Assess your understanding of transfusion reactions and hemolytic disease with this mock test designed for Medical Laboratory Scientists and Students. This test challenges your knowledge of transfusion reaction types, investigation procedures, and the immune mechanisms involved in HDN.
What This Mock Test Covers Hemovigilance and reporting Classification of transfusion reactions Laboratory workup and investigation procedures Hemolytic disease of the newborn (Rh and ABO incompatibility) Prevention and management using RhIG
Report a question
ASCP MLS Exam MCQs Chapter 64
Why Take This Mock Test? Strengthens exam confidence Highlights areas for improvement Provides practice with clinically relevant scenarios This mock test (60 MCQs (4781 – 4840) ) is part of our ongoing ASCP MLS Exam Practice Series , giving you structured preparation for all major immunology topics.
Our Blood Banking – Transfusion Reactions and Hemolytic Disease Mock Test is specifically designed for candidates appearing in ASCP MLS, AMT MLT/MT, AIMS, CSMLS, IBMS, HAAD/DOH, DHA, and MOH exams. This mock test mirrors the structure, difficulty level, and question style you can expect in the actual examination.
Take this test to: ✅ Strengthen your Pathology exam preparation. ✅ Boost confidence before the ASCP MLS Exam .
Who Should Use This Mock Test? Medical Laboratory Scientists and Technicians
Pathology Students
Professionals preparing for international laboratory certification exams
Anyone seeking to strengthen their knowledge of Blood Banking – Transfusion Reactions and Hemolytic Disease
How to Use This Mock Test Effectively Simulate Exam Conditions: Attempt the test in one sitting without referring to notes.
Track Your Time: Keep within the allotted time limit to build speed.
Review Explanations: Study the answer explanations to strengthen understanding.
Repeat for Retention: Re-attempt after revision to measure improvement.
2 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step when a transfusion reaction is suspected?
The first and most critical action for any suspected transfusion reaction is to stop the transfusion immediately to prevent further administration of the potentially harmful product. Keeping the IV line open with normal saline ensures venous access for administering emergency medications or fluids if needed. All other investigative and therapeutic steps follow this initial action.
Why others are incorrect: (a) Slow the infusion and monitor the patient: ❌ Dangerous — if the reaction is hemolytic or anaphylactic, continuing the transfusion can worsen the condition.
(c) Administer epinephrine and call the physician: Used only if an anaphylactic reaction is evident, not as the universal first step .
(d) Send a post-transfusion sample to the lab immediately: Important, but comes after stopping the transfusion and maintaining IV access.
3 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN) caused by ABO incompatibility is most often seen in infants of which group of mothers?
HDN due to ABO incompatibility occurs when a mother has antibodies against the infant’s ABO blood group antigens.
Group O mothers naturally produce anti-A and anti-B antibodies (IgG type in addition to IgM), which can cross the placenta.
In contrast, group A mothers have anti-B (mostly IgM, which doesn’t cross placenta well), group B mothers have anti-A (mostly IgM), and group AB mothers have neither anti-A nor anti-B.
Therefore, ABO HDN is most common in type O mothers with a type A or B baby.
5 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following patients is at highest risk for developing transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GVHD)?
TA-GVHD occurs when donor T lymphocytes are not recognized as foreign by the recipient’s immune system and can therefore engraft and attack. This risk is highest when the donor is homozygous for an HLA haplotype that the recipient is heterozygous for , a scenario that is much more likely when the donor is a first-degree relative (e.g., parent, sibling).
Why the others are incorrect: (a) A full-term infant: Risk is low unless the baby is immunodeficient or receives blood from a relative.
(c) A patient with a positive DAT: Indicates immune hemolysis , not GVHD risk.
(d) A patient with a history of febrile reactions: At risk for FNHTR , not GVHD.
6 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
A patient develops hives and itching during a transfusion. This is most consistent with which type of reaction?
Hives (urticaria) and itching (pruritus) are the classic signs of a mild to moderate allergic transfusion reaction . This is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to a protein or other soluble substance in the donor plasma. It is distinct from a febrile reaction (fever/chills), a hemolytic reaction (pain, dark urine), or TRALI (respiratory distress).
Why others are incorrect: (a) Febrile non-hemolytic: Causes fever and chills , not hives or itching.
(c) Hemolytic: Causes fever, chills, back pain, dark urine, hypotension — not just hives.
(d) TRALI (Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury): Causes acute respiratory distress , hypoxemia , and non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema , not isolated skin symptoms.
7 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
The clerical check during a transfusion reaction investigation verifies:
The clerical check is the most critical first step in a transfusion reaction investigation. It involves re-verifying that the patient’s identity (on their wristband and all records) matches the information on the blood unit label and compatibility tag. This is done to rule out a misidentification error, which is the most common cause of life-threatening acute hemolytic reactions.
Why the others are incorrect: (b) Bacterial contamination: Checked through culture or Gram stain, not clerical review.
(c) Plasma protein content: Not relevant to reaction investigation.
(d) Temperature control: Related to storage/transport, not clerical verification.
8 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Post-transfusion purpura is associated with antibodies against:
Post-transfusion purpura (PTP) is a rare but severe condition characterized by sudden thrombocytopenia about 5-10 days after transfusion . It is most frequently caused by an antibody (often in an HPA-1a-negative patient) directed against the human platelet antigen HPA-1a (formerly Pl^A1) on transfused platelets. Paradoxically, this antibody also attacks the patient’s own HPA-1a-negative platelets.
Why the others are incorrect: (b) Leukocytes: Associated with febrile non-hemolytic reactions , not PTP.
(c) Plasma proteins: Cause allergic reactions , not thrombocytopenia.
(d) Hemoglobin: Hemolytic reactions involve red cells, not platelets.
9 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following maternal antibodies is most likely to cause severe Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn (HDFN)?
Anti-K is the most important non-RhD antibody causing severe HDFN after anti-RhD.
It can cause severe anemia not only by hemolysis but also by suppressing fetal erythropoiesis .
Anti-K HDFN may lead to hydrops fetalis at lower antibody titers compared to anti-RhD.
Other options:
a) Anti-Leᵃ → Lewis antigens are poorly developed in fetal RBCs; not a cause of significant HDFN.
b) Anti-P1 → typically IgM, does not cross placenta; not a cause of HDFN.
d) Anti-M → often IgM, can sometimes be IgG but rarely causes severe HDFN.
10 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
A transfusion reaction is defined as:
A transfusion reaction is broadly defined as any adverse event that occurs during or after the transfusion of blood or blood components. This definition includes both immune-mediated (e.g., hemolytic, febrile, allergic) and non-immune (e.g., circulatory overload, TRALI, bacterial contamination) events. It is not limited to hemolytic reactions (b) or allergic responses (d).
Why others are incorrect: (b) Only includes one specific type (ABO hemolytic) → Too narrow
(c) Fever after surgery → Not necessarily related to transfusion
(d) Allergic response unrelated to transfusion → Not a transfusion reaction
11 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions typically occur:
A delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction is caused by a secondary (anamnestic) immune response . The recipient has been previously sensitized to a red cell antigen, but the antibody is undetectable before transfusion. After exposure to the antigen during transfusion, the antibody production rapidly increases, leading to hemolysis 2 to 14 days later .
Why the others are incorrect: (a) Within 24 hours: Too soon — suggests acute hemolytic reaction .
(c) 3–4 weeks: Possible but rare; most occur within 2 weeks.
(d) Immediately after completion: Typical of acute hemolytic or allergic reactions.
12 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
In treating hyperbilirubinemia in HDN, phototherapy is used to:
The danger in HDN is unconjugated bilirubin , which is lipid-soluble and can cross the blood-brain barrier, causing kernicterus. Phototherapy uses light to convert unconjugated bilirubin in the skin into water-soluble isomers (lumirubin) that can be excreted in the bile and urine without needing liver conjugation.
Why the others are incorrect: (a) Break down conjugated bilirubin: Phototherapy acts on unconjugated bilirubin, not conjugated.
(b) Prevent further hemolysis: Phototherapy does not affect red cell destruction .
(d) Stimulate liver enzyme production: It acts physically on bilirubin , not through hepatic metabolism.
13 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of an anaphylactic transfusion reaction?
An anaphylactic reaction is an acute, severe allergic (IgE-mediated) response. Its hallmark symptoms are hypotension (low blood pressure), bronchospasm (wheezing, respiratory distress), and often cutaneous signs like urination. A key feature that distinguishes it from a febrile or septic reaction is the absence of fever .
Why the others are incorrect: (a) Fever and chills: → Seen in febrile non-hemolytic or acute hemolytic reactions.
(c) Hypertension and tachycardia: → More typical of transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) .
(d) Generalized edema and dark urine: → Seen in acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (due to hemoglobinuria and renal injury).
15 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) in a transfusion recipient is prevented by:
Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GVHD) is caused by donor lymphocytes that engraft and attack the recipient’s tissues. Irradiation of cellular blood components (RBCs, platelets) damages the DNA of these lymphocytes, preventing them from proliferating and causing GVHD. Leukocyte reduction (a) reduces the number of white cells but is not sufficient to prevent GVHD.
Why the others are incorrect: (a) Leukocyte reduction: Removes most white cells to reduce febrile reactions , CMV transmission , and HLA alloimmunization , but does not inactivate lymphocytes — GVHD can still occur.
(c) Washing of blood components: Removes plasma proteins to prevent severe allergic/anaphylactic reactions , not GVHD.
(d) Using CMV-safe blood products: Prevents CMV infection , not GVHD.
16 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
What is the primary treatment goal for a patient experiencing an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction?
An acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR) is a medical emergency caused most often by ABO incompatibility . Hemolysis releases free hemoglobin , which can cause hypotension, shock, and acute renal failure .
Other options:
a) Antihistamines → for allergic reactions, not the main issue here.
c) Antipyretics → fever is a symptom, but not the primary threat.
d) Exchange transfusion → may be used in some severe hemolytic cases, but it’s not the primary initial goal; first stabilize BP and renal perfusion.
17 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
A characteristic feature of TRALI is:
The hallmark of TRALI is the sudden onset of acute respiratory distress (severe hypoxia, dyspnea) and bilateral pulmonary edema, typically within 6 hours of transfusion. The edema is non-cardiogenic , meaning it is not due to heart failure, but rather to increased capillary permeability in the lungs.
Why the others are incorrect: (b) High fever: Can occur in TRALI, but not characteristic; fever is more prominent in bacterial contamination or febrile reactions .
(c) Rash and hives: Typical of allergic or anaphylactic reactions , not TRALI.
(d) Hemoglobinuria: Characteristic of acute hemolytic reactions , not TRALI.
18 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Hemoglobinuria following transfusion indicates:
Hemoglobinuria (hemoglobin in the urine) occurs when free hemoglobin in the plasma (hemoglobinemia) exceeds the binding capacity of the haptoglobin protein and is filtered by the kidneys. This is a classic sign of intravascular hemolysis , where red blood cells are destroyed within the bloodstream, as seen in severe acute hemolytic transfusion reactions.
Why the others are incorrect: (b) Extrinsic anemia: Refers to anemia due to blood loss or destruction by external factors , not intravascular hemolysis.
(c) Platelet destruction: Causes thrombocytopenia , not hemoglobinuria.
(d) Plasma protein deficiency: Does not cause hemoglobinuria.
19 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
A patient immediately develops flushing, fever, shaking chills, and back pain during a transfusion. The plasma hemoglobin is elevated. Laboratory investigation would most likely show:
The most common and severe form is due to ABO incompatibility from an error in blood typing or patient identification, leading to immediate intravascular hemolysis (hence elevated plasma hemoglobin).
Other options:
a) Rh typing error → Usually causes delayed hemolytic reactions, not immediate intravascular hemolysis with hemoglobinemia.
c) Anti-Fyᵃ → Can cause delayed hemolytic reaction, not typically this acute presentation with hemoglobinemia during transfusion.
d) Gram-negative bacteria in blood bag → Causes septic shock, not specifically elevated plasma hemoglobin.
20 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
The most effective method to prevent HDN due to anti-D is:
The administration of Rh immune globulin (RhIG) to Rh(D)-negative mothers during pregnancy and after delivery is a highly effective prophylactic treatment. It works by clearing fetal Rh(D)-positive red cells from the maternal circulation before they can sensitize the mother, thereby preventing the formation of anti-D antibodies and protecting future pregnancies.
Why the others are incorrect: (b) Transfusing O-positive blood during pregnancy: Would increase risk of sensitization
(c) Giving corticosteroids after delivery: Does not prevent antibody formation
(d) Delaying labor: No effect on maternal sensitization
21 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
The laboratory finding most consistent with an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction is:
A positive Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) on a post -transfusion sample is a key laboratory finding in an acute hemolytic reaction. It indicates that antibody and/or complement is coating the transfused red cells, causing their destruction. While hemoglobinemia/uria (not listed) are also classic, a positive DAT provides direct immunologic evidence of incompatibility.
Why the others are incorrect: (b) Negative antibody screen: In AHTR, the antibody screen may detect anti-A or anti-B if tested beforehand.
(c) Normal plasma color: Plasma often turns pink or red due to hemoglobinemia.
(d) Elevated platelet count: Platelets are not directly affected ; may even decrease due to DIC.
22 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following blood group systems is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?
The Kidd (Jk) system antibodies, particularly anti-Jkᵃ and anti-Jkᵇ, are among the most common causes of delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions . These antibodies are notorious for falling to undetectable levels in the plasma between exposures, making pre-transfusion screening difficult, but they rapidly reappear (anamnestic response) after a transfusion, causing delayed hemolysis.
Why the others are incorrect: (a) Lewis: Usually IgM , naturally occurring, and clinically insignificant .
(c) P: Rarely causes transfusion reactions (mainly involved in paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria ).
(d) I: Associated with cold agglutinins in Mycoplasma infections , not DHTRs.
23 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Which type of transfusion reaction involves allergic symptoms such as urticaria and itching?
An allergic transfusion reaction is characterized by symptoms of histamine release, most commonly urticaria (hives) and pruritus (itching) . These are caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to an allergen in the donor plasma, such as a medication, food, or other soluble substance.
Why the others are incorrect: (a) Acute hemolytic: Causes fever, chills, hypotension, hemoglobinuria — not urticaria.
(c) Septic reaction: Causes high fever, rigors, hypotension, often due to bacterial contamination.
(d) Delayed hemolytic: Occurs days to weeks later, with mild jaundice or anemia — not allergic symptoms.
24 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
The direct antiglobulin test (DAT) in a case of ABO Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn is typically:
In ABO Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN) , maternal IgG anti-A or anti-B antibodies cross the placenta and bind to fetal red cells.
However, ABO antigens are poorly developed at birth , and most anti-A and anti-B antibodies are IgM (which don’t cross the placenta) .
As a result, only small amounts of IgG antibodies attach to fetal RBCs.
Therefore, the Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) is typically weakly positive or even negative , unlike Rh HDN , where the DAT is strongly positive (3+ to 4+) .
25 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
The first step when a transfusion reaction is suspected is to:
When a transfusion reaction is suspected, the very first and most critical step is to stop the transfusion immediately to prevent further infusion of potentially incompatible blood.
Why others are incorrect: (b) Increase transfusion rate: Worsens the reaction.
(c) Discard the blood bag: Never discard—it must be sent for investigation.
(d) Add saline to the IV line: Correct after stopping the transfusion, not before.
27 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
A patient develops fever, watery diarrhea, skin rash, and elevated liver enzymes 9 days after an HLA-matched platelet transfusion. This may indicate:
The triad of fever, skin rash, and diarrhea occurring 1-2 weeks post-transfusion , along with liver involvement (elevated enzymes) and pancytopenia, is the classic presentation for Transfusion-Associated Graft-Versus-Host Disease (TA-GVHD) . This is caused by donor lymphocytes engrafting in an immunocompromised (or HLA-similar) recipient and attacking the host’s tissues. It is a fatal complication that is prevented by irradiating cellular blood products.
Why the others are incorrect: (a) Transfusion-associated hepatitis: Causes elevated liver enzymes , but no rash, diarrhea, or cytopenia .
(c) Anaphylactic reaction: Occurs immediately during transfusion , with hypotension and bronchospasm , not days later.
(d) Sepsis from bacterial contamination: Occurs during or shortly after transfusion , with high fever, chills, and shock , not delayed systemic symptoms.
28 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
For an Rh-negative mother who has not been previously immunized, Rh immune globulin (RhIG) should be administered after which of the following?
Rh immune globulin (RhIG) , also known as Rho(D) immune globulin , is given to prevent Rh sensitization in an Rh-negative mother who is carrying or delivering an Rh-positive fetus .
Why other options are incorrect: (a) Delivery of an Rh-negative infant: ❌ No risk of sensitization — baby and mother are both Rh-negative.
(c) A positive antibody screen for anti-D: ❌ Too late — the mother is already sensitized; RhIG will not help once anti-D is formed.
(d) A positive direct antiglobulin test on the mother: ❌ DAT is performed on RBCs , and a positive maternal DAT suggests immune coating of her own cells, not an indication for RhIG.
29 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Rh immune globulin administration would NOT be indicated in an Rh-negative woman who has a(n):
Rh immune globulin (RhIG) is used for prophylaxis to prevent the formation of anti-D. A patient with a high anti-D titer of 1:4096 is already actively immunized to the D antigen. Administering RhIG would be ineffective and is not indicated.
Why the others are incorrect: (a) First trimester abortion: RhIG is indicated , as fetomaternal hemorrhage may occur even early in pregnancy.
(b) Husband who is Rh-positive: RhIG is indicated because the fetus may be Rh-positive.
(d) Positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT): The DAT is performed on red cells (usually newborn or transfused cells), not on the mother; it does not determine maternal sensitization status .
30 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
The Kleihauer-Betke test is used to:
The Kleihauer-Betke test is an acid elution technique that takes advantage of the different hemoglobin types in fetal and adult red cells. Fetal red cells (containing HbF) are resistant to acid and remain stained, while adult red cells (containing HbA) are lysed and appear as “ghost cells.”
Why others are incorrect: (b) Determine the blood type of a fetus: Requires DNA testing or amniocentesis , not Kleihauer–Betke.
(c) Detect maternal antibodies in cord blood: Done by indirect antiglobulin test (IAT) or antibody screen .
(d) Diagnose Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN): Diagnosed by DAT on cord blood and bilirubin/hemoglobin levels , not this test.
31 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
An obstetrical patient has had 3 pregnancies: first baby healthy, second jaundiced requiring exchange, third stillborn. The most likely cause is:
This history describes the classic worsening of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) with each subsequent pregnancy in an Rh-negative mother.
First pregnancy: Sensitizes the mother (often at delivery), so the first baby is unaffected.
Second pregnancy: The now-sensitized mother produces anti-D antibodies that cross the placenta, causing significant jaundice requiring exchange transfusion.
Third pregnancy: The antibody titer is even higher, leading to severe anemia, hydrops fetalis, and stillbirth.
32 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
The preventive measure for TA-GVHD is:
Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GVHD) occurs when viable donor T lymphocytes engraft in the recipient and attack host tissues.
Why the others are incorrect: (b) Freezing red cells: Used for storage, does not inactivate lymphocytes
(c) Leukoreduction: Reduces WBCs but may not remove all T cells , so it’s not sufficient to prevent TA-GVHD
(d) Washing plasma: Removes plasma proteins, not lymphocytes; not preventive
33 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
The primary antibody responsible for acute hemolytic transfusion reactions is:
The most severe acute hemolytic transfusion reactions are caused by ABO incompatibility . The naturally occurring anti-A and anti-B antibodies are predominantly IgM . IgM antibodies are potent activators of the complement cascade, leading to rapid intravascular hemolysis, which characterizes these acute reactions.
Why others are incorrect: (a) IgG: Causes delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions , not acute.
(c) IgA: Involved in anaphylactic reactions in IgA-deficient patients.
(d) IgE: Mediates allergic reactions and anaphylaxis , not hemolysis.
34 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
The purpose of performing an antibody titer on serum from an immunized pregnant woman is to:
The primary purpose of an antibody titer in a sensitized pregnant woman is to assess the risk to the fetus. A rising or high titer (e.g., ≥ 16) indicates a greater likelihood of significant Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn (HDFN) and identifies pregnancies that require additional fetal monitoring , such as middle cerebral artery (MCA) Doppler ultrasound to check for anemia.
Why the others are incorrect: (a) Identify the antibody specificity: That’s done by an antibody identification panel , not a titer.
(c) Decide if the baby needs an intrauterine transfusion: That decision is based on fetal monitoring results (e.g., Doppler studies, amniotic fluid bilirubin), not on the titer alone.
(d) Determine if early induction of labor is indicated: Induction decisions depend on fetal condition and maturity , not directly on the titer.
35 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Bacterial contamination in blood products is most common in:
Platelet concentrates are stored at room temperature (20-24°C) to maintain viability, which is an ideal environment for bacterial growth. In contrast, red blood cells and frozen components like plasma and cryoprecipitate are stored at cold or freezing temperatures that inhibit bacterial proliferation. This makes platelets the most common blood product associated with bacterial contamination.
Why the others are incorrect: (a) RBC units: Stored at 1–6°C → inhibits bacterial growth.
(c) Cryoprecipitate: Frozen until use → bacteria cannot multiply.
(d) Plasma: Frozen storage prevents contamination growth.
36 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Febrile nonhemolytic reactions are commonly caused by:
Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions (FNHTRs) are most commonly caused by recipient antibodies reacting against donor white blood cells (WBCs) . This immune reaction triggers the release of pyrogenic cytokines. They can also be caused by cytokines that have accumulated in the blood product during storage. This is why leukoreduction (removing WBCs) significantly reduces the incidence of these reactions.
Why the others are incorrect: (b) ABO incompatibility: Causes acute hemolytic reactions, not FNHTR.
(c) Bacterial toxins: Cause septic reactions , which are more severe (high fever, hypotension).
(d) Platelet alloimmunization: Leads to platelet refractoriness , not FNHTR.
37 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Anaphylactic transfusion reactions are often associated with:
The most well-defined cause of a true anaphylactic transfusion reaction is the presence of anti-IgA antibodies in an IgA-deficient recipient . When such a recipient receives blood components containing IgA, a severe, life-threatening anaphylactic reaction can occur.
Why others are incorrect: (b) High bilirubin levels: Seen in hemolysis, not anaphylaxis.
(c) Iron overload: Caused by repeated transfusions, not anaphylactic reactions.
(d) Cold agglutinins: Associated with hemolytic anemia, not allergic responses.
38 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following is a symptom of Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI)?
Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI) is a serious, non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema that occurs within 6 hours of a blood transfusion. It is typically caused by donor anti-HLA or anti-neutrophil antibodies reacting with recipient leukocytes.
Other options:
a) Hypertension and bradycardia → Not typical of TRALI; more likely in other conditions.
b) Hives and itching → These are signs of an allergic reaction, not TRALI.
d) Generalized edema and headache → Not characteristic of TRALI; could be seen in other conditions like transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) or hypertensive crisis.
39 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following laboratory results would be most indicative of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction?
Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction (AHTR) occurs within minutes to hours after transfusion of incompatible red cells , most commonly due to ABO incompatibility . It leads to intravascular hemolysis , releasing free hemoglobin into the plasma and urine.
Why others are incorrect: (a) Positive DAT: Can be seen in many immune hemolytic conditions — supportive but not diagnostic of acute reaction.
(c) Positive antibody screen: Indicates presence of antibodies , but not proof of active hemolysis .
(d) Elevated bilirubin 24 hours post-transfusion: Seen in delayed hemolytic reactions , not acute.
40 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
The most frequent nonhemolytic transfusion reaction is:
The most frequent nonhemolytic transfusion reaction is the febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR) . It is common , usually benign , and caused by cytokines or antibodies reacting with donor leukocytes or platelets .
Why the others are incorrect: (b) Hemolytic reaction: Less common but more severe; often due to ABO incompatibility.
(c) Anaphylactic reaction: Rare; typically in IgA-deficient patients.
(d) Delayed hemolytic reaction: Occurs days to weeks later; much less frequent.
41 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
The most common cause of fatal transfusion reactions is:
The most common cause of fatal transfusion reactions is human clerical error , such as misidentifying the patient or the blood unit, which results in the transfusion of ABO-incompatible blood. This causes a severe, acute hemolytic reaction. While bacterial contamination (c) is also a significant cause of fatality, error leading to ABO incompatibility has historically been the most frequent cause of death from transfusion.
Why the others are incorrect: (b) Contaminated anticoagulant → Rare, not a common cause.
(c) Bacterial contamination → Can be fatal (especially with platelets), but less frequent than ABO mismatch.
(d) Wrong storage temperature → Causes decreased product quality, not usually fatal.
42 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
In suspected hemolytic reactions, the plasma should be inspected for:
In an acute hemolytic reaction, intravascular hemolysis releases hemoglobin into the plasma. A centrifuge or spun hematocrit tube will show a pink or red-tinged plasma (hemoglobinemia), which is a key immediate visual clue. Elevated bilirubin (b) is a later finding as the hemoglobin is metabolized.
Why the others are incorrect: (b) Elevated bilirubin only: ❌ Bilirubin rises later , not immediate; early plasma inspection shows hemoglobin.
(c) Increased viscosity: ❌ Not a feature of hemolysis.
(d) Coagulation factors: ❌ Not directly relevant for detection of hemolysis; DIC may occur secondarily.
44 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
In a transfusion reaction workup, the first laboratory test performed is:
The Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) is the most critical and rapid initial test in a transfusion reaction workup. A positive DAT on the post-transfusion sample provides the first objective evidence of an immune-mediated hemolytic reaction by demonstrating antibody or complement coating the patient’s red cells. All other investigations, like re-crossmatching or antibody identification, follow this key finding.
Why the others are incorrect: (b) Antibody identification panel: Performed after DAT , not first
(c) Crossmatch: Done before transfusion , not during reaction workup
(d) Urinalysis: Helpful for hemoglobinuria, but not the first test
45 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
The major cause of transfusion-associated sepsis is:
Transfusion-associated sepsis is a serious, potentially fatal complication caused by the introduction of bacteria into the recipient during transfusion.
Why the others are incorrect: (b) ABO incompatibility: Causes acute hemolytic reactions , not sepsis
(c) Allergic reaction: Causes urticaria and itching , not bacterial sepsis
(d) Cold autoantibody: Associated with cold agglutinin hemolysis , not sepsis
46 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following strategies has been useful in reducing the incidence of TRALI?
TRALI (Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury) is often caused by antibodies in donor plasma (especially from multiparous women) that react with recipient leukocytes. Using plasma from male donors , who are less likely to have these antibodies, has been a highly effective strategy in reducing the incidence of TRALI.
Why other options are incorrect: (b) Pre-medicating with acetaminophen: Helps reduce febrile reactions (FNHTR), not TRALI .
(c) Using leukoreduced blood products: Reduces FNHTR and CMV transmission, not TRALI (since TRALI is antibody-mediated).
(d) Slowing the infusion rate: May help prevent circulatory overload (TACO ), not TRALI .
47 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following is a potential complication of massive transfusion?
Massive transfusion involves infusing large volumes of blood products anticoagulated with citrate . Citrate binds to calcium in the recipient’s blood, leading to hypocalcemia . While hyperkalemia (c) can occur from stored red cells, it is less consistently a major complication compared to the predictable effect of citrate.
Why the others are incorrect: (a) Hypercalcemia: Opposite effect — calcium levels fall , not rise.
(c) Hyperkalemia from stored platelets: Hyperkalemia comes from stored RBCs , not platelets.
(d) Iron deficiency: Occurs after chronic transfusions , not massive acute transfusion.
48 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) is caused by:
TRALI is a serious complication characterized by acute respiratory distress. It is most often caused by donor antibodies (from multiparous women or previously transfused donors) that react with the recipient’s HLA or neutrophil antigens . This activates neutrophils in the pulmonary vasculature, leading to capillary leak and non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
Why the others are incorrect: (b) ABO mismatch: Causes acute hemolytic reaction , not TRALI.
(c) Platelet transfusion only: TRALI can occur with any plasma-containing product , not platelets alone.
(d) Plasma protein deficiency: Not related to TRALI mechanism.
49 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
In hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), maternal antibodies are most commonly directed against:
Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) occurs when maternal IgG antibodies cross the placenta and destroy fetal red blood cells.
Why the others are less common: (b) ABO antigen: Usually mild; many babies are unaffected
(c) Kell antigen: Less frequent cause
(d) Duffy antigen: Rare cause
51 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
In a case of suspected HDN, what significant information can be obtained from the baby’s blood smear?
In Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN), the blood smear can provide key diagnostic clues. The presence of spherocytes (small, dense red cells without central pallor) is a classic finding, especially in ABO incompatibility , where antibody-coated red cells are partially phagocytosed in the spleen, leading to their spherical shape.
Why the others are incorrect: (a) Estimation of WBC and platelet counts: Done by a CBC , not primarily diagnostic for HDN.
(c) Absolute lymphocyte count: Relates to immune status, not hemolysis.
(d) Immature neutrophil count: Reflects infection or stress , not HDN.
52 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following transfusion reactions is characterized by high fever, shock, hemoglobinuria, DIC, and renal failure?
A severe, acute reaction with high fever, shock, hemoglobinuria, DIC, and renal failure is the classic presentation of a transfusion reaction due to bacterial contamination of the blood product (most often platelets). This causes an overwhelming septic shock and endotoxemia, leading to this dramatic and life-threatening syndrome.
Why the others are incorrect: (b) Circulatory overload (TACO): Causes dyspnea, hypertension, pulmonary edema , but no fever or DIC .
(c) Febrile non-hemolytic: Causes mild fever and chills only , no shock, DIC, or hemoglobinuria.
(d) Allergic: Causes urticaria and itching , occasionally mild hypotension — not high fever or DIC .
53 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
A patient becomes mildly jaundiced and experiences a drop in hemoglobin 5 days after a transfusion. The most likely explanation is:
Timing (5 days post-transfusion) fits a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction , which typically occurs 3–10 days after transfusion due to an anamnestic antibody response to foreign RBC antigens.
Clinical signs include mild jaundice and a falling hemoglobin, reflecting extravascular hemolysis.
Other options:
a) Febrile non-hemolytic reaction → occurs during or shortly after transfusion, causes fever but not jaundice or hemoglobin drop.
c) TACO → causes respiratory distress due to volume overload, not jaundice or hemolysis.
d) Allergic reaction → usually urticaria, itching, or anaphylaxis during transfusion, not delayed jaundice.
54 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Symptoms of bacterial contamination include:
A transfusion reaction due to bacterial contamination often presents as the sudden onset of high fever, rigors (severe chills), and hypotension (shock) , mimicking severe sepsis or septic shock. This is caused by endotoxins or the bacteria themselves in the contaminated unit.
Why the others are incorrect: (b) Mild itching: Typical of allergic reactions.
(c) Delayed hemolysis: Caused by IgG antibodies (e.g., Kidd system), not bacteria.
(d) Elevated bilirubin: Seen in hemolytic reactions, not bacterial sepsis.
55 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
The hallmark symptom of TA-GVHD is:
Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GVHD) occurs when donor T lymphocytes engraft in an immunocompromised recipient and attack host tissues.
Why the others are incorrect: (b) High fever only: Nonspecific; fever alone is not diagnostic
(c) Hemoglobinuria: Seen in acute hemolytic transfusion reactions , not TA-GVHD
(d) Cold agglutination: Related to cold antibody hemolysis , not GVHD
56 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
A febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR) is characterized by:
A febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR) is defined by a fever (typically a rise of ≥1°C from baseline) that occurs during or shortly after a transfusion, with no other explanation. It is most commonly caused by cytokines in the blood product or recipient antibodies reacting against donor white blood cells.
Other options explained:
(b) Hemoglobinuria and renal failure → Seen in acute hemolytic transfusion reaction .
(c) Hypotension and wheezing → Suggests anaphylactic reaction .
(d) Generalized bleeding and shock → Seen in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) due to severe hemolytic reaction or sepsis .
57 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
The most common cause of Transfusion-Associated Graft-vs-Host Disease (TA-GVHD) is:
TA-GVHD is caused by viable donor T lymphocytes engrafting and proliferating in a susceptible recipient. The most common scenario is the transfusion of non-irradiated cellular blood products (RBCs, platelets) to immunocompromised patients (e.g., those with hematologic malignancies, stem cell transplants, or congenital immunodeficiencies) who cannot reject the donor cells.
Why the others are incorrect: (b) Transfusion of plasma only: Plasma has no viable T cells , so TA-GVHD does not occur
(c) Platelet transfusion: Only dangerous if non-irradiated and containing donor lymphocytes
(d) ABO mismatch: Causes hemolytic reactions , not TA-GVHD
58 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
In a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction, the antibody is typically detectable:
A delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction occurs due to a secondary (anamnestic) immune response. The recipient has been previously sensitized to a red cell antigen, but the pre-transfusion antibody screen is negative or too weak to detect. After transfusion, the antigen stimulates a rapid antibody production, which becomes detectable in the plasma 2 days to 2 weeks later and leads to the destruction of the transfused red cells.
Why others are incorrect: (a) 3–6 hours after transfusion: Too early — typical of acute hemolytic transfusion reaction .
(c) 60–90 days after transfusion: Too late — antibodies would already be detectable.
(d) Immediately after transfusion: Suggests preexisting antibodies , again seen in acute reactions.
59 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) is caused by:
Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) is a mechanical complication caused by the rapid or large-volume infusion of blood products, which exceeds the circulatory system’s capacity. This leads to increased hydrostatic pressure, pulmonary edema, and signs of heart failure (e.g., dyspnea, tachycardia, hypertension).
Why the others are incorrect: (b) ABO incompatibility: Causes acute hemolytic reaction , not TACO.
(c) Iron deficiency: Result of chronic blood loss, not transfusion overload.
(d) Leukocyte antibodies: Cause TRALI , not TACO.
60 / 60
Category:
ASCP Exam Questions
Iron overload is a complication of:
Iron overload (transfusional hemosiderosis) is a long-term complication for patients who receive multiple chronic transfusions (e.g., those with thalassemia, sickle cell disease, or myelodysplastic syndromes). Each unit of red blood cells contains about 200-250 mg of iron, and the body has no active mechanism to excrete this excess iron, which accumulates in and damages organs like the liver, heart, and endocrine glands.
Why the others are incorrect: (b) Single transfusion: Insufficient iron load to cause overload.
(c) Platelet transfusion: Platelets contain minimal iron.
(d) Plasma donation: Plasma has no red cells , so no iron is transferred.
Your score is
The average score is 69%
Follow us on Sicial Media:
Restart quiz
Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams: Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams that are recognized globally and can help professionals validate their credentials and enhance their career opportunities:
1. ASCP – American Society for Clinical Pathology (USA) Exam Name: MLS(ASCP)Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree with clinical laboratory experience.Global Recognition: HighPurpose: Certifies Medical Laboratory Scientists in the United States and internationally.2. AMT – American Medical Technologists (USA) Exam Name: MLT(AMT) or MT(AMT)Eligibility: Academic and/or work experience in medical laboratory technology.Global Recognition: ModeratePurpose: Credentialing for medical technologists and technicians.3. AIMS – Australian Institute of Medical and Clinical Scientists Exam Name: AIMS Certification ExamEligibility: Assessment of qualifications and work experience.Recognition: Required for practice in Australia.Purpose: Certification and registration in Australia.4. CSMLS – Canadian Society for Medical Laboratory Science Exam Name: CSMLS General or Subject-specific ExamsEligibility: Graduation from a CSMLS-accredited program or equivalent.Recognition: CanadaPurpose: Entry-to-practice certification in Canada.5. IBMS – Institute of Biomedical Science (UK) Exam Name: Registration and Specialist Portfolio AssessmentEligibility: Accredited degree and lab experience.Recognition: UK and some Commonwealth countries.Purpose: Biomedical Scientist registration with the HCPC (UK).6. HAAD / DOH – Department of Health, Abu Dhabi (UAE) Exam Name: DOH/HAAD License ExamEligibility: Degree in medical laboratory science and experience.Recognition: UAE (Abu Dhabi)Purpose: Licensure for medical laboratory practice in Abu Dhabi.7. DHA – Dubai Health Authority (UAE) Exam Name: DHA License Exam for Medical Laboratory TechnologistsEligibility: Relevant degree and experience.Recognition: Dubai, UAEPurpose: Professional license for clinical laboratory practice in Dubai.8. MOH – Ministry of Health (Gulf Countries like UAE, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait) Exam Name: MOH License ExamEligibility: BSc/Diploma in Medical Laboratory + experience.Recognition: Varies by country.Purpose: Required for practicing in public and private sector labs.Tags: #ASCPMLS #MLSexam #LabTech #MedicalLaboratory #BOCexam #FreePracticeQuestions #QualityControl #LaboratorySafety
Possible References Used
⚠️ Disclaimer: The content on LabTestsGuide.com is for informational and educational purposes only . We do not guarantee the accuracy, completeness, or timeliness of the information provided. Always consult qualified healthcare professionals for medical advice, diagnosis, or treatment. LabTestsGuide.com is not liable for any decisions made based on the information on this site.
ASCP
American Society for Clinical Pathology (USA)
AMT
American Medical Technologists (USA)
AIMS
Australian Institute of Medical and Clinical Scientists
CSMLS
Canadian Society for Medical Laboratory Science
IBMS
Institute of Biomedical Science (UK)
HAAD
Health Authority - Abu Dhabi
MOH
Ministry of Health (UAE)
DHA
Dubai Health Authority
Comprehensive question bank with Answer Key and Mock Test
Performance analytics and get Mock Test Certificate
Mobile-friendly interface for on-the-go studying
Timed mock exams that simulate real test conditions