Free ASCP MLS Exam Practice Questions: Part 43 includes 60 MCQs (3521 – 3580) on bone marrow examination and related disorders. Topics include bone marrow aspiration and biopsy, marrow cellularity, aplastic anemia, leukemias, myelodysplastic syndromes, and diagnostic techniques like cytogenetics and flow cytometry.
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ASCP MLS Exam MCQs Chapter 43
Why Take This Mock Test? Strengthens exam confidence Highlights areas for improvement Provides practice with clinically relevant scenarios This mock test (60 MCQs (3521 – 3580) ) is part of our ongoing ASCP MLS Exam Practice Series , giving you structured preparation for all major immunology topics.
Our Bone Marrow Examination and Disorders Mock Test is specifically designed for candidates appearing in ASCP MLS, AMT MLT/MT, AIMS, CSMLS, IBMS, HAAD/DOH, DHA, and MOH exams. This mock test mirrors the structure, difficulty level, and question style you can expect in the actual examination.
Take this test to: ✅ Strengthen your Pathology exam preparation. ✅ Boost confidence before the ASCP MLS Exam .
Who Should Use This Mock Test? Medical Laboratory Scientists and Technicians
Pathology Students
Professionals preparing for international laboratory certification exams
Anyone seeking to strengthen their knowledge of Bone Marrow Examination and Disorders
How to Use This Mock Test Effectively Simulate Exam Conditions: Attempt the test in one sitting without referring to notes.
Track Your Time: Keep within the allotted time limit to build speed.
Review Explanations: Study the answer explanations to strengthen understanding.
Repeat for Retention: Re-attempt after revision to measure improvement.
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ASCP Exam Questions
In polycythemia vera, the bone marrow M:E ratio is usually:
Polycythemia vera (PV) is characterized by pannyelosis – a hyperplasia (increase) of all three myeloid cell lines : erythroid, granulocytic, and megakaryocytic.
Because all cell lines are increased, the myeloid-to-erythroid (M:E) ratio often remains within the normal range (approximately 2:1 to 4:1).
The key diagnostic feature is the trilineage hyperplasia , not a skewed M:E ratio.
The other options are incorrect:
b) High (>10:1) → Characteristic of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) , due to massive granulocytic hyperplasia.
c) Low (<2:1) → Seen in pure erythroid disorders like some hemolytic anemias.
d) Variable and unpredictable → Incorrect; the M:E ratio in PV is typically normal due to proportional increases in all lineages.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Foam cells with vacuolated cytoplasm containing sphingomyelin, seen in the bone marrow, are most characteristic of:
Foam cells in the bone marrow with vacuolated cytoplasm containing sphingomyelin are characteristic of Niemann-Pick Disease (types A and B).
This is a lysosomal storage disorder caused by a deficiency of the enzyme sphingomyelinase , leading to the accumulation of sphingomyelin in macrophages.
The other options are incorrect:
a) Gaucher Disease → Shows Gaucher cells which have a characteristic wrinkled tissue paper appearance due to glucocerebroside accumulation, not foam cells.
c) Multiple Myeloma → Shows plasma cell infiltration, not foam cells.
d) Hairy Cell Leukemia → Shows lymphocytes with “hairy” projections, not foam cells.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Dyserythropoiesis with nuclear abnormalities is a hallmark of:
Dyserythropoiesis refers to abnormal and ineffective red blood cell production.
In Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) , dyserythropoiesis is a key feature and includes nuclear abnormalities such as:
These changes reflect disordered maturation and are part of the pathologic findings in MDS bone marrow.
The other options are incorrect:
a) Megaloblastic anemia → Shows megaloblastic changes (nuclear-cytoplasmic asynchrony) but not the same dysplastic nuclear abnormalities as MDS.
c) Sickle cell anemia → Shows sickle-shaped RBCs due to hemoglobin S, not dyserythropoiesis with nuclear abnormalities.
d) Leukemoid reaction → Shows increased granulocyte precursors without dysplastic features.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which bone marrow feature is associated with parvovirus B19 infection?
Parvovirus B19 infects and lyses erythroid progenitor cells , specifically pronormoblasts.
This leads to the appearance of giant pronormoblasts in the bone marrow—large, early red cell precursors with prominent nucleoli and viral inclusions.
In immunocompetent individuals, this causes a transient aplastic crisis (especially in those with underlying hemolytic disorders), resulting in temporary marrow erythroid hypoplasia.
The other options are incorrect:
a) Hypercellularity → Not typical; parvovirus B19 causes erythroid hypoplasia.
c) Increased blasts → Seen in leukemias, not parvovirus infection.
d) Increased megakaryocytes → Seen in myeloproliferative neoplasms like essential thrombocythemia.
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In which disorder is bone marrow packed with small mature lymphocytes?
In CLL , the bone marrow is typically hypercellular and infiltrated by small, mature-looking lymphocytes (with clumped chromatin and scant cytoplasm).
These lymphocytes are monoclonal B-cells and their accumulation in the marrow can lead to cytopenias by crowding out normal hematopoietic cells.
The other options are incorrect:
a) ALL (Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia) → Shows lymphoblasts (immature cells with fine chromatin and nucleoli), not small mature lymphocytes.
c) AML (Acute Myeloid Leukemia) → Shows myeloblasts (immature myeloid cells).
d) Multiple myeloma → Shows an increase in plasma cells , not small mature lymphocytes.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which disorder shows increased megakaryocytes in bone marrow?
Essential thrombocythemia (ET) is a myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by sustained overproduction of platelets .
The bone marrow in ET typically shows a marked increase in megakaryocytes , which are often large and clustered, with hyperlobated nuclei.
The other options are incorrect:
b) Aplastic anemia → Shows hypocellular marrow with a marked decrease in all cell lines, including megakaryocytes.
c) Iron deficiency anemia → May show normocellular or hypercellular marrow due to erythroid hyperplasia, but megakaryocytes are not specifically increased.
d) Hemophilia A → A coagulation factor VIII deficiency disorder; bone marrow is normal, with no increase in megakaryocytes.
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A bone marrow examination from a patient with suspected megaloblastic anemia would be expected to show:
The other options are incorrect:
b) Ringed sideroblasts → Seen in sideroblastic anemia .
c) An absence of erythroid precursors → Seen in pure red cell aplasia .
d) An increase in small, mature lymphocytes → Seen in chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) .
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What is the typical myeloid to erythroid (M:E) ratio in a normal adult bone marrow?
The normal myeloid to erythroid (M:E) ratio in a healthy adult bone marrow typically ranges from 2:1 to 4:1 , with 3:1 being a standard average.
This means there are normally about three myeloid cells (granulocytes and their precursors) for every one erythroid cell (red blood cell precursors).
The other options are incorrect:
a) 1:1 → Suggests erythroid hyperplasia , seen in conditions like hemolytic anemia or blood loss.
b) 1:3 → Indicates a marked reversal, seen in pure red cell aplasia or severe erythroid expansion.
d) 10:1 → Indicates myeloid hyperplasia , seen in chronic myeloid leukemia or severe infections.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which procedure is most useful for detecting marrow fibrosis?
Marrow fibrosis (reticulin or collagen deposition) is best detected and evaluated on a bone marrow core biopsy .
Special stains, particularly the reticulin stain (and trichrome stain for collagen), are used to visualize and grade the extent of fibrosis.
A core biopsy provides the structural integrity needed to assess fiber density and pattern, which is lost in an aspirate smear.
The other options are incorrect:
a) Aspirate smear → Often results in a “dry tap” in fibrosis, and fibers are not visible on a smear.
c) Flow cytometry → Used for immunophenotyping, not fibrosis detection.
d) Peripheral smear → May show teardrop cells and leukoerythroblastosis as indirect signs, but cannot directly detect marrow fibrosis.
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Which finding is common in bone marrow of patients with CML?
Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) is characterized by a massive increase in myeloid cells at all stages of development.
The bone marrow is hypercellular due to granulocytic hyperplasia (marked increase in neutrophils and their precursors).
There is a left shift , meaning an increased number of immature granulocytes (myelocytes, promyelocytes), but blasts are <20% (if ≥20%, it suggests transformation to acute leukemia).
The other options are incorrect:
a) Increased blasts >20% → Indicates blast crisis (accelerated or acute phase) of CML, not the chronic phase.
c) Fatty replacement → Seen in aplastic anemia .
d) Pure erythroid hyperplasia → Seen in polycythemia vera (early) or hemolytic anemias.
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Which bone marrow change is typical in hemolytic anemia?
In hemolytic anemia , the premature destruction of red blood cells leads to compensatory erythropoiesis in the bone marrow.
This results in erythroid hyperplasia , meaning a significant increase in erythroid precursors (normoblasts) in the marrow.
The M:E (myeloid-to-erythroid) ratio is often decreased (e.g., 1:1 or even reversed) due to the expansion of the erythroid series.
The other options are incorrect:
b) Decreased erythroid activity → Seen in aplastic anemia or bone marrow failure.
c) Fatty replacement → Characteristic of aplastic anemia.
d) Fibrosis → Seen in myelofibrosis.
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In which of the following conditions is the bone marrow most likely to show a significant increase in eosinophil precursors?
Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) with inv(16)(p13.1q22) or t(16;16)(p13.1;q22) is a specific genetic subtype of AML (formerly known as M4Eo in the FAB classification).
This abnormality disrupts the CBFB-MYH11 fusion gene and is characteristically associated with a significant increase in abnormal eosinophil precursors in the bone marrow.
These eosinophils often contain a mixture of eosinophilic and basophilic granules, which are a distinctive morphological clue to this diagnosis.
The other options are incorrect:
b) Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL) → Shows an increase in small, mature lymphocytes, not eosinophils.
c) Iron deficiency anemia → Shows microcytic, hypochromic red cells and decreased iron stores; no increase in eosinophils.
d) Multiple Myeloma → Shows an increase in plasma cells, not eosinophils.
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Bone marrow involvement with Reed–Sternberg cells is typical of:
Reed–Sternberg cells are the pathognomonic malignant cells of Hodgkin lymphoma .
These are large, binucleated or multilobated cells with prominent eosinophilic nucleoli, giving an “owl-eye” appearance.
Their presence in a bone marrow biopsy indicates marrow involvement by Hodgkin lymphoma, which is typically seen in advanced-stage disease.
The other options are incorrect:
b) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma → Involves the marrow with lymphoma cells specific to the subtype (e.g., small lymphocytes in CLL), but not Reed–Sternberg cells.
c) Multiple myeloma → Involves plasma cells, not Reed–Sternberg cells.
d) AML → Involves myeloblasts, not Reed–Sternberg cells.
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Which test is used to assess the myeloid-to-erythroid (M:E) ratio in bone marrow?
The myeloid-to-erythroid (M:E) ratio is assessed by performing a manual morphologic differential count on a bone marrow aspirate smear under the microscope.
This involves counting and categorizing at least 500 nucleated cells into myeloid precursors, erythroid precursors, lymphocytes, monocytes, and other cells to determine the ratio of granulocytic to erythroid cells.
The other options are incorrect:
a) Flow cytometry → Used for immunophenotyping, not for determining M:E ratio.
c) Hemoglobin electrophoresis → Used to identify hemoglobin variants (e.g., in thalassemia or sickle cell disease).
d) Reticulocyte count → Measures red blood cell production in peripheral blood, not bone marrow M:E ratio.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which stain is used to demonstrate iron stores in bone marrow?
The Prussian blue stain (also known as Perls’ stain) is the standard histochemical stain used to detect iron stores in bone marrow aspirate or biopsy specimens.
It specifically stains ferric iron (Fe³⁺) as a blue color, allowing for the visualization and grading of iron stores in marrow macrophages and erythroid precursors.
The other stains have different uses:
a) PAS stain → Used to detect glycogen, mucins, and other carbohydrates; helpful in diagnosing certain leukemias (e.g., erythroleukemia) and storage diseases.
c) Wright–Giemsa stain → The routine stain for peripheral blood and bone marrow smears to assess overall cell morphology.
d) Sudan black stain → Used to stain myeloid granules; helpful in classifying acute myeloid leukemia (AML).
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Which of the following is a WHO classification category for Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS)?
Refractory Anemia with Excess Blasts (RAEB) is a well-defined category within the WHO classification of Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS).
It is subdivided into:
RAEB-1: 5–9% blasts in the bone marrow.
RAEB-2: 10–19% blasts in the bone marrow (or Auer rods present with <20% blasts).
The other options are not classified as MDS:
a) Chronic Myelomonocytic Leukemia (CMML) → Classified under MDS/MPN overlap syndromes. c) Essential Thrombocythemia (ET) → A myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN). d) Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML) → Also classified under MDS/MPN overlap syndromes. 17 / 60
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which stain is considered the “gold standard” for assessing bone marrow iron stores?
The Prussian blue stain (also known as Perls’ stain) is the gold standard for evaluating iron stores in the bone marrow.
It specifically detects ferric iron (Fe³⁺) in hemosiderin within macrophages and erythroid precursors, staining it a blue color.
This allows for the assessment of both storage iron (in macrophages) and functional iron (in erythroid precursors), and is essential for diagnosing iron deficiency, iron overload, and sideroblastic anemias.
The other stains have different uses:
a) Wright stain → Routine stain for cellular morphology.
b) Myeloperoxidase stain → Used to identify myeloid lineage in acute leukemias.
c) Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain → Used to detect glycogen and mucopolysaccharides; helpful in diagnosing certain leukemias and storage diseases.
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Which cell type is increased in multiple myeloma bone marrow?
Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells .
The bone marrow in multiple myeloma shows a significant increase in plasma cells , typically making up more than 10% of the marrow cellularity (often much higher), with sheets or clusters of abnormal plasma cells.
These malignant plasma cells produce monoclonal immunoglobulin, which appears as an M-spike on serum protein electrophoresis.
The other options are incorrect:
a) Lymphoblasts → Increased in acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).
c) Erythroblasts → Increased in erythroid hyperplasia (e.g., hemolytic anemia).
d) Myeloblasts → Increased in acute myeloid leukemia (AML).
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ASCP Exam Questions
What defines the MDS subgroup “Refractory Anemia with Ringed Sideroblasts” (RARS)?
According to the WHO classification, Refractory Anemia with Ringed Sideroblasts (RARS) is defined by:
≥15% ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow erythroid series.
<5% blasts in the bone marrow.
Dysplasia primarily restricted to the erythroid lineage .
Presence of refractory anemia (anemia that does not respond to usual treatments).
The other options are incorrect:
b) >50% ringed sideroblasts with >20% blasts → This would suggest an overlap with acute leukemia or MDS/MPN, not RARS.
c) <5% ringed sideroblasts with single lineage dysplasia → This would fall under MDS with single lineage dysplasia , not RARS.
d) Presence of Auer rods with any number of ringed sideroblasts → Auer rods indicate MDS with excess blasts or acute myeloid leukemia, not RARS.
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Increased blasts (>20%) in bone marrow is diagnostic of:
The presence of ≥20% blasts in the bone marrow is the defining diagnostic criterion for acute leukemia according to the World Health Organization (WHO) classification.
This applies to both acute myeloid leukemia (AML) and acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) .
The other options are incorrect:
a) Leukemoid reaction → Shows increased mature and immature granulocytes, but blasts are not increased to ≥20%.
c) Aplastic anemia → Characterized by marrow hypocellularity and a decrease in all cell lines, including blasts.
d) Myelodysplasia only → Myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) have <20% blasts . If blasts reach ≥20%, the diagnosis changes to acute leukemia.
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Normal M:E ratio in bone marrow is approximately:
The normal myeloid-to-erythroid (M:E) ratio in adult bone marrow is approximately 2:1 to 4:1 .
This means there are normally about 2 to 4 myeloid cells (granulocytes and their precursors) for every 1 erythroid cell (red blood cell precursors).
The other options are incorrect:
a) 1:1 → This would indicate erythroid hyperplasia (e.g., in hemolytic anemia or blood loss).
c) 10:1 → This indicates myeloid hyperplasia (e.g., in chronic myeloid leukemia or infection).
d) 20:1 → This is markedly elevated and suggests a significant increase in myeloid cells or a severe reduction in erythroid precursors.
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Which of the following is a characteristic bone marrow finding in primary myelofibrosis?
Primary myelofibrosis is a myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by bone marrow fibrosis (reticulin and collagen deposition), which is its hallmark feature.
This fibrosis disrupts normal hematopoiesis, leading to:
The other options are incorrect:
a) Pannyelosis → Characteristic of polycythemia vera (increase in all myeloid cell lines).
c) Ringed sideroblasts → Seen in sideroblastic anemia .
d) Decreased megakaryocytes → Incorrect; primary myelofibrosis often shows increased and atypical megakaryocytes in clusters.
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ASCP Exam Questions
In children, bone marrow aspiration is often performed from the:
In infants and young children, the proximal tibia is a commonly used site for bone marrow aspiration because:
It contains active hematopoietic (red) marrow.
It is easily accessible and relatively safe, with no major nerves or blood vessels in the immediate vicinity.
The bone is still soft and easier to penetrate.
The other options are less common or not used:
a) Sternum → Can be used in older children and adults, but carries more risk and is generally avoided in young children.
c) Radius and d) Ulna → Not standard sites for bone marrow aspiration, as they are primarily cortical bone with little marrow space.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The presence of Auer rods in blast cells on a bone marrow smear is a feature of:
Auer rods are slender, needle-shaped cytoplasmic inclusions formed by the fusion of primary (azurophilic) granules.
They are pathognomonic for myeloid lineage and are found in myeloblasts or promyelocytes .
Their presence is a definitive feature of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) and helps distinguish it from Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL).
The other options are incorrect:
a) Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) → Lymphoblasts do not contain Auer rods.
b) Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL) → Involves mature lymphocytes, not blasts, and no Auer rods.
d) Hairy Cell Leukemia → Involves mature B-lymphocytes with “hairy” projections, not Auer rods.
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Which bone marrow disorder shows “dry tap” and tear-drop cells in blood smear?
The other options are incorrect:
a) Polycythemia vera → Shows hypercellular marrow (easy aspiration) and increased red cell mass, not tear-drop cells.
c) Aplastic anemia → Shows hypocellular marrow but no tear-drop cells; dry tap may occur but is due to empty marrow, not fibrosis.
d) Leukemoid reaction → Shows immature myeloid cells in blood but no dry tap or tear-drop cells.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The Philadelphia chromosome, a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, is a classic cytogenetic finding in which bone marrow disorder?
The Philadelphia chromosome is a shortened chromosome 22 resulting from a reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22 , denoted as t(9;22)(q34;q11) .
This translocation creates the BCR-ABL1 fusion gene , which produces a constitutively active tyrosine kinase that drives uncontrolled myeloid cell proliferation.
It is the pathognomonic genetic abnormality found in over 95% of Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML) cases.
The other options are incorrect:
a) Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia → Associated with t(15;17) .
b) Polycythemia Vera → Often associated with JAK2 V617F mutation.
d) Myelodysplastic Syndrome → Has various cytogenetic abnormalities, but not the Philadelphia chromosome.
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A bone marrow examination revealing 30% proerythroblasts and >80% erythroid precursors is most characteristic of:
The description of >80% erythroid precursors in the bone marrow, with >30% of the nucleated cells being proerythroblasts (early erythroid blasts) , is the diagnostic hallmark of Acute Erythroid Leukemia (according to the WHO classification).
This specific subtype of AML (formerly known as AML-M6) is characterized by a predominant erythroid population and a high percentage of immature erythroblasts.
The other options are incorrect:
a) Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS) → Has dysplastic features and <20% blasts; it does not show such a high percentage of proerythroblasts.
b) Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) with minimal differentiation → Myeloblasts are the dominant population, not erythroid precursors.
d) Aplastic Anemia → Shows a hypocellular marrow with fat replacement and a severe reduction of all hematopoietic cells, not an expansion of erythroblasts.
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The primary diagnostic test for hairy cell leukemia involves:
The other options are incorrect:
b) Reticulocyte count → Assesses erythropoietic activity, not diagnostic for HCL.
c) Hemoglobin electrophoresis → Used for hemoglobinopathies (e.g., sickle cell, thalassemia).
d) Coombs test → Detects antibodies in immune hemolytic anemia.
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A bone marrow that is hypercellular with 50% or more of the nucleated cells being erythroid precursors and a low M:E ratio is characteristic of:
The other options are incorrect:
a) Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML) → Shows granulocytic hyperplasia and a high M:E ratio .
c) Aplastic Anemia → Shows a hypocellular marrow, not hypercellular.
d) Essential Thrombocythemia → Shows increased megakaryocytes, not a predominance of erythroid precursors.
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Which of the following is a feature of megaloblastic bone marrow?
Megaloblastic bone marrow , caused by vitamin B12 or folate deficiency, is characterized by megaloblastic erythropoiesis .
The key feature is nuclear–cytoplasmic asynchrony : the nucleus remains immature and large (with open, lacy chromatin) while the cytoplasm matures normally, leading to large, developing red blood cells (megaloblasts).
The other options are incorrect:
b) Hypocellularity → Characteristic of aplastic anemia, not megaloblastic anemia.
c) Abundant iron stores → May be present but is not specific to megaloblastic anemia.
d) Predominance of lymphoblasts → Seen in acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).
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The bone marrow in Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL) typically shows:
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL) is characterized by a progressive accumulation of monoclonal, mature-looking B lymphocytes in the bone marrow, blood, and lymphoid tissues.
In the bone marrow, these cells are typically small, mature lymphocytes with clumped chromatin and scant cytoplasm. The infiltration can be nodular, interstitial, or diffuse, and as the disease progresses, it can replace normal marrow elements, leading to cytopenias.
The other options are incorrect:
a) An increase in myeloblasts → This is seen in acute myeloid leukemia (AML) .
c) An increase in megakaryocytes → This is a feature of myeloproliferative neoplasms like essential thrombocythemia.
d) A depletion of all cell lines → This describes aplastic anemia .
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Which bone marrow finding is characteristic of aplastic anemia?
Aplastic anemia is characterized by bone marrow failure leading to pancytopenia (low red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets) in the peripheral blood.
The defining bone marrow finding is marked hypocellularity (usually < 25–30% cellularity) with replacement by fat .
There is an absence of significant fibrosis, infiltrates, or increased blasts.
The other options are incorrect:
a) Hypercellular marrow → Seen in leukemias, myeloproliferative neoplasms, or hemolytic anemias.
c) Normal cellularity → Not characteristic of aplastic anemia.
d) Increased blasts → Seen in acute leukemias or myelodysplastic syndromes.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The presence of ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow, characterized by iron-laden mitochondria surrounding the nucleus, is indicative of:
Ringed sideroblasts are abnormal erythroid precursors (normoblasts) in which iron-laden mitochondria form a perinuclear ring, visualized with Prussian blue stain .
This finding is the hallmark of sideroblastic anemia , a disorder of ineffective erythropoiesis due to impaired heme synthesis.
Causes can be hereditary (e.g., ALAS2 gene mutations) or acquired (e.g., myelodysplastic syndromes, alcohol, drugs).
The other options are incorrect:
a) Iron deficiency anemia → Shows absent marrow iron stores and no ringed sideroblasts.
b) Anemia of chronic inflammation → Shows normal or increased iron stores, but not ringed sideroblasts.
d) Thalassemia → May show erythroid hyperplasia and increased iron, but not the characteristic ringed sideroblasts.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The presence of more than 15% ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow is a key feature of which MDS subtype?
The other options are incorrect:
a) MDS with single lineage dysplasia → Defined by dysplasia in one cell line and <15% ringed sideroblasts.
b) MDS with excess blasts → Defined by 5–19% blasts, not by ringed sideroblasts.
d) MDS with isolated del(5q) → Defined by the specific cytogenetic abnormality del(5q), regardless of ringed sideroblast count.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which bone is most commonly used for adult bone marrow aspiration?
The posterior superior iliac crest is the most common and preferred site for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy in adults because it is:
The other options are less common or not preferred:
a) Sternum → Can be used for aspiration in some cases, but carries higher risk due to proximity to major vessels and the heart.
b) Tibia → Used primarily in infants and young children, not adults.
d) Femur → Not a standard site for marrow aspiration; typically involved in procedures like bone
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In an uncomplicated case of severe iron deficiency anemia, what would bone marrow iron stores (as assessed by Prussian blue stain) typically show?
In severe iron deficiency anemia , the body’s iron stores are depleted.
When a Prussian blue stain is performed on a bone marrow aspirate or biopsy, it demonstrates the amount of storage iron (as hemosiderin) in macrophages.
In uncomplicated, established iron deficiency anemia, these iron stores are absent (a result of 0 on the Gale scale).
The other options are incorrect:
a) Markedly increased → Seen in conditions like hemochromatosis or transfusion overload.
b) Normal → Inconsistent with severe iron deficiency.
d) Ringed sideroblasts → Seen in sideroblastic anemia, where iron is present but improperly utilized in the mitochondria of erythroid precursors.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A “dry tap” during bone marrow aspiration is most commonly associated with:
A “dry tap” occurs when no bone marrow particles or fluid can be aspirated into the syringe during a bone marrow aspiration procedure. This is most commonly associated with:
Myelofibrosis : Replacement of normal marrow with fibrous tissue, making aspiration difficult or impossible.
Aplastic anemia : Marked hypocellularity (empty marrow) with very few cells to aspirate.
Marrow infiltration : By tumor cells (e.g., metastatic cancer, lymphoma) or other abnormal tissue.
The other options are incorrect:
a) Iron deficiency anemia → Usually yields good marrow aspirate with erythroid hyperplasia.
c) Megaloblastic anemia → Typically yields hypercellular marrow.
d) Hemolytic anemia → Usually yields good aspirate with erythroid hyperplasia.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Gaucher cells in bone marrow contain:
Gaucher cells are enlarged, lipid-laden macrophages found in the bone marrow (and other organs) of patients with Gaucher disease .
They contain undegraded glucocerebroside due to a deficiency of the enzyme glucocerebrosidase .
Microscopically, they have a characteristic wrinkled tissue paper appearance in the cytoplasm.
The other options are incorrect:
a) DNA remnants → This describes Howell-Jolly bodies in red blood cells.
c) Iron deposits → This describes Pappenheimer bodies or hemosiderin-laden macrophages.
d) Hemoglobin crystals → Seen in certain hemoglobinopathies like HbC disease.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Normal bone marrow cellularity in adults is approximately:
Bone marrow cellularity refers to the percentage of the marrow space occupied by hematopoietic cells (as opposed to fat).
In healthy adults , normal bone marrow cellularity is approximately 30–70% , with the remaining being fat.
Cellularity decreases with age; in younger adults, it may be closer to 50–70%, while in older adults it may be lower (around 30–50%).
The other options are incorrect:
a) 10% → This would indicate severe hypocellularity , as seen in aplastic anemia.
c) 90% → This indicates hypercellularity , which can be seen in leukemia, myeloproliferative neoplasms, or severe hemolytic anemias.
d) 100% → This is not seen in normal marrow and would indicate complete replacement by abnormal cells (e.g., solid tumor metastasis or extensive fibrosis).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Myelofibrosis is characterized by:
The other options are incorrect:
a) Increased bone marrow cellularity → May occur early in the disease, but the hallmark is progressive fibrosis leading to eventual hypocellularity.
c) Increased iron stores → Not specific to myelofibrosis; can be seen in many conditions.
d) Pure erythroid hyperplasia → Characteristic of conditions like polycythemia vera (early) or hemolytic anemias, not myelofibrosis.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The replacement of normal marrow precursor cells by an accumulation of more than 20% blasts is a hallmark of:
The defining feature of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) is the presence of ≥20% blasts (myeloblasts) in the bone marrow or peripheral blood, according to the World Health Organization (WHO) classification.
This replacement of normal hematopoietic cells by a clonal population of immature blasts leads to bone marrow failure, resulting in cytopenias.
The other options are incorrect:
a) Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL) → Characterized by an accumulation of mature-looking lymphocytes , not blasts.
b) Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS) → Defined by dysplasia and cytopenias with <20% blasts . If blasts reach ≥20%, the diagnosis is changed to AML.
d) Polycythemia Vera (PV) → A myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by overproduction of mature red cells, white cells, and platelets; it does not show increased blasts.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which cytogenetic abnormality is associated with a more stable clinical course in Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)?
The isolated del(5q) abnormality defines the MDS with isolated del(5q) subtype in the WHO classification.
Patients with this abnormality typically have a more favorable prognosis and a stable clinical course compared to other MDS subtypes.
They often present with refractory macrocytic anemia, normal or elevated platelet counts, and hypolobated megakaryocytes in the bone marrow.
They also have a lower risk of transformation to acute myeloid leukemia (AML) and often respond well to treatment with lenalidomide.
The other options are associated with a poorer or intermediate prognosis:
a) Monosomy 7 → Associated with a poor prognosis and higher risk of AML transformation.
c) Trisomy 8 → Generally an intermediate-risk abnormality.
d) del(20q) → Considered an intermediate-risk abnormality.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following bone marrow findings would favor a diagnosis of multiple myeloma over a reactive plasmacytosis?
The other options can be seen in both reactive and neoplastic conditions:
a) Presence of occasional flame cells → Can be seen in both reactive states and myeloma.
b) Plasmacytic satellitesis → An artifact of smear preparation, not diagnostic.
d) Presence of Russell bodies → Can be found in both benign and malignant plasma cells.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) are best described as:
The other options are incorrect:
a) Purely erythroid disorders → Incorrect, as MDS involves multiple cell lines.
c) Reactive conditions → MDS are neoplastic, not reactive.
d) Autoimmune marrow suppression → This describes conditions like some cases of aplastic anemia, not MDS.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following is the largest cell normally found in the bone marrow?
The megakaryocyte is the largest cell normally found in the bone marrow, typically ranging from 50 to 100 micrometers in diameter.
It is responsible for producing platelets and is easily identified by its enormous size and multilobulated nucleus.
The other options, while notable, are not the largest:
a) Osteoblast → A bone-forming cell, large but generally smaller than a megakaryocyte.
b) Histiocyte (macrophage) → Can be large, especially when activated, but not typically as large as a megakaryocyte.
d) Mast Cell → Generally smaller and rounder, with granules that obscure the nucleus.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A bone marrow that is hypercellular with 95% of the cells being blasts, some with Auer rods, is diagnostic for:
The finding of ≥20% blasts in the bone marrow is the defining criterion for a diagnosis of acute leukemia .
A marrow that is hypercellular with 95% blasts far exceeds this threshold.
The presence of Auer rods (needle-shaped inclusions composed of fused primary granules) specifically indicates a myeloid lineage, confirming Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) .
The other options are incorrect:
a) Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML) → Shows a full spectrum of myeloid maturation with <10% blasts in the chronic phase.
c) Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS) → Defined by <20% blasts .
d) Aplastic Anemia → Characterized by a hypocellular marrow, not a hypercellular one filled with blasts.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A bone marrow biopsy showing “pannyelosis” (hyperplasia of all cell lines) is a characteristic feature of:
Pannyelosis refers to the hyperplasia (overgrowth) of all three myeloid cell lines in the bone marrow: erythroid, granulocytic, and megakaryocytic.
This is a hallmark histological finding in Polycythemia Vera (PV) , a Philadelphia chromosome-negative myeloproliferative neoplasm.
The bone marrow in PV is typically hypercellular with increased red blood cell precursors, white blood cell precursors, and megakaryocytes (which often appear in clusters).
The other options are incorrect:
a) Aplastic Anemia → Shows hypocellular marrow with fatty replacement.
b) Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS) → May be hypercellular or normocellular, but shows dysplasia in one or more cell lines, not balanced pannyelosis.
c) Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH) → Shows normocellular or hypocellular marrow, not pannyelosis.
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ASCP Exam Questions
In multiple myeloma, the peripheral smear often shows:
Multiple myeloma is characterized by the overproduction of monoclonal immunoglobulins (M-proteins).
These abnormal proteins coat red blood cells, reducing their normal negative surface charge repulsion and causing them to stack together in chains, a phenomenon known as rouleaux formation .
This is a classic and frequently observed finding on the peripheral blood smear of patients with multiple myeloma.
The other options are incorrect:
b) Target cells → More characteristic of liver disease or hemoglobinopathies like thalassemia.
c) Howell–Jolly bodies → Seen in hyposplenism or megaloblastic anemia.
d) Bite cells → Seen in oxidative hemolysis, such as in G6PD deficiency.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Aplastic anemia is characterized by a bone marrow that is:
The other options are incorrect:
a) Hypercellular with increased blasts → Characteristic of acute leukemia .
b) Hypercellular with dysplastic changes → Seen in myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) .
d) Normocellular with ringed sideroblasts → Seen in sideroblastic anemia .
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ASCP Exam Questions
In a normal adult bone marrow aspirate, what is the most common granulocyte found?
In a normal adult bone marrow aspirate , the most abundant granulocyte precursor is the metamyelocyte .
Maturation sequence of granulocytes:
Myeloblast → 2. Promyelocyte → 3. Myelocyte → 4. Metamyelocyte → 5. Band → 6. Segmented neutrophil.
Myeloblasts and promyelocytes are less numerous.
Segmented neutrophils are mainly found in peripheral blood rather than in marrow.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which condition shows hypocellular bone marrow and pancytopenia?
The other options are incorrect:
b) Iron deficiency anemia → Shows microcytic, hypochromic anemia, but the bone marrow is usually normocellular or hypercellular (due to erythroid hyperplasia), and pancytopenia is not present.
c) Thalassemia minor → Shows mild microcytic anemia, but bone marrow is hypercellular (due to ineffective erythropoiesis) and pancytopenia is absent.
d) CML (Chronic Myeloid Leukemia) → Shows hypercellular bone marrow (due to massive granulocytic proliferation) and elevated white blood cell counts, not pancytopenia.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Bone marrow biopsy in polycythemia vera usually shows:
Polycythemia vera (PV) is a myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by overproduction of red blood cells, and often white blood cells and platelets as well.
The bone marrow biopsy typically shows:
Hypercellularity (increased cellularity for the patient’s age)
Pannyelosis : Increase in all myeloid cell lines (erythroid, granulocytic, and megakaryocytic)
Prominent erythroid precursors and megakaryocytes (which may be clustered and pleomorphic)
The other options are incorrect:
a) Hypocellularity → Seen in aplastic anemia.
c) Increased lymphocytes only → Seen in chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
d) Increased blasts only → Seen in acute leukemia.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Sea-blue histiocytes in bone marrow are associated with:
Sea-blue histiocytes are macrophages in the bone marrow (and other organs) whose cytoplasm is filled with lipid-containing granules that stain a distinctive sea-blue or blue-green color with Wright-Giemsa stain.
They are associated with lipid storage disorders , particularly:
They can also be seen in certain acquired conditions like chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) or after splenectomy, but they are classically linked to inherited lipid storage diseases.
The other options are incorrect:
b) Megaloblastic anemia → Shows megaloblastic changes, not sea-blue histiocytes.
c) Iron deficiency → Shows microcytic, hypochromic RBCs and absent iron stores.
d) Aplastic anemia → Shows hypocellular marrow, not sea-blue histiocytes.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Ring sideroblasts in bone marrow are seen in:
Ring sideroblasts are abnormal erythroid precursors (normoblasts) in the bone marrow in which iron-laden mitochondria form a ring or collar around the nucleus.
They are visualized using Prussian blue stain , which shows blue granules encircling at least one-third of the nucleus .
This finding is the hallmark of sideroblastic anemia , a disorder characterized by defective heme synthesis and ineffective erythropoiesis.
The other options are incorrect:
a) Iron deficiency anemia → Shows absent iron stores and no ring sideroblasts.
c) Thalassemia → May have increased iron stores and sideroblasts, but not the characteristic ring form.
d) Pernicious anemia → A type of megaloblastic anemia due to B12 deficiency; shows megaloblastic changes, not ring sideroblasts.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Giant, vacuolated, multinucleated erythroid precursors are a characteristic dysplastic finding in which of the following?
Giant, vacuolated, multinucleated erythroid precursors are a hallmark dysplastic finding in erythroleukemia (a subtype of acute myeloid leukemia, specifically AML-M6 in the FAB classification).
This subtype is characterized by a predominant erythroid population (>50% of nucleated cells in the marrow) and significant dysplastic changes in the erythroid series, including these abnormal, giant forms.
The other options are incorrect:
a) Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML) → Shows a full spectrum of granulocytic maturation without prominent erythroid dysplasia.
b) Primary Myelofibrosis → Shows megakaryocytic proliferation and fibrosis, not giant multinucleated erythroid precursors.
d) Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) → Involves lymphoblasts, not dysplastic erythroid cells.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A hypercellular bone marrow with a high myeloid to erythroid (M:E) ratio is most commonly due to:
A high myeloid to erythroid (M:E) ratio indicates a relative increase in myeloid cells (granulocytes and their precursors) compared to erythroid cells.
This is caused by granulocytic hyperplasia , which is an expansion of the granulocytic series.
Common causes include:
Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
Myeloproliferative neoplasms
Severe infections or inflammatory states
The other options are incorrect:
a) Lymphoid hyperplasia → Would increase lymphocytes, not the myeloid series, and would not typically raise the M:E ratio.
c) Normoblastic hyperplasia → Would increase erythroid precursors, lowering the M:E ratio.
d) Myeloid hypoplasia → Would result in a hypocellular marrow with a low M:E ratio.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following is a category in the WHO classification of myelodysplastic syndromes/myeloproliferative neoplasms (MDS/MPN)?
The WHO classification includes a specific category for Myelodysplastic/Myeloproliferative Neoplasms (MDS/MPN) , which are conditions featuring both dysplastic and proliferative features. Chronic Myelomonocytic Leukemia (CMML) is a classic example within this group.
The other options are classified elsewhere:
a) Acute Myelomonocytic Leukemia (AMML) → A subtype of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML).
b) Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML) → Classified as a Myeloproliferative Neoplasm (MPN).
c) Refractory Anemia with Excess Blasts (RAEB) → A category within Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS).
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ASCP Exam Questions
The finding of “dwarf” or micromegakaryocytes in the bone marrow is a feature of:
“Dwarf” or micromegakaryocytes are small, hypolobated megakaryocytes that are a characteristic dysplastic feature seen in certain myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPNs) , particularly primary myelofibrosis .
They can also be seen in myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) and MDS/MPN overlap disorders .
Their presence reflects abnormal megakaryopoiesis and is a clue to an underlying clonal marrow disorder.
The other options are incorrect:
a) Reactive thrombocytosis → Shows normal or increased mature, large megakaryocytes without dysplasia.
c) Iron deficiency anemia → No specific abnormality in megakaryocytes.
d) Vitamin B12 deficiency → Shows megaloblastic changes in erythroid and granulocytic series, not abnormal megakaryocytes.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The primary site of hematopoiesis in adults is:
In adults, the bone marrow is the primary site of hematopoiesis (production of blood cells), specifically the axial skeleton (pelvis, sternum, vertebrae, ribs, and skull) and proximal ends of long bones.
The other options are incorrect:
a) Liver → A major site of hematopoiesis during fetal development, but not in healthy adults.
b) Spleen → Involved in filtering blood and immune functions, not primary hematopoiesis in adults (except in certain diseases like myelofibrosis, where extramedullary hematopoiesis may occur).
d) Thymus → Site of T-cell maturation, not general blood cell production.
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