratorySafety

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