The American Society for Clinical Pathology (ASCP) MLS exam is one of the most challenging and respected certifications for medical laboratory scientists. To succeed, candidates must have a strong grasp of fundamental and applied laboratory science, including immunology and serological testing.
This part of our practice series (Part 33) focuses on Serological Procedures, an essential component of immunology that plays a key role in laboratory diagnosis of infectious diseases, autoimmune conditions, and immunodeficiency disorders.
Key Immunology Concepts for MLS Exam
- Serum vs Plasma: Serum is preferred for serological testing as it lacks clotting factors that could interfere with reactions.
- Prozone and Postzone Effects: Excess antibody or antigen may lead to false-negative results.
- Titer Determination: The highest serum dilution still showing a positive reaction is reported as the antibody titer.
- Opsonization: Process where antibodies and complement enhance phagocytosis.
- Complement Inactivation: Heating serum at 56°C for 30 minutes is required in certain tests to remove complement interference.
- Immunoglobulins:
- IgM – first antibody produced in infection.
- IgG – crosses placenta, provides long-term immunity.
- IgA – protects mucosal surfaces.
- IgE – involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections.
Clinical Applications
- Infectious Disease Diagnosis: VDRL for syphilis, Widal test for typhoid, ELISA for HIV, Hepatitis markers, and others.
- Autoimmune Disease Screening: ANA, anti-dsDNA, rheumatoid factor (RF), and anti-CCP antibodies.
- Immunodeficiency Workups: Measuring Ig levels, complement activity, and specific antibody responses.
- Transfusion Medicine: Blood grouping, crossmatching, and antibody screening.
100 MCQs (2821 – 2920):
- In the indirect immunofluorescence anti-nuclear antibody (IFA-ANA) test, what is the fixed HEp-2 cell substrate?
a) Labeled antigen
b) Unlabeled antigen
c) Labeled antiglobulin
d) Unlabeled antiglobulin - Which ANA pattern is most commonly associated with antibodies to double-stranded DNA?
a) Speckled
b) Homogeneous
c) Nucleolar
d) Centromere - A positive ANA test with a centromere pattern is most frequently seen in patients with:
a) Systemic lupus erythematosus
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) CREST syndrome
d) Sjögren syndrome - Which antibody is most commonly associated with Hashimoto thyroiditis?
a) Anti-thyroglobulin (Tg)
b) Anti-thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor (TRAb)
c) Anti-thyroperoxidase (TPO)
d) Anti-thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) - Rheumatoid factors are autoantibodies directed against the:
a) Fab fragment of IgG
b) Fc fragment of IgG
c) J chain of IgM
d) Secretory component of IgA - Which immunoglobulin class is rheumatoid factor most commonly associated with?
a) IgA
b) IgG
c) IgM
d) IgE - In a direct immunofluorescence assay for Legionella pneumophila, what is used for detection?
a) Primary antigen with fluorescent conjugate
b) Primary antibody with fluorescent conjugate
c) Secondary antigen with fluorescent conjugate
d) Secondary antibody with fluorescent conjugate - Which of the following is a direct agglutination procedure?
a) Latex agglutination for rheumatoid factor
b) ELISA for HBsAg
c) Western blot for Lyme disease
d) FTA-ABS for syphilis - In an indirect ELISA for rubella antibody detection, the conjugate used is:
a) Anti-human IgG conjugated to an enzyme
b) Anti-rubella antibody conjugated to an enzyme
c) Rubella antigen conjugated to an enzyme
d) Anti-rubella antibody conjugated to a substrate - The VDRL test is recommended for detecting antibody in:
a) Serum
b) Urine
c) Cerebrospinal fluid
d) Saliva - Biological false-positive VDRL reactions are often seen in patients with:
a) Gonorrhea
b) Systemic lupus erythematosus
c) Tertiary syphilis
d) HIV/AIDS - The FTA-ABS test for syphilis uses which type of antigen?
a) Cardiolipin
b) Treponema pallidum
c) Reagin
d) Lecithin - Which cytokine is classically produced by Th1 cells?
a) IL-4
b) IL-5
c) IFN-γ
d) IL-10 - In flow cytometry, what does forward scatter (FSC) measure?
a) Cell granularity
b) Cell size
c) Cell fluorescence
d) Cell charge - What is the purpose of compensation in flow cytometry?
a) To adjust fluid speed
b) To prevent fluorescence bleed-between channels
c) To increase voltage
d) To focus the laser - Which of the following is a target amplification method?
a) Western blot
b) ELISA
c) PCR
d) Flow cytometry - The QuantiFERON-TB Gold test measures the release of which cytokine?
a) IL-2
b) IL-4
c) IFN-γ
d) TNF-α - Which of the following is used to confirm Lyme disease after an equivocal ELISA?
a) Southern blot
b) Western blot
c) Northern blot
d) Eastern blot - In serological testing for mumps, which antibody is detected to confirm recent infection?
a) IgG
b) IgA
c) IgM
d) IgD - Which of the following is a heterogenous immunoassay?
a) ELISA
b) Radioimmunoassay
c) Fluorescence polarization immunoassay
d) Chemiluminescent immunoassay - Which of the following is a characteristic of a competitive ELISA?
a) Uses two antibodies
b) Labeled antigen competes with unlabeled antigen
c) No washing steps required
d) Uses a fluorescent label - The RPR test for syphilis detects antibody against:
a) Treponema pallidum
b) Cardiolipin-lecithin-cholesterol complex
c) Reagin
d) Forssman antigen - Which of the following is a treponemal test for syphilis?
a) VDRL
b) RPR
c) FTA-ABS
d) Cold agglutinin test - Which of the following is NOT a phase of immune editing?
a) Elimination
b) Equilibrium
c) Escape
d) Efficiency - Which antibody is associated with Goodpasture syndrome?
a) Anti-mitochondrial
b) Anti-smooth muscle
c) Anti-glomerular basement membrane
d) Anti-parietal cell - Which of the following is used to detect anti-dsDNA antibodies?
a) Rat stomach tissue
b) Mouse kidney tissue
c) Crithidia luciliae
d) Toxoplasma gondii - Which pattern in IFA-ANA is associated with antibodies to Sm antigen?
a) Homogeneous
b) Speckled
c) Nucleolar
d) Centromere - Which of the following is a common cause of false-positive rheumatoid factor results?
a) Cryoglobulin
b) C1q
c) Histidine-rich glycoprotein
d) Aspartame - In a sandwich ELISA, what causes a false-positive result in a patient who received mouse monoclonal antibody therapy?
a) Human anti-mouse antibodies
b) Mouse virus antibodies
c) Monoclonal gammopathy
d) Cross-reactivity with complement - Which of the following is a direct detection method for pathogens?
a) Indirect ELISA
b) Direct immunofluorescence
c) Western blot
d) Agglutination inhibition - A DPT vaccination is an example of:
a) Passive humoral-mediated immunity
b) Cell-mediated immunity
c) Active humoral-mediated immunity
d) Immediate hypersensitivity - Cells known to be actively phagocytic include:
a) Neutrophils, monocytes, basophils
b) Neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes
c) Monocytes, lymphocytes, neutrophils
d) Lymphocytes, eosinophils, monocytes - Normal serum constituents that can rapidly increase during infection are referred to as:
a) Haptens
b) Opsonins
c) Acute phase reactants
d) Chemotaxins - The acute phase reactant that has the fastest response time and can rise 100x is:
a) Alpha-1 antitrypsin
b) Haptoglobin
c) C-reactive protein
d) Ceruloplasmin - Substances that are antigenic only when coupled to a protein carrier are:
a) Opsonins
b) Adjuvants
c) Haptens
d) Allergens - Antibodies composed of IgG immunoglobulin:
a) Occur during the primary response to antigen
b) Are larger molecules than IgM antibodies
c) Can cross the placenta from mother to fetus
d) Can be detected in saline crossmatches - In hybridoma technology, the desirable fused cell is the:
a) Myeloma-myeloma hybrid
b) Myeloma-lymphocyte hybrid
c) Lymphocyte-lymphocyte hybrid
d) Lymphocyte-granulocyte hybrid - T lymphocytes are incapable of functioning as:
a) Cytotoxic cells
b) Helper cells
c) Phagocytic cells
d) Regulatory cells - Nonspecific killing of tumor cells is carried out by:
a) Cytotoxic T cells
b) Helper T cells
c) Natural killer cells
d) Antibody and complement - Some MHC class III genes code for:
a) Antigens
b) Antibodies
c) Lymphocytes
d) Complement - Which of the following is an important cellular mediator of immune complex tissue injury?
a) Mast cell
b) Neutrophil
c) Basophil
d) Eosinophil - MHC Class I includes which molecules?
a) Complement
b) HLA-A, B, C
c) Cytokines
d) HLA DP, DQ, DR - T lymphocytes that possess the CD8 surface marker mediate which function?
a) Delayed-type hypersensitivity
b) Regulatory
c) Cytotoxic
d) Helper - The first isotype of immunoglobulin made by the fetus that may be elevated in cases of in-utero infection is:
a) IgA
b) IgG
c) IgM
d) IgD - The immunoglobulin classes most commonly found on the surface of circulating B lymphocytes are:
a) IgM, IgA
b) IgM, IgG
c) IgM, IgD
d) IgM, IgE - The ratio of kappa to lambda light chain-producing cells in normal individuals is:
a) 1:1
b) 2:1
c) 3:1
d) 4:1 - The immunoglobulin class typically found in saliva, tears, and other secretions is:
a) IgG
b) IgA
c) IgM
d) IgD - The immunoglobulin isotype associated with immediate hypersensitivity or atopic reactions is:
a) IgA
b) IgM
c) IgD
d) IgE - Antibodies to which of the following immunoglobulins is known to have produced anaphylactic reactions following blood transfusion?
a) IgA
b) IgD
c) IgE
d) IgG - Hereditary angioedema is characterized by:
a) Decreased activity of C3
b) Decreased activity of C1 esterase inhibitor
c) Increased activity of C1 esterase inhibitor
d) Increased activity of C2 - Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) patients with active disease often have:
a) High titers of anti-microsomal antibodies
b) High titers of anti-smooth muscle antibodies
c) Marked decrease in serum CH50
d) Decreased serum immunoglobulin levels - Tissue injury in systemic lupus erythematosus is thought to be caused by:
a) Cytotoxic T cells
b) IgE activity
c) Deposition of immune complexes
d) Cytolytic antibodies - In primary biliary cirrhosis, which antibody is seen in high titers?
a) Anti-mitochondrial
b) Anti-smooth muscle
c) Anti-DNA
d) Anti-parietal cell - A patient rapidly develops respiratory distress, vomiting and hives after a penicillin injection. This reaction is primarily mediated by:
a) IgG
b) IgA
c) IgM
d) IgE - A monoclonal spike of IgG, Bence Jones proteinuria, and bone pain are usually associated with:
a) Burkitt lymphoma
b) Bruton disease
c) Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
d) Multiple myeloma - Which is the most common humoral immune deficiency disease?
a) Bruton agammaglobulinemia
b) IgG deficiency
c) Selective IgA deficiency
d) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome - A patient underwent renal transplant, receiving a kidney from an unrelated donor. This type of transplant is termed:
a) Allograft
b) Syngraft
c) Autograft
d) Xenograft - Bone marrow transplant donors and recipients should be preferentially matched for which antigen system?
a) ABO-Rh
b) HLA
c) CD4/CD8
d) Pi²⁺ - The presence of HBsAg, anti-HBc, and often HBeAg is characteristic of:
a) Early acute phase HBV hepatitis
b) Early convalescent phase HBV hepatitis
c) Recovery phase of acute HBV hepatitis
d) Past HBV infection - The serological test for syphilis recommended for detecting antibody in cerebrospinal fluid is:
a) Non-treponemal antibody
b) CSF-VDRL
c) FTA-ABS
d) MHA-TP - In a complement fixation test (CFT), absence of hemolysis indicates:
a) Antigen-antibody reaction has fixed complement
b) No antigen-antibody reaction occurred
c) Excess antigen present
d) Excess antibody present - Which of the following tests uses red blood cells coated with antigen to detect antibodies in patient serum?
a) Coombs test
b) Hemagglutination assay
c) Neutralization test
d) Precipitation assay - In radial immunodiffusion, antigen diffuses into a gel containing:
a) Labeled antigen
b) Unlabeled antibody
c) Labeled antibody
d) Unlabeled antigen - What is the “prozone effect” in serology?
a) Antibody excess causing false negative reactions
b) Antigen excess causing false negative reactions
c) Equivalence point where lattice formation is maximal
d) Zone where antigens and antibodies are in perfect ratio - In ELISA where the patient’s antigen is measured, which of the following formats is used?
a) Direct ELISA
b) Indirect ELISA
c) Sandwich ELISA
d) Competitive ELISA - The purpose of washing steps in ELISA is to:
a) Enhance binding of enzyme label
b) Remove unbound reagents to reduce background
c) Denature non-specific proteins
d) Increase antigen concentration - Which substrate is commonly used with alkaline phosphatase label in immunoassays?
a) Tetramethylbenzidine (TMB)
b) o-Phenylenediamine (OPD)
c) p-Nitrophenyl phosphate
d) Luminol - In immunofluorescence assays, a “direct” method means:
a) Antibody is labeled and binds directly to antigen in specimen
b) Primary antibody unlabeled and detected via secondary labeled antibody
c) Antigen labeled and binds to unlabeled antibody
d) Conjugate produces color change - Which serological test is most specific for diagnosing syphilis?
a) VDRL
b) RPR
c) FTA-ABS
d) Dark-field microscopy - In latex agglutination tests, what causes visible clumping?
a) Interaction of soluble antigen with soluble antibody
b) Antigen bound to particles reacting with antibodies
c) Competition between labeled and unlabeled antigen
d) Enzymatic color change - What is meant by the “equivalence zone” in precipitation reactions?
a) Area where antigen is in great excess
b) Area where antibody is in great excess
c) Area where antigen and antibody proportions allow maximal precipitate
d) Area where no reaction occurs - Hemagglutination inhibition tests are based on the principle that:
a) Virus causes direct agglutination of red cells
b) Antibodies prevent virus-induced agglutination
c) Antigen prevents red cell agglutination by non-specific antibodies
d) Enzyme reaction inhibits hemagglutination - Which control is essential in immunofluorescence to rule out non-specific binding of fluorescent antibody?
a) Positive antigen control
b) Negative antibody control
c) No-antibody (secondary-only) control
d) Heat inactivated control - The sensitivity of a serological test refers to its ability to:
a) Correctly identify those WITHOUT disease
b) Correctly identify those WITH disease
c) Rule in disease when positive
d) Rule out disease when negative - The specificity of a serological test refers to its ability to:
a) Correctly identify those WITH disease
b) Correctly identify those WITHOUT disease
c) Detect small quantities of antigen or antibody
d) Produce reproducible results - Flow cytometry-based serology differs from plate-based assays primarily in its:
a) Use of fluorescence detection
b) Ability to analyze multiple parameters per cell
c) Quantitative range and sensitivity
d) All of the above - Which of these is a heterogenous assay?
a) Radioimmunoassay with separation of bound and free antigen
b) Homogeneous FRET (Förster resonance energy transfer) assay
c) Direct antigen-antibody binding without separation
d) Competitive binding without washing - What is the role of complement in certain serological tests?
a) To precipitate antigen-antibody complexes
b) To lyse red cells in complement fixation tests
c) To emit fluorescence
d) To label antibodies - In immunoelectrophoresis, after antigen and antibodies diffuse in gel, what is observed?
a) Precipitin arcs
b) Hemolysis zones
c) Agglutination clumps
d) Color change - Which factor can cause false positive serological results?
a) Cross-reactivity of antibodies
b) High background signal from non-specific binding
c) Improper washing / blocking steps
d) All of the above - In a hemagglutination inhibition assay, what role does the patient’s antibody play?
a) It enhances red cell agglutination
b) It inhibits virus-mediated agglutination of red cells
c) It lyses red cells directly
d) It competes with antigen for binding sites - What is the main advantage of a sandwich ELISA over an indirect ELISA?
a) Uses fewer reagents
b) Detects antigen rather than antibody
c) Requires less incubation time
d) Does not require wash steps - In a complement fixation test, how is complement consumption detected?
a) By measuring hemolysis of sheep red cells
b) By color change of a substrate
c) By fluorescence under UV light
d) By turbidity of the solution - Which serological test principle relies on the diffusion of both antigen and antibody in gel toward each other?
a) Ouchterlony double diffusion
b) Western blot
c) Immunofluorescence
d) Agglutination test - Which factor can cause a false-negative result in agglutination tests?
a) Prozone (antibody excess)
b) High antigen concentration (postzone)
c) Low incubation temperature
d) All of the above - What is the purpose of using a blocking agent in immunoassays?
a) Enhance antigen-antibody binding
b) Prevent non-specific adsorption of antibodies
c) Increase signal amplification
d) Neutralize antigens - In an indirect fluorescent antibody test, what is the sequence of binding?
a) Labeled primary antibody → antigen → patient’s sample
b) Antigen → patient antibody → labeled secondary antibody
c) Antigen → labeled antibody → patient’s sample
d) Patient’s antibody → labeled antigen → antigen - What does the term “titer” refer to in serology?
a) The concentration of antigen in a sample
b) The highest dilution of serum that still gives a positive reaction
c) The time required for reaction to occur
d) The amount of antigen-antibody complex formed - A “heterogeneous” immunoassay is one that:
a) Does not require separation of bound and free reagents
b) Requires separation of bound from free reagents
c) Uses different labels such as fluorescence and radioactivity simultaneously
d) Uses antigen and antibody from different species - Which of these is a non-enzymatic label used in serologic assays?
a) Horseradish peroxidase
b) Alkaline phosphatase
c) Fluorescein
d) Beta-galactosidase - In Western blot serology, what is first separated by electrophoresis?
a) Antibody classes (IgG vs IgM)
b) Antigens by molecular weight
c) Patient’s serum proteins
d) Complement components - Why is serum heat-inactivated at 56°C for 30 minutes before some serological tests?
a) To denature antigens so they bind more tightly
b) To inactivate complement that might interfere with assay
c) To increase specific antibody concentration
d) To eliminate bacterial contamination - In a direct fluorescent antibody test, the fluorescent label is attached to:
a) Secondary antibody
b) Antigen in the patient specimen
c) Primary antibody
d) Enzyme substrate - Which of the following is true regarding competitive ELISA?
a) More antigen in sample leads to higher signal
b) More antigen in sample leads to lower signal
c) It detects only antibodies, not antigens
d) No standard curve is needed - What is the function of the antigen-coated well in an indirect ELISA?
a) To capture patient antigen
b) To bind patient antibody
c) To block non-specific binding
d) To generate color directly - Which of the following measures is essential to avoid cross-contamination in serological assays?
a) Using separate pipettes for reagents and samples
b) Changing gloves between samples
c) Running positive and negative controls
d) All of the above - What is the principle behind the Western blot confirmation test for HIV?
a) Detecting viral RNA
b) Detecting antibodies to specific viral proteins separated by gel electrophoresis
c) Detecting p24 antigen in blood
d) Detecting neutralizing antibodies via functional assay - In indirect hemagglutination assay, red cells are used as:
a) Antibody source
b) Antigen carrier
c) Enzyme substrate
d) Signal amplifiers - What is meant by “affinity” in antigen-antibody interactions?
a) Strength of binding between one antigenic epitope and one antibody binding site
b) Overall strength of multiple bonds (avidity) in polyvalent interactions
c) Rate of antibody decay in serum
d) Ability of antibody to precipitate antigen - In which situation is a serial dilution of patient serum used in serologic testing?
a) To quantify antibody concentration (titer)
b) To remove interfering substances
c) To check for cross-reactivity
d) To incubate at various temperatures
📌 How to Use This Practice Set
- Answer each question before checking the key.
- Focus on why the correct answer is right and the others are wrong.
- Use this set as timed practice to simulate the real exam environment.
Answer Key
Answer Key:
- b) Unlabeled antigen
- b) Homogeneous
- c) CREST syndrome
- c) Anti-thyroperoxidase (TPO)
- b) Fc fragment of IgG
- c) IgM
- b) Primary antibody with fluorescent conjugate
- a) Latex agglutination for rheumatoid factor
- a) Anti-human IgG conjugated to an enzyme
- a) Serum
- b) Systemic lupus erythematosus
- b) Treponema pallidum
- c) IFN-γ
- b) Cell size
- b) To prevent fluorescence bleed-between channels
- c) PCR
- c) IFN-γ
- b) Western blot
- c) IgM
- a) ELISA
- b) Labeled antigen competes with unlabeled antigen
- b) Cardiolipin-lecithin-cholesterol complex
- c) FTA-ABS
- d) Efficiency
- c) Anti-glomerular basement membrane
- c) Crithidia luciliae
- b) Speckled
- a) Cryoglobulin
- a) Human anti-mouse antibodies
- b) Direct immunofluorescence
- c) Active humoral-mediated immunity
- b) Neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes
- c) Acute phase reactants
- c) C-reactive protein
- c) Haptens
- c) Can cross the placenta from mother to fetus
- b) Myeloma-lymphocyte hybrid
- c) Phagocytic cells
- c) Natural killer cells
- d) Complement
- b) Neutrophil
- b) HLA-A, B, C
- c) Cytotoxic
- c) IgM
- c) IgM, IgD
- b) 2:1
- b) IgA
- d) IgE
- a) IgA
- b) Decreased activity of C1 esterase inhibitor
- c) Marked decrease in serum CH50
- c) Deposition of immune complexes
- a) Anti-mitochondrial
- d) IgE
- d) Multiple myeloma
- c) Selective IgA deficiency
- a) Allograft
- b) HLA
- a) Early acute phase HBV hepatitis
- b) CSF-VDRL
- a) Antigen-antibody reaction has fixed complement
- b) Hemagglutination assay
- b) Unlabeled antibody
- a) Antibody excess causing false negative reactions
- c) Sandwich ELISA
- b) Remove unbound reagents to reduce background
- c) p-Nitrophenyl phosphate
- a) Antibody is labeled and binds directly to antigen in specimen
- c) FTA-ABS
- b) Antigen bound to particles reacting with antibodies
- c) Area where antigen and antibody proportions allow maximal precipitate
- b) Antibodies prevent virus-induced agglutination
- c) No-antibody (secondary-only) control
- b) Correctly identify those WITH disease
- b) Correctly identify those WITHOUT disease
- d) All of the above
- a) Radioimmunoassay with separation of bound and free antigen
- b) To lyse red cells in complement fixation tests
- a) Precipitin arcs
- d) All of the above
- b) It inhibits virus-mediated agglutination of red cells
- b) Detects antigen rather than antibody
- b) By color change of a substrate
- a) Ouchterlony double diffusion
- d) All of the above
- b) Prevent non-specific adsorption of antibodies
- b) Antigen → patient antibody → labeled secondary antibody
- b) The highest dilution of serum that still gives a positive reaction
- b) Requires separation of bound from free reagents
- c) Fluorescein
- b) Antigens by molecular weight
- b) To inactivate complement that might interfere with assay
- c) Primary antibody
- b) More antigen in sample leads to lower signal
- b) To bind patient antibody
- d) All of the above
- b) Detecting antibodies to specific viral proteins separated by gel electrophoresis
- b) Antigen carrier
- a) Strength of binding between one antigenic epitope and one antibody binding site
- a) To quantify antibody concentration (titer)
Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams:
Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams that are recognized globally and can help professionals validate their credentials and enhance their career opportunities:
1. ASCP – American Society for Clinical Pathology (USA)
- Exam Name: MLS(ASCP)
- Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree with clinical laboratory experience.
- Global Recognition: High
- Purpose: Certifies Medical Laboratory Scientists in the United States and internationally.
2. AMT – American Medical Technologists (USA)
- Exam Name: MLT(AMT) or MT(AMT)
- Eligibility: Academic and/or work experience in medical laboratory technology.
- Global Recognition: Moderate
- Purpose: Credentialing for medical technologists and technicians.
3. AIMS – Australian Institute of Medical and Clinical Scientists
- Exam Name: AIMS Certification Exam
- Eligibility: Assessment of qualifications and work experience.
- Recognition: Required for practice in Australia.
- Purpose: Certification and registration in Australia.
4. CSMLS – Canadian Society for Medical Laboratory Science
- Exam Name: CSMLS General or Subject-specific Exams
- Eligibility: Graduation from a CSMLS-accredited program or equivalent.
- Recognition: Canada
- Purpose: Entry-to-practice certification in Canada.
5. IBMS – Institute of Biomedical Science (UK)
- Exam Name: Registration and Specialist Portfolio Assessment
- Eligibility: Accredited degree and lab experience.
- Recognition: UK and some Commonwealth countries.
- Purpose: Biomedical Scientist registration with the HCPC (UK).
6. HAAD / DOH – Department of Health, Abu Dhabi (UAE)
- Exam Name: DOH/HAAD License Exam
- Eligibility: Degree in medical laboratory science and experience.
- Recognition: UAE (Abu Dhabi)
- Purpose: Licensure for medical laboratory practice in Abu Dhabi.
7. DHA – Dubai Health Authority (UAE)
- Exam Name: DHA License Exam for Medical Laboratory Technologists
- Eligibility: Relevant degree and experience.
- Recognition: Dubai, UAE
- Purpose: Professional license for clinical laboratory practice in Dubai.
8. MOH – Ministry of Health (Gulf Countries like UAE, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait)
- Exam Name: MOH License Exam
- Eligibility: BSc/Diploma in Medical Laboratory + experience.
- Recognition: Varies by country.
- Purpose: Required for practicing in public and private sector labs.
Tags:
#ASCPMLS #MLSexam #LabTech #MedicalLaboratory #BOCexam #FreePracticeQuestions #QualityControl #LaboratorySafety
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