Simulate real exam conditions with our Body Fluids mock test! This timed practice exam features 182 carefully curated MCQs covering the entire scope of laboratory science certifications—including ASCP MLS, AMT MLT/MT, AIMS, CSMLS, IBMS, HAAD/DOH, DHA, and MOH. Track your progress, review performance analytics, and conquer time management challenges. Detailed answer keys help you understand mistakes and boost confidence. Perfect for final readiness checks!
1. Physical Examination of Body Fluids Physical characteristics such as color, clarity, viscosity, and specific gravity provide immediate diagnostic clues.
CSF color changes , including xanthochromia (yellowish tint), may indicate subarachnoid hemorrhage or blood contamination.Synovial fluid viscosity , normally high due to hyaluronic acid, decreases in inflammatory and septic arthritis.Chylous effusions , typically milky in appearance, suggest lymphatic obstruction or malignancy.2. Chemical Analysis of Body Fluids Chemical testing evaluates glucose, protein, lactate, LDH, uric acid, and other analytes to differentiate between various conditions.
Low glucose and high protein in CSF are classic findings in bacterial and tuberculous meningitis.Lactate levels help distinguish bacterial or fungal infections from viral causes.High uric acid in synovial fluid is strongly linked to gout, whereas LDH elevation in pleural or peritoneal fluids indicates cellular damage or inflammation.Seminal fructose testing assesses male fertility and ejaculatory duct function.3. Microscopic Examination of Body Fluids Microscopic analysis provides valuable information on cell counts, crystal identification, and infectious agents .
Neutrophil predominance in CSF suggests bacterial meningitis, while lymphocyte predominance points toward viral causes.Monosodium urate crystals under polarized light confirm gout, whereas calcium pyrophosphate crystals indicate pseudogout.Malignant cells in serous fluids support a diagnosis of carcinomatosis, and yeast such as Cryptococcus neoformans in CSF suggests fungal meningitis.4. Physiological Role of Body Fluids Each body fluid has specific functions essential for maintaining homeostasis:
CSF cushions the brain and spinal cord, removing metabolic waste while protecting the central nervous system.Pleural, peritoneal, and pericardial fluids reduce friction between organs during movement.Synovial fluid nourishes cartilage and lubricates joints.Seminal fluid supports sperm motility and fertility.5. Disease States and Diagnostic Relevance Abnormal findings in body fluids often indicate serious disease conditions:
Meningitis (bacterial, viral, fungal, or parasitic) alters CSF chemistry and cell profile.Joint diseases , including gout, pseudogout, rheumatoid arthritis, and septic arthritis, are diagnosed using synovial fluid analysis.Pleural and peritoneal effusions help distinguish between transudates (e.g., cirrhosis, heart failure) and exudates (e.g., infections, malignancy).Hemorrhagic effusions , chylous fluids, or abnormal pH levels guide further diagnostic investigations.
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ASCP MLS Exam MCQs Chapter 14
Simulate real exam conditions with our Body Fluids mock test! This timed practice exam features 182 carefully curated MCQs covering the entire scope of laboratory science certifications—including ASCP MLS, AMT MLT/MT, AIMS, CSMLS, IBMS, HAAD/DOH, DHA, and MOH.
Body fluid analysis is an essential part of clinical laboratory diagnostics, providing vital information about various disease states. Understanding the physical, chemical, microscopic, physiological, and pathological aspects of fluids like CSF, synovial, pleural, peritoneal, and seminal fluids is crucial for the ASCP MLS Exam.
1. Physical Examination Color and clarity changes in CSF (e.g., xanthochromia) may indicate hemorrhage.
Viscosity of synovial fluid decreases in inflammatory conditions.
Chylous effusions (milky appearance) suggest lymphatic obstruction or malignancy.
2. Chemical Analysis Low glucose, high protein in CSF → bacterial or tuberculous meningitis.
Lactate elevation helps differentiate bacterial from viral infections.
High uric acid in synovial fluid → gout.
LDH levels indicate inflammation or tissue breakdown.
Fructose in semen assesses male fertility.
3. Microscopic Findings Neutrophils dominate in bacterial meningitis; lymphocytes in viral infections.
Monosodium urate crystals → gout; CPPD crystals → pseudogout.
Malignant cells in serous fluids indicate carcinomatosis.
Cryptococcus neoformans may appear in CSF cytology.
4. Physiological Functions CSF protects the brain and spinal cord and removes waste.
Serous fluids (pleural, peritoneal, pericardial) reduce friction between organs.
Synovial fluid lubricates joints and nourishes cartilage.
Seminal fluid supports sperm viability.
5. Disease Associations Meningitis alters CSF chemistry and cell count.
Joint disorders diagnosed by synovial fluid analysis (gout, pseudogout, septic arthritis).
Effusions are classified as transudates (systemic conditions) or exudates (infections, malignancy).
Hemorrhagic or chylous fluids guide further diagnosis.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which condition may cause cloudy or turbid synovial fluid?
Cloudy or turbid synovial fluid is most commonly caused by increased white blood cells (WBCs) or crystals , as seen in:
Crystal-induced arthritis (e.g., gout [monosodium urate crystals] or pseudogout [calcium pyrophosphate crystals]).
Septic arthritis (infection → high neutrophils).
Inflammatory arthritis (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis).
Why Not the Others? a) Dehydration → Does not directly affect synovial fluid clarity.
b) Osteoarthritis → Typically clear and viscous (non-inflammatory).
d) Hemorrhage → Causes bloody fluid (not necessarily turbid unless mixed with inflammation).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Normal CSF contains all of the following proteins except:
Fibrinogen is absent in normal CSF because:
It is a high-molecular-weight clotting factor produced in the liver that cannot cross the intact blood-brain barrier (BBB) .
Its presence in CSF indicates BBB disruption (e.g., trauma, hemorrhage, or inflammation).
Proteins Normally Found in CSF: a) Transferrin → Present (including beta-2 transferrin , a CSF-specific isoform).
b) Transthyretin (prealbumin) → Synthesized by the choroid plexus (10% of CSF protein).
c) Albumin → The most abundant CSF protein (passively crosses BBB).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following sample preparations is appropriate to use for evaluation of sperm agglutination?
Sperm agglutination (clumping of sperm due to antibodies or infection) is best evaluated using a fresh, unstained wet preparation because:
Preserves native interactions : Agglutination is visible as sperm sticking head-to-head, tail-to-tail, or mixed .
No artifact from stains/fixatives : Staining can distort or dissolve agglutination.
Phase-contrast microscopy enhances visibility of agglutination patterns.
Why Not the Others? b) Wright stain or d) Papanicolaou stain → Used for morphology , not agglutination (fixation disrupts clumping).
c) Eosin-nigrosin stain → Assesses viability (live/dead sperm), not agglutination.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Seminal fluid is diluted 1:20 and loaded onto a Neubauer counting chamber. An average of 50 sperm are counted in 2 secondary squares. Sperm concentration should be reported as:
To calculate sperm concentration using a Neubauer counting chamber , use the following formula:
Sperm concentration (sperm/mL)=Average count per square×dilution factor×106Volume of square in mL\text{Sperm concentration (sperm/mL)} = \frac{\text{Average count per square} \times \text{dilution factor} \times 10^6}{\text{Volume of square in mL}} Sperm concentration (sperm/mL) = Volume of square in mL Average count per square × dilution factor × 106
In this case:
Dilution factor = 1:20
Average count = 50 sperm in 2 secondary squares → So, 25 sperm per square
Volume of 1 secondary square = 0.0001 mL
Concentration = 0.000125× 20 = 5 , 000 , 000 sperm/mL
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ASCP Exam Questions
The presence of LE (lupus erythematosus) cells in body fluids is associated with:
LE (lupus erythematosus) cells are neutrophils or macrophages that have phagocytized denatured nuclear material (from antinuclear antibodies, ANAs). Their presence is historically associated with:
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) , though the test is now obsolete due to low sensitivity/specificity.
Mechanism :
ANAs bind to nuclear antigens, forming immune complexes .
These complexes are ingested by phagocytes, creating LE cells .
Why Not the Others? a) Tuberculosis → Diagnosed by acid-fast staining/PCR , not LE cells.
b) Gout → Identified by MSU crystals , not LE cells.
d) Bacterial infection → LE cells are not seen in infections.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Amniotic fluid is collected from a 24-year-old female at 33 weeks’ gestation and sent to the laboratory for analysis. The specimen arrives in a clear, plastic container that has been exposed to light for over an hour. Which of the following analyses may be affected by this error in specimen transport?
The ΔA450 (delta optical density at 450 nm) test measures bilirubin pigments in amniotic fluid to assess fetal hemolytic disease (e.g., Rh incompatibility).
Why It’s Affected by Light Exposure: Bilirubin is photosensitive and degrades when exposed to light, leading to falsely low ΔA450 values .
This can underestimate the severity of fetal hemolysis , delaying critical interventions like intrauterine transfusions.
Why Other Tests Are Unaffected: a) Lamellar body count (fetal lung maturity): Measures surfactant particles (stable in light).
b) Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP): Detects neural tube defects ; unaffected by light.
d) Foam stability index (FSI): Assesses surfactant function ; no light sensitivity.
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ASCP Exam Questions
An undiluted CSF specimen is loaded onto a Neubauer hemocytometer and the results shown in this table are recorded after counting all nine 1.0 mm² quadrants on both sides: (Slide 1 = 100, Slide 2 = 50) The laboratorian should:
When counting both sides of a Neubauer hemocytometer :
Calculate the average of the two counts to improve accuracy (reduces variability from loading errors).
Formula for WBC/μL :
WBC/μL=Average count per quadrant×Dilution factorVolume per quadrant (μL) WBC/μL = Volume per quadrant (μL) Average count per quadrant × Dilution factor
Undiluted CSF : Dilution factor = 1.
Volume per 1 mm² quadrant : 0.1 μL (depth = 0.1 mm).
Example :
Average=100+502=75⇒75×10.1=750 WBC/μL Average = 2100+ 50 = 75 ⇒ 0.175× 1 = 750 WBC/μL
Why Not the Others? a) Sum → Incorrect (would double the true count).
c) Difference → Illogical (no clinical utility).
d) Reload → Only needed if counts are wildly discrepant (e.g., 100 vs. 0).
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Which body fluid is normally viscous due to the presence of hyaluronic acid?
Synovial fluid is normally viscous due to the presence of hyaluronic acid , a glycosaminoglycan secreted by synovial cells. This viscosity:
Provides lubrication for joints.
Acts as a shock absorber .
Decreases in inflammatory conditions (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis), making the fluid thinner.
Why Not the Others? a) Peritoneal fluid – Normally serous and thin (transudate or exudate).
c) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) – Clear and watery , not viscous.
d) Pleural fluid – Typically thin and serous unless exudative (e.g., empyema).
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A cerebrospinal fluid with a milky appearance would most likely contain an increased amount of:
A milky appearance in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is most characteristic of lipid accumulation , which can occur in:
Rare conditions like hypertriglyceridemia (extremely high blood lipids leaking into CSF).
Iatrogenic causes (e.g., introduction of lipid-containing substances during myelography or other procedures).
Why Not the Others? b) Protein → High protein (e.g., in Guillain-Barré syndrome or bacterial meningitis) makes CSF yellow (xanthochromic) or turbid , not milky.
c) Glucose → Does not affect color/clarity (low glucose suggests infection).
d) Bacteria → Causes cloudiness/purulence (e.g., bacterial meningitis), not a milky appearance.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which test is useful to assess sperm viability in a semen sample?
Methylene blue staining is a vitality test used to assess sperm viability by distinguishing:
Why Not the Others? a) pH → Evaluates seminal fluid acidity but does not assess sperm viability .
c) Fructose test → Checks for seminal vesicle function/obstruction , not sperm health.
d) Leukocyte count → Detects infection/inflammation (pyospermia), not viability.
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Measurement of which of the following enzymes can be used to confirm the presence of seminal fluid?
Acid phosphatase is the definitive enzyme marker for seminal fluid because:
It is abundant in prostatic secretions (100–1,000x higher than in other body fluids).
It remains detectable in dried stains (forensic use).
Why Not the Others? b) Alkaline phosphatase → Elevated in bone/placenta , not specific to semen.
c) Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) → Nonspecific (found in many tissues).
d) Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) → Liver/muscle marker, irrelevant to semen.
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Which of the following structures can be identified by polarized light microscopy in synovial fluid?
Polarized light microscopy is primarily used to identify crystals in synovial fluid, including:
Cholesterol crystals :
Appearance : Large, notched plates with strong birefringence .
Clinical relevance : Found in chronic inflammatory effusions (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis).
Other crystals (also visible under polarized light):
Monosodium urate (gout) : Needle-shaped, negatively birefringent .
Calcium pyrophosphate (pseudogout) : Rhomboid, positively birefringent .
Why Not the Others? b) Bacteria → Identified by Gram stain/culture , not polarization.
c) WBCs or d) RBCs → Viewed with brightfield microscopy (no birefringence).
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ASCP Exam Questions
A physician attempts to aspirate a knee joint and obtains 0.1 mL of slightly bloody fluid. Addition of acetic acid results in turbidity and a clot. This indicates the fluid:
The formation of turbidity and a clot upon adding acetic acid is a definitive positive mucin clot test , which:
Confirms the fluid is synovial fluid (only synovial fluid contains enough hyaluronic acid to form this clot).
Distinguishes it from blood or other fluids (e.g., saline, plasma), which do not clot with acetic acid.
Why This Matters Clinically: Why Not the Other Options? b) Contains RBCs → True but irrelevant (RBCs don’t cause this reaction).
c) Inappropriate for analysis → Wrong; the clot confirms synovial origin, so analysis (e.g., crystals, culture) is valid.
d) Needs diluent → Unnecessary; the clot confirms synovial fluid.
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Three tubes of CSF are collected, labeled, and sent to the laboratory for testing. All 3 tubes appear light pink and slightly hazy. The most likely explanation for the appearance of the samples is that:
Uniformly light pink and hazy CSF in all 3 tubes suggests subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) because:
Blood is evenly distributed across all tubes (unlike traumatic tap, where blood clears in later tubes).
Haziness reflects RBCs and hemoglobin breakdown products (not just fresh blood).
Xanthochromia (yellow supernatant after centrifugation) confirms SAH if present.
Why Not the Others? a) Traumatic collection → Blood decreases from Tube 1 → Tube 3; supernatant is clear (no xanthochromia).
b) Multiple sclerosis → CSF is clear (may show oligoclonal bands but no RBCs).
c) Centrifugation → Would clarify the fluid (unless SAH is present, causing xanthochromia).
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Which of the following seminal fluid results would be evidence of a successful vasectomy?
A successful vasectomy is confirmed by the absence of sperm in the ejaculate, termed azoospermia .
Key Points: Vasectomy severs/occludes the vas deferens , blocking sperm transport.
Post-vasectomy testing requires two consecutive azoospermic samples (typically 3 months apart).
Why Not Other Options? a) pH 7.8 → Normal range (7.2–8.0); irrelevant to vasectomy success.
b) 50% motility → Indicates active sperm (would mean vasectomy failed).
d) Negative agglutination → Tests for antisperm antibodies; unrelated to sperm presence.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Amylase levels in pleural fluid are elevated in cases of:
Elevated pleural fluid amylase is most commonly associated with:
Pancreatitis (due to transudation of pancreatic enzymes into the pleural space, often left-sided).
Esophageal rupture (due to salivary amylase leakage into the mediastinum and pleural cavity).
Why Not the Others? a) Tuberculosis → Pleural fluid shows high adenosine deaminase (ADA) and lymphocytes, not elevated amylase.
c) Rheumatoid arthritis → May cause exudative effusions but no amylase elevation .
d) Congestive heart failure (CHF) → Transudative effusion with low amylase .
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Which stain is best used for identifying acid-fast organisms in body fluids?
The Ziehl-Neelsen (ZN) stain is the gold standard for detecting acid-fast organisms (e.g., Mycobacterium tuberculosis ) in body fluids because:
Stains mycolic acid in bacterial cell walls, resisting decolorization by acid-alcohol.
Appearance :
Why Not the Others? a) Wright stain → Identifies blood cells (e.g., WBC differential), not bacteria.
b) Gram stain → Fails to stain Mycobacterium (weakly Gram-positive but “ghost cells”).
d) Sudan black → Detects lipids (e.g., in leukodystrophies), not bacteria.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Results from a yellow, cloudy pleural fluid collected from a 56-year-old male are listed in the table:
Test
Result
Fluid WBC count
1550/μL (neutrophils predominate)
Fluid glucose
45 mg/dL
Fluid/serum total protein
0.9
Fluid/serum LD
0.7
These results indicate the fluid is:
The Light’s criteria (most widely used for pleural fluid classification) indicate this is an exudate based on the following:
Fluid/serum total protein ratio >0.5 (Here: 0.9 )
Fluid/serum LDH ratio >0.6 (Here: 0.7 )
Fluid LDH >2/3 upper limit of serum LDH (Not provided, but the first two criteria suffice).
Supporting Evidence for Exudate: Yellow & cloudy → Suggests inflammation/infection.
High WBC (1550/μL) with neutrophil predominance → Typical of bacterial infection/empyema .
Low glucose (45 mg/dL) → Common in exudates (e.g., infection, malignancy).
Why Not Other Options? a) Chylous → Milky fluid, high triglycerides (not seen here).
c) Transudate → Clear fluid, low protein/LDH ratios (e.g., heart failure).
d) Pseudochylous → Milky but cholesterol-rich (chronic inflammation, e.g., TB).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which disorder is best diagnosed with the presence of oligoclonal bands in CSF?
Oligoclonal bands (OCBs) in CSF (but not serum) are a hallmark of multiple sclerosis , seen in ~90% of MS patients .
They represent intrathecal IgG production due to chronic CNS inflammation.
Why Not Other Options? a) Guillain-Barré syndrome : Diagnosed by clinical features + nerve conduction studies (OCBs are not typical ).
b) Tuberculosis (TB) meningitis : Shows lymphocytic pleocytosis + high protein (OCBs are nonspecific).
d) Cryptococcal meningitis : Diagnosed by CRAG testing/culture (OCBs are irrelevant).
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ASCP Exam Questions
A stool specimen that appears black and tarlike should be tested for the presence of:
A black, tarry stool (melena) is strongly suggestive of upper gastrointestinal bleeding (e.g., peptic ulcer, esophageal varices, gastritis). The dark color results from:
Hemoglobin degradation → As blood passes through the digestive tract, stomach acid and enzymes convert hemoglobin to hematin , which gives stool its black, tarry appearance.
Why Testing for Occult Blood is Critical: Confirms GI bleeding (even if not visibly apparent in less severe cases).
Differentiates melena from other causes of dark stool (e.g., iron supplements, bismuth subsalicylate).
Why Not the Other Options? b) Fecal fat → Tests for steatorrhea (fat malabsorption), which causes greasy, foul-smelling stools , not melena.
c) Trypsin → Assesses pancreatic function (irrelevant in melena).
d) Excess mucus → Suggests colitis or infection , but mucus alone doesn’t cause black stools.
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The tau isoform of transferrin is a carbohydrate-deficient protein found only in:
The tau isoform of transferrin (also known as asialo-transferrin ) is a carbohydrate-deficient form of transferrin that is specifically found in CSF .
It is used as a diagnostic marker for CSF leakage (e.g., in cases of rhinorrhea or otorrhea) because it is absent in other body fluids like blood, sweat, or nasal secretions.
Why Not the Others? b) Sweat – Contains electrolytes and water, not tau-transferrin.
c) Seminal fluid – Contains proteins like seminogelin but not tau-transferrin.
d) Amniotic fluid – Contains fetal proteins but not tau-transferrin.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The presence of small, dark, pepper-like granules in a synovial fluid is strongly associated with:
The presence of small, dark, pepper-like granules in synovial fluid is a classic finding in alkaptonuria , a rare inborn error of metabolism .
Synovial Fluid Findings in Alkaptonuria: Darkening of fluid upon standing.
Pepper-like pigmented granules due to deposits of oxidized HGA .
May eventually lead to degenerative arthritis in weight-bearing joints.
Why the other options are incorrect: b) Rheumatoid arthritis ✘ Associated with cloudy fluid , high WBCs, and autoantibodies , not dark granules.
c) Traumatic collection ✘ May contain blood , but not pigmented granules.
d) Hemorrhagic arthritis ✘ Blood-stained fluid may be seen, but not pepper-like granules .
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ASCP Exam Questions
The principal mucin in synovial fluid is:
Hyaluronate (hyaluronic acid) is the principal mucin in synovial fluid , responsible for:
Viscosity and lubrication of joints.
Shock absorption during movement.
Forming a mucin clot when acetic acid is added (diagnostic test for synovial fluid).
Why Not the Others? a) Pepsin → A digestive enzyme (stomach), not found in joints .
b) Albumin → A plasma protein that passively enters synovial fluid but does not provide viscosity .
d) Orosomucoid (α1-acid glycoprotein) → An acute-phase protein, not a mucin .
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ASCP Exam Questions
A white blood cell differential is performed on CSF from an adolescent patient suspected of having meningitis. The results shown in this table are reported:
Test
Result
Neutrophils
89%
Lymphocytes
7%
Monocytes
3%
Eosinophils
These results suggest:
The CSF cell differential shows:
Neutrophilic predominance (89%) → Classic for acute bacterial meningitis due to rapid, severe inflammation.
Low lymphocytes (7%) → Rules out viral/fungal/TB meningitis (which typically show lymphocytosis).
Absent eosinophils → Excludes fungal/parasitic causes (which may trigger eosinophilia).
Why Not the Other Options? a) Viral meningitis → Lymphocytic predominance (>80%) , not neutrophils.
b) Fungal meningitis → Lymphocytes + eosinophils (if present), rarely neutrophilic.
d) Tubercular meningitis → Mixed lymphocytic/monocytic pattern, not neutrophilic.
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What is the clinical significance of high LDH in body fluids?
High lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) in body fluids indicates:
Cellular damage or turnover (e.g., malignancy, infection, or inflammation).
Increased membrane permeability (due to inflammation or necrosis).
Clinical Correlations: Pleural fluid :
Exudative effusion (LDH >⅔ upper serum limit, per Light’s criteria).
Empyema or malignancy (very high LDH).
CSF :
Ascites :
Why Not the Others? a) Normal metabolism → LDH is not elevated in normal states.
b) Decreased permeability → LDH rises due to increased permeability (e.g., inflammation).
d) Electrolyte imbalance → LDH reflects cell injury , not electrolyte shifts.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Pleural fluid from a patient with congestive heart failure would be expected to:
Pleural effusions caused by congestive heart failure (CHF) are typically transudates , which have the following characteristics:
Appearance:
Clear and pale yellow (straw-colored) due to low cellular and protein content.
Exudates, in contrast, may appear cloudy, bloody, or purulent due to infection/inflammation.
Cell count:
Biochemical markers (Light’s criteria):
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Which test is commonly used to detect intrathecal synthesis of immunoglobulins?
Oligoclonal banding (OCB) is the gold standard test to detect intrathecal immunoglobulin synthesis , a hallmark of:
Multiple sclerosis (MS) (>95% of MS patients show OCBs in CSF but not serum).
Other CNS inflammatory conditions (e.g., neurosyphilis, CNS lupus).
How It Works: Electrophoresis separates CSF and serum proteins.
OCBs appear as ≥2 unique IgG bands in CSF (not matched in serum), indicating CNS-specific antibody production .
Why Not the Others? a) CSF glucose → Reflects infection/metabolism (low in bacterial meningitis), not immunoglobulin synthesis.
b) CSF/serum albumin index → Measures blood-brain barrier integrity , not antibody production.
d) Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) → Nonspecific marker of cell damage (e.g., infection, malignancy).
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A pleural fluid pH less than 7.2 is commonly seen in:
A pleural fluid pH <7.2 is a critical diagnostic marker for complicated parapneumonic effusions or empyema (pus in the pleural space).
Key Features: Low pH (<7.2) + low glucose → Indicates bacterial infection (e.g., S. pneumoniae , anaerobes).
Urgent drainage required to prevent fibrosis/sepsis.
Why Not Other Options? a) Malignancy → pH usually >7.3 (unless very advanced).
b) Pancreatitis → pH variable (often >7.2 unless infected).
d) Congestive heart failure → Transudate (pH ~7.4-7.5).
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Which of the following is a feature of exudative effusions?
Exudative effusions (e.g., due to infection, malignancy, or inflammation) are characterized by:
High LDH (pleural fluid/serum ratio >0.6 or fluid LDH >2/3 upper limit of serum LDH ).
High protein (pleural fluid/serum ratio >0.5 ).
Low serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) <1.1 g/dL (if ascites).
Why Not Other Options? a) Low protein concentration → Seen in transudates (e.g., heart failure).
b) SAAG >1.1 g/dL → Indicates transudate (e.g., portal hypertension).
d) Clear, straw-colored fluid → Nonspecific; transudates and some exudates can appear this way
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Which of the following findings in synovial fluid is consistent with septic arthritis?
Septic arthritis (a medical emergency) typically presents with:
Gross appearance : Cloudy/milky/purulent (due to pus).
WBC count : >50,000 cells/µL (often >100,000), with >90% neutrophils .
Gram stain : Positive in 50–70% of cases (e.g., S. aureus , N. gonorrhoeae ).
Culture : Gold standard (positive in 70–90%).
Why Not the Others? a) Clear, few WBCs → Non-inflammatory (e.g., osteoarthritis).
c) Yellow, low protein, negative culture → Traumatic or degenerative effusion .
d) High viscosity, negative Gram stain → Normal or inflammatory (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Low glucose levels in pleural fluid are most often associated with:
Low pleural fluid glucose (<60 mg/dL or fluid/serum ratio <0.5) is associated with:
Rheumatoid pleuritis (due to impaired glucose transport from inflammation).
Empyema (bacterial infection consuming glucose).
Malignancy (tumor metabolism).
Tuberculous pleurisy .
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ASCP Exam Questions
An L/S ratio of 2.4 on amniotic fluid collected at 34 weeks’ gestation indicates:
An L/S (lecithin/sphingomyelin) ratio of 2.4 at 34 weeks indicates:
Fetal lung maturity :
L/S ratio ≥2.0 confirms adequate surfactant production, reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) .
Lecithin (surfactant) increases sharply after 32–34 weeks , while sphingomyelin remains stable.
Why Not the Others? b) Fetal lung immaturity → L/S ratio <1.5 suggests immaturity (high RDS risk).
c) Increased RDS risk → Only if L/S ratio <2.0 (or <1.5 in diabetic pregnancies).
d) Neural tube defects → Diagnosed by amniotic AFP/acetylcholinesterase , unrelated to L/S ratio.
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Which is a hallmark of exudative pleural effusion?
Exudative pleural effusions are defined by Light’s criteria , which include:
Pleural fluid protein >3.0 g/dL (or pleural fluid/serum protein ratio >0.5 ).
Pleural fluid LDH >200 U/L (or pleural fluid/serum LDH ratio >0.6 ).
Pleural fluid LDH >⅔ of the upper limit of normal serum LDH .
Why Not the Others? a) Glucose >60 mg/dL → Nonspecific; exudates can have low glucose (e.g., infection, rheumatoid effusion).
b) LDH <200 U/L → Suggests transudate (exudates have high LDH ).
d) SAAG >1.1 g/dL → Indicates portal hypertension (transudate, e.g., cirrhosis, heart failure).
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The presence of which of the following may result in a CSF specimen with an oily appearance?
Radiographic contrast media (e.g., myelogram dyes) can contaminate CSF, giving it an oily or turbid appearance due to their high viscosity and lipid content.
This is a known artifact in patients who recently underwent spinal imaging (e.g., myelography).
Why Not Other Options? a) White blood cells → Cause cloudiness (not oily texture).
b) Neutral triglycerides → Seen in chylous CSF (rare, milky rather than oily).
c) Increased total proteins → May cause yellowing (xanthochromia) but not oiliness.
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Which CSF results are most consistent with bacterial meningitis?
Sample
Glucose
Protein
Lactate
A
20 mg/dL
200 mg/dL
40 mg/dL
B
75 mg/dL
35 mg/dL
15 mg/dL
C
75 mg/dL
45 mg/dL
30 mg/dL
D
20 mg/dL
90 mg/dL
10 mg/dL
Bacterial meningitis typically causes the following CSF abnormalities :
Low glucose (<40 mg/dL or CSF:serum glucose ratio <0.4 ) – Due to bacterial glycolysis and impaired transport.
High protein (>100 mg/dL) – From blood-brain barrier disruption and inflammation.
High lactate (>35 mg/dL) – Reflects anaerobic metabolism by bacteria and neutrophils.
Analysis of Samples: Sample Glucose (mg/dL) Protein (mg/dL) Lactate (mg/dL) Consistency with Bacterial Meningitis? A 20 (Low)200 (High)40 (High)✔️ Classic bacterial pattern B 75 (Normal) 35 (Normal) 15 (Normal) ❌ Normal CSF (likely viral or no infection) C 75 (Normal) 45 (Normal) 30 (Normal) ❌ Normal/viral (lactate borderline) D 20 (Low) 90 (Mildly high) 10 (Normal) ❌ Low glucose but normal lactate (atypical f
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ASCP Exam Questions
A decreased CSF glucose concentration is typically found in:
A decreased CSF glucose concentration (hypoglycorrhachia) is a hallmark of bacterial meningitis due to:
Glycolysis by bacteria (e.g., Streptococcus pneumoniae , Neisseria meningitidis ) consuming glucose.
Increased WBC metabolism (neutrophils further deplete glucose).
Why Not the Others? a) Viral meningitis → CSF glucose is normal or slightly reduced (lymphocytes consume less glucose than bacteria/neutrophils).
b) Normal aging → No effect on CSF glucose.
d) Multiple sclerosis → CSF glucose remains normal (MS is an autoimmune demyelinating disorder, not infectious).
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ASCP Exam Questions
A patient has cloudy synovial fluid with decreased viscosity and positive Gram stain. This is most consistent with:
The findings of cloudy synovial fluid , decreased viscosity , and a positive Gram stain are classic for septic arthritis , a medical emergency caused by bacterial joint infection (e.g., Staphylococcus aureus , Neisseria gonorrhoeae ).
Key Features: Cloudy fluid → Due to high WBCs (often >50,000/μL, predominantly neutrophils).
Decreased viscosity → Enzymatic breakdown of hyaluronan by bacteria/inflammation.
Positive Gram stain → Direct evidence of bacteria (requires immediate antibiotics ).
Why Not Other Options? a) Osteoarthritis → Clear fluid, normal viscosity, no Gram stain bacteria .
b) Gout → Cloudy (due to crystals/WBCs) but Gram stain negative .
d) Pseudogout → Cloudy (CPPD crystals) but no bacteria on Gram stain .
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ASCP Exam Questions
In synovial fluid, the most characteristic finding for patients with pseudogout is:
The pathognomonic finding in pseudogout is the presence of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) crystals in synovial fluid, identified by:
Morphology : Rhomboid or rod-shaped , weakly positively birefringent under polarized light.
Clinical correlation :
Why Not the Others? b) Cartilage debris → Seen in osteoarthritis/trauma , nonspecific.
c) MSU crystals → Needle-shaped, negatively birefringent (gout).
d) Hemosiderin-laden macrophages → Indicates old hemorrhage , not pseudogout.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following diseases is associated with elevated IgG index in CSF?
Elevated CSF IgG index is a hallmark of multiple sclerosis (MS) , reflecting intrathecal IgG synthesis due to chronic CNS inflammation.
Formula : (CSF IgG / Serum IgG) ÷ (CSF albumin / Serum albumin) .
Interpretation : IgG index >0.7 suggests CNS-specific antibody production (seen in ~90% of MS cases ).
Why Not Other Options? a) Guillain-Barré syndrome → Peripheral nerve disorder (CSF shows albuminocytologic dissociation , not elevated IgG index).
c) Viral meningitis → Lymphocytic pleocytosis (IgG index typically normal).
d) Tuberculosis → High protein/low glucose (IgG index nonspecific).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which description best defines a chylous effusion?
A chylous effusion is a milky-white fluid caused by lymphatic fluid leakage (often due to thoracic duct damage, malignancy, or trauma). Its key features are:
High triglyceride levels (≥ 110 mg/dL confirms chylous effusion).
Presence of chylomicrons (visible on lipoprotein analysis).
Sterile and odorless (unlike infected or purulent effusions).
Why Not the Others? a) Cloudy, pink, and containing bacteria → Suggests empyema or infected effusion , not chylous.
b) Clear with high glucose → Seen in transudative effusions (e.g., heart failure) or rheumatoid effusions , not chylous.
d) Bloody fluid with low protein → Indicates hemorrhagic effusion (e.g., trauma, malignancy), not chyle.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The laboratory values shown in this table were obtained on an unlabeled body fluid sample:
Test
Result
Protein
3 g/dL (30 g/L)
Albumin
2.1 g/dL (21 g/L)
Hyaluronate
0.4 g/dL (4 g/L)
Glucose
80 mg/dL (4.4 mmol/L)
Lactate
Based on these values, this sample is most likely:
The presence of hyaluronate (hyaluronic acid) at 0.4 g/dL is diagnostic of synovial fluid , as this glycosaminoglycan is:
Unique to synovial fluid (provides viscosity).
Absent in other body fluids (e.g., CSF, urine, peritoneal fluid).
Supporting Evidence: Protein (3 g/dL) :
Consistent with synovial fluid (normal range: 1–3 g/dL).
Lower than peritoneal fluid (transudate/exudate overlap).
Higher than CSF (normal: 15–45 mg/dL).
Glucose (80 mg/dL) :
Lactate (10 mg/dL) :
Why Not the Others? a) Urine → No hyaluronate; protein is usually <30 mg/dL.
c) Peritoneal fluid → No hyaluronate; protein varies (transudate <2.5 g/dL, exudate ≥2.5 g/dL).
d) CSF → No hyaluronate; protein is much lower (mg/dL range).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following body fluids is directly involved in male fertility?
Seminal fluid (semen) is the fluid that contains sperm and is directly involved in male fertility. It is produced by the male reproductive system, including the seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral glands.
The other options are not related to fertility:
a) Pleural fluid → Found in the lungs (respiratory system).
b) Peritoneal fluid → Found in the abdominal cavity.
d) Synovial fluid → Found in joints (lubricates them).
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ASCP Exam Questions
To qualitatively aid in differentiating malabsorption and maldigestion, 2 slides are made from the stool specimen, pretreated with ethanol (slide 1) or acetic acid (slide 2), and stained with:
The Oil red O stain is used to qualitatively assess fecal fat (steatorrhea) to differentiate:
Malabsorption (e.g., celiac disease) vs. maldigestion (e.g., pancreatic insufficiency).
Method :
Results :
Why Not the Others? a) Safranin → Used for bacterial stains (e.g., spore-forming bacteria).
c) Eosin-nigrosin → Assesses sperm viability , not fecal fat.
d) Methylene blue → Stains nuclei/mucin , irrelevant for fat evaluation.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which physical property of pleural fluid helps differentiate transudates from exudates?
Specific gravity is one of the traditional physical properties used to help differentiate transudates from exudates in pleural fluid:
Transudates typically have a low specific gravity (<1.016) due to low protein content (e.g., in heart failure, cirrhosis).
Exudates have a higher specific gravity (>1.016) because of increased protein, cells, or other solutes (e.g., in pneumonia, malignancy).
Why Not the Others? b) Color → May suggest hemorrhage (bloody) or infection (purulent), but does not reliably distinguish transudates vs. exudates .
c) Clarity → Transudates are usually clear , while exudates may be cloudy , but this is subjective and overlaps with other conditions.
d) Volume → Reflects severity but not the underlying pathophysiology (both transudates and exudates can be large).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Xanthochromia is most commonly associated with which condition?
Xanthochromia (yellow or pink discoloration of CSF supernatant) is most commonly caused by subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) .
It results from hemoglobin breakdown into bilirubin (takes 12+ hours to develop after bleeding).
Key Points: SAH :
Why Not Other Options?
a) Traumatic tap : Causes RBCs in CSF , but supernatant remains clear if centrifuged immediately (no time for hemoglobin breakdown).
b) Viral meningitis / d) Encephalitis : May elevate WBCs/protein but do not cause xanthochromia.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which pleural fluid finding is consistent with an exudate?
An exudative pleural effusion is defined by Light’s criteria , which includes:
Pleural fluid/serum protein ratio >0.5
Pleural fluid/serum LDH ratio >0.6
Pleural fluid LDH > ⅔ of the upper limit of serum LDH
Why Not the Others? a) Protein ratio <0.5 → Suggests a transudate (e.g., heart failure, cirrhosis).
c) Glucose >60 mg/dL → Nonspecific; exudates can have low glucose (e.g., infection, rheumatoid effusion).
d) Clear appearance → Transudates are typically clear, but exudates can be clear or cloudy .
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following calculations may be useful in determining if there is a breach in the blood-brain barrier?
The CSF/serum albumin index is the most specific and widely used calculation to assess blood-brain barrier (BBB) integrity .
Key Points: Albumin is produced only in the liver and does not cross an intact BBB.
The index compares CSF albumin to serum albumin, correcting for plasma leakage.
Interpretation :
Normal : <9 (intact BBB)
Elevated : ≥9 (BBB dysfunction, e.g., meningitis, MS, or trauma).
Why Not Other Options? a) CSF IgG index → Evaluates intrathecal IgG synthesis (MS, infections), not BBB integrity.
b) Total protein ratio → Less specific (affected by non-albumin proteins).
d) LDH ratio → Nonspecific marker for cell damage (e.g., infections/hemorrhage).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Synovial fluid from a 68-year-old patient reveals rhombic crystals with weak positive birefringence when viewed using polarizing microscopy. These crystals can be identified as:
Rhombic crystals with weak positive birefringence are pathognomonic for calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) , the hallmark of pseudogout :
Morphology : Rhomboid or rod-shaped.
Birefringence :
Clinical correlation :
Why Not the Others? a) Cholesterol → Notched plates , no consistent birefringence (chronic inflammation).
b) Hydroxyapatite → Non-birefringent (requires electron microscopy).
c) Monosodium urate (MSU) → Needle-shaped, strongly negatively birefringent (gout).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Ascitic fluid with a serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) > 1.1 g/dL is consistent with:
A SAAG >1.1 g/dL indicates portal hypertension as the cause of ascites, including:
Why Not the Others? a) Peritoneal carcinomatosis → SAAG <1.1 g/dL (exudative, due to tumor infiltration).
b) Tuberculosis → SAAG <1.1 g/dL (exudative, from inflammation).
d) Pancreatic ascites → SAAG variable but typically <1.1 g/dL (due to pancreatic duct leak).
Key Point: SAAG formula :
SAAG=Serum albumin−Ascitic fluid albumin SAAG = Serum albumin − Ascitic fluid albumin
High SAAG (>1.1) = Transudate (portal hypertension).
Low SAAG (<1.1) = Exudate (infection, malignancy, or pancreatitis).
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ASCP Exam Questions
A decreased CSF total protein concentration may indicate the occurrence of which of the following?
Decreased CSF total protein concentration is most commonly associated with:
CSF leakage (e.g., due to trauma or lumbar puncture complications) → Dilution of CSF by extracellular fluid lowers protein levels.
Conditions causing increased CSF production (e.g., hydrocephalus) → Faster turnover dilutes protein content.
Why Not the Other Options? a) Meningitis → Increases CSF protein due to inflammation and blood-brain barrier disruption.
b) Carcinoma (neoplastic meningitis) → Elevates CSF protein from tumor infiltration.
c) Hemorrhage (subarachnoid or traumatic) → Raises CSF protein due to blood contamination.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Pilocarpine iontophoresis is used to:
Pilocarpine iontophoresis is the standard method to stimulate sweat production for:
Cystic fibrosis (CF) diagnosis : Measures chloride concentration in sweat ([Cl⁻] >60 mmol/L is diagnostic).
Autonomic dysfunction evaluation (e.g., small fiber neuropathy).
Procedure: Why Not the Others? b) Separate CSF proteins → Done by electrophoresis , not iontophoresis.
c) Measure ions in saliva → Saliva tests use passive collection , not iontophoresis.
d) Determine serous fluid pH → pH is measured directly (e.g., with a pH meter).
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ASCP Exam Questions
The laboratory results in this table are from a 21-year-old patient with a back injury, who appears otherwise healthy:
Test
Result
Whole blood glucose
77 mg/dL (4.2 mmol/L)
Serum glucose
88 mg/dL (4.8 mmol/L)
CSF glucose
The best interpretation of these results is that:
The results are physiologically normal because:
CSF glucose is ~60–70% of serum glucose (56 mg/dL CSF vs. 88 mg/dL serum = 64% , within normal range).
Whole blood glucose is ~10–15% lower than serum glucose (77 mg/dL vs. 88 mg/dL = 12.5% lower , expected due to RBC water content).
Why Not the Others? a) CSF elevated → Incorrect; CSF glucose should be lower than serum.
b) Whole blood > serum → Never true; whole blood is always lower due to plasma dilution.
d) Serum = whole blood → Incorrect; they differ predictably (serum lacks RBCs).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Synovial fluid is typically collected using a sterile needle and syringe and then transferred to collection tubes for testing. Which of the following anticoagulants would be appropriate to use for the aliquot sent for a manual cell count and crystal evaluation?
Lithium heparin is the preferred anticoagulant for synovial fluid sent for cell count and crystal analysis because:
Preserves cell morphology : Unlike EDTA, heparin does not distort WBCs or crystals.
No interference with microscopy : Heparin does not form crystals or precipitate (unlike EDTA, which can mimic CPPD crystals).
Standard practice : Recommended by the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) for synovial fluid analysis.
Why Not the Others? a) Liquid EDTA → Can artificially precipitate and mimic calcium pyrophosphate (CPP) crystals , leading to false positives.
c) Sodium fluoride → Used for glucose preservation (irrelevant for cell counts/crystals).
d) Sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS) → Used for blood cultures (inhibits complement/phagocytosis, unsuitable for synovial fluid).
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ASCP Exam Questions
A 10 mL suspension, in water, is made from a bloody stool sample collected from a neonate. The specimen is centrifuged and the resulting pink supernatant transferred in equal volumes to 2 tubes. The first tube serves as a reference while the second tube is alkalinized with 1 mL of 0.25 M sodium hydroxide. The second tube develops a yellow color within 2 minutes. This reaction indicates the presence of:
This scenario describes the Apt test (also called the alkali denaturation test ), which is used to distinguish fetal hemoglobin (HbF) from adult (maternal) hemoglobin (HbA) in bloody stools, especially in neonates.
How it works: Hemoglobin from the stool sample is extracted into water.
Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is added to denature the hemoglobin.
HbF is resistant to alkali denaturation and remains pink .
HbA is susceptible to alkali denaturation and turns yellow-brown .
Interpretation in this case: The tube turned yellow after adding NaOH → Indicates that the hemoglobin was denatured .
Therefore, the hemoglobin present was maternal hemoglobin (HbA) .
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ASCP Exam Questions
What is the primary physiological role of synovial fluid?
Synovial fluid has two primary physiological roles:
Lubrication :
Nutrient delivery :
Supplies oxygen and nutrients to avascular cartilage via diffusion.
Removes metabolic waste (e.g., CO₂, lactic acid).
Why Not the Others? b) Oxygen delivery to muscles → Muscles receive oxygen via blood vessels , not synovial fluid.
c) Glucose breakdown → Synovial fluid contains glucose but does not metabolize it.
d) Sodium regulation → Plasma sodium is regulated by kidneys , not joints.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A healthy person with a blood glucose of 80 mg/dL (4.4 mmol/L) would have a simultaneously determined cerebrospinal fluid glucose value of:
In a healthy individual , CSF glucose is ~60–70% of blood glucose due to:
Passive transport across the blood-brain barrier (BBB).
Metabolic consumption by CNS cells.
Calculation: Why Not the Others? a) 25 mg/dL → Pathologic (e.g., bacterial meningitis).
c) 100 mg/dL or d) 150 mg/dL → Higher than blood glucose , which is impossible (CSF glucose never exceeds serum levels).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which fluid is analyzed for creatinine to detect urine leakage into body cavities?
Creatinine analysis in peritoneal fluid is used to diagnose urine leakage (urinoma) into the peritoneal cavity, which can occur due to:
Key Findings: Why Not the Others? a) Pericardial fluid → Creatinine is not relevant; suspect uremic pericarditis if BUN/creatinine are high systemically.
b) Synovial fluid → Creatinine is not measured here (used for crystal analysis or infection).
c) Pleural fluid → Rarely involved in urine leakage (unless urothorax from obstructive uropathy).
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ASCP Exam Questions
The presence of oligoclonal bands in a CSF specimen but not in the paired serum sample is associated with:
Oligoclonal bands (OCBs) in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) are immunoglobulin G (IgG) bands detected by electrophoresis that indicate intrathecal antibody production . Their presence is a key diagnostic feature of:
Multiple sclerosis (MS) → OCBs in CSF but not serum are found in ~90% of MS patients , suggesting CNS-specific immune activity .
Other neurological conditions (e.g., CNS infections, autoimmune disorders) may also show OCBs, but MS is the most common association .
Why Not the Other Options? a) Spina bifida → A neural tube defect , diagnosed via imaging and elevated AFP , not CSF OCBs.
b) Hydrocephalus → Caused by CSF flow obstruction ; diagnosed via imaging , not immunology.
c) Reye syndrome → A mitochondrial disorder post-viral illness, diagnosed via liver biopsy/metabolic tests , not CSF analysis.
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Which of the following diseases may cause an exudative pericardial effusion?
Exudative pericardial effusion is typically caused by inflammatory, infectious, or malignant conditions. The possible causes include:
Bacterial infection (e.g., tuberculosis, purulent pericarditis) → Leads to an exudative effusion due to inflammation and increased vascular permeability.
Malignancy (e.g., lung cancer, lymphoma)
Autoimmune diseases (e.g., lupus, rheumatoid arthritis)
Radiation therapy
The other options (a, b, d ) typically cause transudative effusions:
Congestive heart failure (↑ hydrostatic pressure)
Nephrotic syndrome (hypoalbuminemia → ↓ oncotic pressure)
Cirrhosis (hypoalbuminemia and portal hypertension)
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following best explains the blood-brain barrier’s role in CSF composition?
The blood-brain barrier (BBB) tightly controls CSF composition by:
Selective permeability :
Allows small, lipid-soluble molecules (e.g., O₂, CO₂, ethanol).
Blocks large/polar molecules (e.g., proteins, pathogens, most drugs).
Cellular transport :
Nutrients (e.g., glucose, amino acids) enter via specific transporters .
Waste products are actively removed.
Why Not the Others? a) Passive diffusion of all substances → Incorrect; the BBB is highly selective .
b) Prevents water entry → False; water freely crosses via aquaporins .
d) Facilitates protein entry → False; CSF protein is very low (~15–45 mg/dL) due to BBB exclusion.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Xanthochromia in cerebrospinal fluid is typically associated with which condition?
Xanthochromia (a yellow or pinkish discoloration of CSF) is most commonly associated with subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) . It occurs due to the breakdown of hemoglobin into bilirubin (which causes the yellow color) after RBCs lyse in the CSF, typically 12 hours to 2 weeks after bleeding.
Why Not the Others? a) Bacterial meningitis → CSF is usually cloudy/turbid (due to high WBCs), not xanthochromic.
c) Traumatic tap → Fresh blood may be present, but xanthochromia does not appear immediately (centrifugation would show a clear supernatant if it’s just a traumatic tap).
d) Viral encephalitis → CSF may have mild pleocytosis but remains clear or slightly cloudy, not xanthochromic.
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ASCP Exam Questions
How does a clot in synovial fluid typically form?
A clot in synovial fluid forms primarily due to the conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin , which occurs when:
Joint trauma or inflammation allows fibrinogen (a clotting factor from plasma) to leak into the synovial space.
The synovial fluid, which normally lacks fibrinogen, gains clotting capability when plasma proteins enter.
Why Not the Others? a) Inflammatory reaction with increased leukocytes → Causes turbidity but not clotting (unless fibrinogen is also present).
b) High concentration of mucin (hyaluronic acid) → Increases viscosity , not clotting.
d) Contamination with blood → Introduces fibrinogen , but clotting is still due to fibrinogen, not blood cells themselves.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following studies is performed by aspirating seminal fluid with a Pasteur pipette and observing the formation of droplets as it is allowed to fall under only the influence of gravity?
The described test—aspirating seminal fluid with a Pasteur pipette and observing droplet formation under gravity —is the standard method to assess semen viscosity :
Normal viscosity : Forms discrete droplets (not a continuous thread).
Hyperviscosity : Forms a long, sticky thread (associated with infertility).
Why Not the Others? a) Vitality → Requires dye exclusion tests (e.g., eosin-nigrosin) to distinguish live/dead sperm.
b) Motility → Assessed by microscopic observation of sperm movement (graded as progressive/non-progressive).
d) Concentration → Measured via hemocytometer or automated counters (counting sperm/mL).
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ASCP Exam Questions
A peritoneal fluid to serum amylase ratio greater than 1 suggests:
A peritoneal fluid-to-serum amylase ratio >1 strongly suggests pancreatic ascites , caused by:
Pancreatic duct rupture (e.g., due to chronic pancreatitis or trauma).
Leakage of pancreatic enzymes (amylase-rich fluid) into the peritoneal cavity.
Key Features: Amylase levels in ascitic fluid are markedly elevated (often >1,000 U/L).
Fluid may appear cloudy or milky (if triglycerides are also high).
Why Not the Others? a) Cirrhosis → Ascitic fluid amylase is low (transudative effusion).
c) Bacterial peritonitis → Amylase is normal or mildly elevated (not ratio >1).
d) Malignancy → May cause exudative ascites but rarely elevates amylase unless pancreatic tumor.
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ASCP Exam Questions
CSF should normally appear clear and:
Normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) should appear:
Any deviation from this suggests pathology:
Cloudiness → Infection (e.g., meningitis) or high cell/protein content
Pale yellow (xanthochromia) → Subarachnoid hemorrhage (after RBC breakdown)
Opalescent → Possible lipid or protein abnormality (rare)
Why Not the Other Options? b) Opalescent → Abnormal (suggests high lipids or proteins, e.g., metastatic cancer).
c) Pale yellow → Abnormal (xanthochromia from old blood or hyperbilirubinemia).
d) Xanthochromic → Always pathological (due to hemoglobin breakdown products).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Measurement of which of the following tumor markers may be useful in evaluating both pleural and peritoneal effusions for malignancy?
CEA is the most widely used tumor marker for evaluating malignant effusions because:
It is elevated in adenocarcinomas (e.g., lung, colorectal, breast, ovarian).
It helps distinguish malignant effusions (high CEA) from benign causes.
Clinical Utility: Pleural effusion : High CEA suggests lung or metastatic adenocarcinoma .
Peritoneal effusion : High CEA may indicate GI (colon, gastric) or ovarian cancer .
Threshold : CEA >5 ng/mL (serum) or >2.5 ng/mL (effusion) raises suspicion.
Why Not the Others? b) JAK2 → Used for myeloproliferative disorders (e.g., polycythemia vera), not effusions.
c) hCG → Relevant for gestational trophoblastic disease/testicular cancer , rarely in effusions.
d) CD10 → Marker for renal cell carcinoma/lymphoma , not effusion evaluation.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Pericardial fluid accumulation is normally prevented by:
Pericardial fluid accumulation is normally prevented by lymphatic drainage because:
Lymphatic vessels in the parietal pericardium continuously drain fluid, maintaining a balance between production and reabsorption.
Normal pericardial fluid volume : 15–50 mL (ultrathin lubricating layer).
Why Not the Others? b) High vascular pressure → Incorrect; increased vascular pressure (e.g., heart failure) causes pericardial effusions, not prevention.
c) Myocardial secretion → False; the myocardium does not secrete fluid.
d) RBC reabsorption → RBCs play no role in fluid homeostasis.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following would appear birefringent under polarized microscopy?
Birefringence under polarized light occurs when a material splits light into two rays with different refractive indices. Monosodium urate (MSU) crystals exhibit this property because:
Crystalline structure : Aligns light predictably, producing bright, needle-shaped crystals .
Negative birefringence :
Clinical correlation : Pathognomonic for gout .
Why Not the Others? b) Bacteria → Non-crystalline; no birefringence .
c) Protein aggregates → Amorphous; no birefringence (e.g., Russell bodies).
d) Hemoglobin → Non-crystalline; no birefringence (unless converted to heme crystals, which are rare).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which stain is best for detecting bacteria in a CSF sample?
The Gram stain is the gold standard for rapid bacterial detection in CSF because:
Identifies bacteria by morphology and staining :
Gram-positive (e.g., S. pneumoniae , blue/purple).
Gram-negative (e.g., N. meningitidis , pink/red).
Critical for empiric antibiotic therapy (results within 30 minutes).
Why Not the Others? a) Wright-Giemsa → Used for cell differentials (e.g., lymphocytes vs. neutrophils), not bacteria.
c) Sudan III → Detects lipids (e.g., in demyelination), irrelevant for infection.
d) Prussian blue → Identifies iron (e.g., hemosiderin in old hemorrhage).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Amniotic fluid that is dark yellow may indicate an increased concentration of which of the following?
Dark yellow amniotic fluid is most commonly associated with an increased concentration of bilirubin , which occurs in:
Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) (e.g., Rh incompatibility), where fetal RBC breakdown releases bilirubin into the amniotic fluid.
The ΔOD450 test (spectrophotometric analysis) is used to measure bilirubin levels and assess the severity of fetal hemolysis.
Why Not the Others? a) Urea and d) Creatinine → Elevated in fetal renal abnormalities but do not cause yellow discoloration.
b) Glucose → Does not affect amniotic fluid color (though abnormal levels may indicate maternal diabetes).
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ASCP Exam Questions
A synovial fluid that easily forms small, discrete droplets when expelled from a syringe would be associated with which of the following?
Synovial fluid that easily forms small, discrete droplets (instead of a long, viscous string) indicates decreased viscosity , which is most commonly caused by:
Inflammation (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis, septic arthritis, or crystal-induced arthritis like gout/pseudogout), where inflammatory enzymes break down hyaluronic acid , reducing viscosity.
Why Not the Others? a) Gout and b) Pseudogout → Both involve inflammation (due to crystals), leading to low viscosity , but the droplet formation itself is a nonspecific sign of any inflammatory process .
d) Hypothyroidism → May cause joint stiffness (e.g., hypothyroid arthropathy ) but typically does not alter synovial fluid viscosity significantly.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following analyses is performed on seminal fluid that has been fixed and stained with Wright, Giemsa, or Papanicolaou stain?
Fixed and stained seminal fluid (with Wright, Giemsa, or Papanicolaou stains) is used to evaluate sperm morphology because:
Staining highlights structural details :
Head defects (e.g., tapered, vacuolated).
Midpiece/tail defects (e.g., coiled, absent).
WHO criteria : ≥4% normal forms is considered acceptable (strict thresholds use ≥14%).
Why Not the Others? a) Motility → Assessed by fresh, unstained specimen under phase-contrast microscopy.
b) Viability → Requires dye exclusion tests (e.g., eosin-nigrosin) on live sperm.
d) Concentration → Measured by hemocytometer/automated counters (unstained).
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ASCP Exam Questions
A milky appearance of synovial fluid may indicate:
A milky or turbid appearance in synovial fluid is most commonly caused by crystal-induced arthritis , such as:
Why Not Other Options? a) Septic arthritis → Typically purulent (yellow/green, not milky).
b) Fungal infection → Rare; fluid may be cloudy but not classically milky.
d) Hemorrhagic effusion → Bloody (red/brown), not milky.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals (CPPD) appear in polarized light as:
Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) crystals in compensated polarized light microscopy show:
Shape : Rhomboid or rod-shaped .
Birefringence : Weakly positive (blue when parallel to the compensator axis, yellow when perpendicular).
Clinical correlation :
Why Not the Others? a) Needle-shaped, yellow → Monosodium urate (gout) , which is negatively birefringent .
c) Hexagonal, colorless → Cystine crystals (seen in cystinosis, not joints).
d) Round, green → No common crystals match this description.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A CSF sample shows a predominance of eosinophils. Which condition should be considered?
Eosinophils in CSF (≥10% of WBCs) are rare but strongly suggest:
Parasitic infections :
Other causes (less common):
Fungal infections (e.g., Coccidioides ).
Drug reactions (e.g., NSAIDs, IVIg).
Why Not the Others? a) Bacterial meningitis → Neutrophils dominate (eosinophils are rare).
c) Viral meningitis → Lymphocytes dominate (eosinophils absent).
d) Traumatic tap → Introduces RBCs , not eosinophils.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Increased LDH levels in serous fluids typically suggest:
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) is an enzyme found in cells, and its levels in serous fluids (e.g., pleural, peritoneal, or pericardial fluid) help differentiate between transudates and exudates .
Increased LDH suggests:
Cellular breakdown (due to cell damage or necrosis).
Inflammation or infection (e.g., bacterial peritonitis, pleuritis, malignancy).
Exudative effusion (as per Light’s criteria , where LDH > 2/3 of the upper limit of serum LDH supports exudate).
Why not the other options? 79 / 182
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following would likely show decreased glucose in synovial fluid?
Decreased synovial fluid glucose is most commonly seen in:
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) (due to intense inflammation and WBC consumption of glucose).
Septic arthritis (bacterial infection rapidly consumes glucose).
Tuberculous arthritis (chronic inflammation).
Why Not the Others? a) Osteoarthritis → Normal glucose (non-inflammatory condition).
b) Gout → Glucose is normal or slightly reduced (crystal-induced inflammation is less glucose-depleting than RA).
d) Joint trauma → Normal glucose (unless secondarily infected).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which condition is associated with the presence of malignant cells in pleural fluid?
Malignant cells in pleural fluid are diagnostic of carcinomatosis (metastatic cancer involving the pleura).
Common primary cancers: Lung, breast, lymphoma, ovarian .
Why Not Other Options? a) Congestive heart failure → Transudative effusion (no malignant cells).
b) Liver cirrhosis → Transudative effusion (SAAG >1.1 g/dL).
d) Tuberculosis → Lymphocytic exudate (malignancy must be ruled out).
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ASCP Exam Questions
The most common genetic defect associated with cystic fibrosis is called:
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by mutations in the CFTR (Cystic Fibrosis Transmembrane Conductance Regulator) gene , which encodes a chloride channel critical for fluid and electrolyte balance.
Why Not the Other Options? a) Fragile X → Causes Fragile X syndrome (intellectual disability), unrelated to CF.
b) Trisomy 21 → Causes Down syndrome , a chromosomal disorder (extra chromosome 21).
d) Philadelphia chromosome → Associated with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) , due to BCR-ABL1 fusion gene .
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ASCP Exam Questions
What is the typical CSF glucose finding in viral meningitis?
In viral meningitis , CSF glucose is typically:
Normal (or mildly decreased , but rarely <40 mg/dL).
This contrasts with bacterial meningitis , where glucose is markedly low (CSF/serum ratio <0.4).
Key CSF Findings in Viral Meningitis: Glucose : Normal (~60-80% of serum glucose).
WBCs : Lymphocytic pleocytosis (10–500 cells/μL).
Protein : Mildly elevated (50–100 mg/dL).
Why Not Other Options? a) Markedly low → Bacterial/TB/fungal meningitis.
c) Very high → Artifact (e.g., hyperglycemia).
d) Undetectable → Never occurs in viral meningitis.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A mildly increased CSF lactate (25-30 mg/dL) is generally associated with:
CSF lactate levels help differentiate between types of meningitis and neurological conditions:
Why Not the Other Options? b) Multiple sclerosis → Typically has normal lactate (inflammatory demyelination doesn’t increase anaerobic metabolism).
c) Multiple myeloma → A plasma cell malignancy; CSF lactate is normal unless CNS involvement causes secondary effects.
d) Bacterial meningitis → Usually causes high lactate (>35 mg/dL) ; mild elevations are atypical unless treated early.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) crystals in synovial fluid are characteristic of:
Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) crystals are the hallmark of pseudogout (calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease, or CPPD disease ).
These crystals appear as rhomboid-shaped and are weakly positively birefringent under polarized light.
Why Not Other Options? a) Gout → Caused by needle-shaped, negatively birefringent monosodium urate (MSU) crystals .
b) Rheumatoid arthritis → Inflammatory arthritis without crystals (autoantibodies like RF/anti-CCP are diagnostic).
d) Septic arthritis → Bacterial infection (e.g., S. aureus ); no crystals (unless coincidental CPPD).
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ASCP Exam Questions
An elevated sweat chloride is associated with:
Sweat chloride testing is the gold standard diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis (CF) , a genetic disorder caused by mutations in the CFTR gene .
Elevated sweat chloride (>60 mmol/L) → Indicates CF due to defective chloride transport in sweat glands.
Intermediate levels (30–59 mmol/L) → Require further testing (e.g., genetic analysis).
Normal levels (<30 mmol/L) → Rule out CF.
Why Not the Other Options? a) Multiple sclerosis → A neurological disorder diagnosed via MRI and CSF analysis , unrelated to sweat chloride.
b) Muscular dystrophy → A muscle-wasting disease diagnosed via genetic testing and muscle biopsy , not sweat tests.
c) Multiple myeloma → A plasma cell cancer diagnosed via serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP) and bone marrow biopsy , unrelated to sweat electrolytes.
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ASCP Exam Questions
A physician attempts to aspirate a knee joint and obtains 0.1 mL of slightly bloody fluid. Addition of acetic acid results in turbidity and a clot. This indicates the fluid:
The formation of turbidity and a clot upon adding acetic acid confirms the fluid is synovial fluid , because:
Hyaluronic acid (unique to synovial fluid) precipitates in acetic acid, forming a mucin clot .
This reaction does not occur in other body fluids (e.g., blood, saline, or transudates).
Key Observations: Minimal volume (0.1 mL) and slight bloodiness :
Clot formation :
Normal synovial fluid : Forms a tight, ropy clot .
Inflammatory fluid (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis): Friable clot.
Why Not the Others? b) Contains red blood cells → True but irrelevant (blood doesn’t clot with acetic acid alone).
c) Is inappropriate for analysis → Incorrect; the clot confirms synovial origin, so analysis is valid.
d) Must be treated with a diluent → Unnecessary; the clot confirms synovial fluid.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which mechanism ensures the continuous production and reabsorption of CSF?
The continuous production and reabsorption of CSF is maintained by:
Production :
Reabsorption :
Why Not the Others? a) Active filtration → Partial truth (choroid plexus uses active transport, but reabsorption is pressure-driven).
b) Osmotic pressure → Minor role; CSF is isotonic to plasma.
d) Passive diffusion → Insignificant; CSF production/reabsorption are active processes .
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ASCP Exam Questions
Results from a milky peritoneal fluid demonstrate an elevated triglyceride content and the presence of chylomicrons. These results indicate the fluid is:
The findings of elevated triglycerides and chylomicrons in milky peritoneal fluid are diagnostic of a chylous effusion .
Key Features of Chylous Fluid: Appearance : Milky/opaque due to high lipid content.
Triglycerides : >110 mg/dL (typically much higher in true chylous effusions).
Chylomicrons : Present (confirmed by lipoprotein electrophoresis or centrifugation).
Causes :
Lymphatic disruption (e.g., trauma, surgery, lymphoma, or abdominal malignancy).
Congenital lymphatic disorders (e.g., lymphangiectasia).
Why Not Other Options? b) Exudate / c) Transudate : These terms describe protein/LDH ratios (Light’s criteria) but do not account for lipid content.
d) Pseudochylous : Fluid appears milky but has low triglycerides and high cholesterol (seen in chronic inflammation, e.g., tuberculosis or rheumatoid disease).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Malignant cells in serous fluids typically appear as:
Malignant cells in serous fluids (pleural, peritoneal, pericardial) typically show:
Nuclear atypia :
Irregular nuclear membranes (indentations, grooves).
Coarse chromatin (clumped or “salt-and-pepper” pattern).
Prominent nucleoli .
Cytoplasmic features :
High nuclear-to-cytoplasmic (N:C) ratio .
Vacuolation or signet-ring forms (e.g., gastric adenocarcinoma).
Architectural patterns :
Why Not the Others? a) Small round cells with uniform nuclei → Benign mesothelial cells or lymphocytes.
c) Neutrophils in clusters → Suggest infection, not malignancy.
d) Crystals with birefringence → Seen in gout/pseudogout, unrelated to cancer.
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ASCP Exam Questions
What is the best way to distinguish a traumatic tap from a subarachnoid hemorrhage in a CSF sample?
The best way to distinguish a traumatic tap from a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) is by checking for xanthochromia (yellowish discoloration) in the supernatant after centrifugation :
Why Not the Others? a) Presence of bacteria in Gram stain → Indicates infection (meningitis) , not SAH or traumatic tap.
c) Low glucose concentration → Suggests bacterial meningitis or other infections, not hemorrhage.
d) Cloudy appearance → Seen in infection (high WBCs) or severe hemorrhage, but not reliable for distinguishing traumatic tap vs. SAH.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which CSF cell count is considered normal in adults?
Normal adult CSF contains:
0–5 white blood cells (WBCs)/µL , predominantly:
Lymphocytes (60–70%).
Monocytes (30–40%).
Red blood cells (RBCs) should be 0/µL (unless traumatic tap).
Why Not the Others? b) 6–15 RBCs/µL → Abnormal (CSF should have no RBCs unless contaminated by blood).
c) 10–50 neutrophils/µL → Pathologic (suggests bacterial infection or hemorrhage).
d) 5–10 lymphocytes/µL → Misleading; while lymphocytes dominate, total WBCs should not exceed 5/µL .
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ASCP Exam Questions
Synovial fluid analyzed with a polarizing microscope shows the presence of crystals appearing as sharp needles with strong negative birefringence. These crystals should be reported as:
Sharp, needle-shaped crystals with strong negative birefringence under polarized light are pathognomonic for monosodium urate (MSU) , the hallmark of gout :
Optical properties :
Clinical correlation :
Why Not the Others? a) Calcium oxalate → Seen in ethylene glycol poisoning/renal disease , but birefringence is variable (not diagnostic in joints).
c) Ammonium biurate → Yellow-brown spherules with radial striations (found in urine , not synovial fluid).
d) Calcium pyrophosphate (CPP) → Rhomboid-shaped, weakly positively birefringent (pseudogout).
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ASCP Exam Questions
The mucin clot test for synovial fluid is performed by adding which of the following to an aliquot of the sample?
The mucin clot test evaluates synovial fluid’s hyaluronic acid integrity by adding 2–5% glacial acetic acid :
Normal fluid : Forms a tight, ropy clot (intact hyaluronate).
Inflammatory fluid (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis): Produces a friable, poor clot (hyaluronate degraded by enzymes).
Why Not the Others? a) Sodium chloride → Used for crystal analysis (e.g., gout), not mucin clotting.
b) Hydrochloric acid → No role in synovial fluid testing.
c) Sodium hydroxide → Used in other lab tests (e.g., protein precipitation) but not for mucin clots.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which test is most appropriate to assess synovial fluid viscosity?
The string test is the most appropriate and practical method to assess synovial fluid viscosity. It involves:
Observing the fluid’s ability to form a “string” (4–6 cm long) when dropped from a syringe.
Normal synovial fluid (rich in hyaluronic acid) is highly viscous and forms a long string.
Decreased viscosity (e.g., in inflammatory arthritis like rheumatoid arthritis or infection) results in a short or absent string , indicating hyaluronate breakdown.
Why Not the Others? b) Refractometry → Measures total protein concentration , not viscosity.
c) Gram stain → Detects bacteria (used for diagnosing septic arthritis, not assessing viscosity).
d) Osmometry → Measures osmolality , not viscosity.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following is typically decreased in bacterial meningitis?
In bacterial meningitis , the following CSF changes are typical:
Decreased glucose (hypoglycorrhachia) (due to bacterial and neutrophil glycolysis).
Elevated protein (from BBB disruption and inflammation).
Neutrophilic pleocytosis (high WBCs).
Why Not the Others? a) CSF chloride → May be low in chronic infections (e.g., TB meningitis) due to systemic hyponatremia but not specific to bacterial meningitis .
c) CSF albumin → Increased (due to BBB damage), not decreased.
d) CSF sodium → Typically normal (no direct role in meningitis diagnosis).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Monosodium urate crystals that are aligned with the slow vibration of the red compensator in a polarizing microscope will appear:
Monosodium urate (MSU) crystals exhibit negative birefringence , meaning:
When aligned with the slow vibration axis (red compensator), they appear yellow .
When perpendicular, they appear blue .
This property is pathognomonic for gout .
Why Not the Others? 97 / 182
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ASCP Exam Questions
A vaginal swab is received in the laboratory for testing and immediately placed in sterile physiological saline to prepare a suspension. A wet mount is prepared and the laboratorian reports the presence of numerous clue cells. This most likely indicates the patient has:
Clue cells are vaginal epithelial cells covered with adherent bacteria (typically Gardnerella vaginalis and other anaerobes). They are a hallmark diagnostic feature of bacterial vaginosis (BV) :
Why Not the Other Options? a) Candidiasis → Yeast buds/hyphae seen on wet mount/KOH prep, no clue cells .
b) Trichomoniasis → Motile Trichomonas vaginalis protozoa on wet mount, no clue cells .
c) Atrophic vaginitis → Parabasal cells (due to low estrogen), no clue cells .
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ASCP Exam Questions
What is the normal total volume of CSF in an adult?
The normal total CSF volume in adults is ~150 mL (range: 140–170 mL ), distributed as:
Ventricular system : ~25 mL.
Subarachnoid space : ~125 mL (brain and spinal cord).
Why Not the Others? a) 50–70 mL → Too low (ventricles alone hold ~25 mL).
b) 90–120 mL → Below typical total volume.
d) 200–250 mL → Exceeds normal range (seen in hydrocephalus ).
Key Point: 99 / 182
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following is most likely to produce a chylous pleural effusion?
A chylous pleural effusion is caused by disruption of the thoracic duct or lymphatic vessels , leading to leakage of chyle (lymphatic fluid rich in triglycerides and chylomicrons) into the pleural space.
Most Common Causes: Malignancy (e.g., lymphoma, metastatic cancer ) → 50% of cases .
Trauma/surgery (e.g., post-esophagectomy) → 25% of cases .
Why Not Other Options? a) Pulmonary embolism → Causes exudative effusions (not chylous).
c) Bacterial infection → Produces purulent/neutrophilic exudates (e.g., empyema).
d) Tuberculosis → Causes lymphocytic exudates (rarely chylous unless fibrosis obstructs lymphatics).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which analyte is most helpful in differentiating between bacterial and viral meningitis?
CSF lactate is the most reliable single test to differentiate bacterial vs. viral meningitis :
Bacterial meningitis :
Lactate >3.5 mmol/L (due to anaerobic glycolysis by bacteria and neutrophils).
Sensitivity ~90% , specificity ~95% for bacterial infection.
Viral meningitis :
Why Not the Others? a) Protein →
b) Sodium →
c) Glucose →
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which cell type is most frequently increased in bacterial meningitis?
In acute bacterial meningitis , the CSF shows :
Markedly elevated neutrophils (>80% of WBCs), often 1,000–10,000 cells/μL (normal: <5 cells/μL).
Pathophysiology : Neutrophils migrate to CSF in response to bacterial pathogens (e.g., S. pneumoniae , N. meningitidis ).
Why Not the Others? a) Lymphocytes → Dominant in viral meningitis/TB (rarely >500 cells/μL).
b) Eosinophils → Seen in parasitic infections (e.g., Angiostrongylus ) or drug reactions (rare).
c) Monocytes → Elevated in chronic infections (e.g., TB, fungal meningitis).
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ASCP Exam Questions
What type of peritoneal fluid is typically found in cirrhosis-related ascites?
Cirrhosis-related ascites is a classic example of a transudative effusion due to portal hypertension and low serum albumin .
Key Features of Transudate in Cirrhosis: Low protein (<2.5 g/dL).
SAAG (serum-ascites albumin gradient) >1.1 g/dL (indicates portal hypertension).
Clear/straw-colored appearance (unless infected).
Why Not Other Options? a) Exudate → High protein (e.g., infection, malignancy).
b) Chylous fluid → Milky, high triglycerides (lymphatic leak, not cirrhosis).
d) Bloody effusion → Suggests trauma, malignancy, or TB.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following compounds is used as a chromogen in fecal occult blood tests?
Guaiac is the chromogen in traditional fecal occult blood tests (FOBT), where:
Hemoglobin (from blood) acts as a peroxidase, oxidizing guaiac to produce a blue color .
The reaction requires hydrogen peroxide (developer) and is read visually.
Why Not the Others? b) NADH → Used in enzymatic assays (e.g., LDH), not FOBT.
c) O-toluidine → An older chromogen for blood glucose tests (now obsolete due to toxicity).
d) p-Aminocinnamaldehyde → Used in urine reagent strips , not FOBT.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which is a common finding in tuberculous meningitis?
Elevated CSF lactate (>2.5 mmol/L) due to anaerobic glycolysis from inflammation and bacterial metabolism.
Moderately low glucose (CSF/serum ratio <0.5) from Mycobacterium tuberculosis consumption.
High protein (100–500 mg/dL) due to blood-brain barrier disruption.
Lymphocytic pleocytosis (50–500 WBCs/μL).
Why Not the Others? a) Increased CSF glucose → Never occurs in TBM (glucose is low or normal ).
b) Decreased CSF protein → Protein is always elevated in TBM.
d) Normal CSF chloride → Chloride is often low (due to dilutional hyponatremia from SIADH).
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ASCP Exam Questions
What is the typical appearance of synovial fluid in non-inflammatory joint disease?
In non-inflammatory joint diseases (e.g., osteoarthritis or traumatic arthritis ), synovial fluid typically appears:
Clear and colorless (or pale yellow).
Normal viscosity (forms a long string in the string test due to intact hyaluronic acid).
Low white blood cell (WBC) count (<2,000 cells/μL).
Why Not the Others? a) Bloody and cloudy → Suggests hemarthrosis (trauma, bleeding disorder) or inflammatory arthritis (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis).
c) Yellow and turbid → Seen in mild inflammatory conditions (e.g., early rheumatoid arthritis, gout).
d) Milky and opaque → Indicates septic arthritis (infection) or crystal-induced arthritis (e.g., gout, pseudogout).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Pleural transudates differ from pleural exudates in that transudates have:
Pleural effusions are classified as transudates or exudates based on biochemical and cellular characteristics. Transudates have the following key features:
Low WBC count (<1000/μL) – Due to non-inflammatory causes (e.g., heart failure, cirrhosis).
Low protein (Fluid:serum protein ratio <0.5) – Unlike exudates, which have a ratio >0.5.
Low LDH (Fluid:serum LDH ratio <0.6) – Exudates exceed this threshold.
Normal glucose – Unlike exudates, which may have low glucose (e.g., infection, malignancy).
Why not the other options? a) Fluid:serum LDH ratio >0.6 → Exudates meet this criterion (transudates have <0.6 ).
b) Fluid:serum protein ratio >0.5 → Exudates meet this (transudates have <0.5 ).
d) Fluid:serum glucose difference >30 mg/dL → Not a standard transudate/exudate discriminator (glucose is usually normal in transudates).
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ASCP Exam Questions
A high synovial fluid WBC count (>50,000/μL) is most indicative of:
A synovial fluid white blood cell (WBC) count >50,000/μL is highly suggestive of septic (infectious) arthritis , which is a medical emergency. Bacterial infections typically cause a marked neutrophilic response (>90% neutrophils).
Gout (b) and pseudogout (d) usually have WBC counts in the 20,000–50,000/μL range (inflammatory, but not as high as septic arthritis).
Non-inflammatory arthritis (a) (e.g., osteoarthritis) typically has a WBC count <2,000/μL .
Thus, >50,000/μL strongly points to septic arthritis until proven otherwise .
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ASCP Exam Questions
The presence of rice bodies in a synovial fluid is strongly associated with:
Rice bodies are small, smooth, whitish fibrinous particles found in synovial fluid, resembling grains of rice. They are most strongly associated with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) due to:
Chronic inflammation : Fibrin and necrotic synovial tissue fragments aggregate into these structures.
Immune complex deposition : RA’s autoimmune process leads to synovial membrane proliferation and fibrinous debris.
Why Not the Other Options? a) Gouty arthritis → Shows negatively birefringent urate crystals , not rice bodies.
c) Traumatic collection → May cause hemarthrosis (bloody fluid) but not rice bodies.
d) Infection with S. aureus → Causes purulent fluid with bacteria/neutrophils , not fibrinous rice bodies.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The dimensions of a standard Neubauer hemocytometer chamber are:
A standard Neubauer hemocytometer chamber has:
Dimensions : 3.0 mm × 3.0 mm × 0.1 mm (length × width × depth).
Grid layout :
Volume calculation :
Why Not the Others? b) 2.0 mm × 2.0 mm × 0.1 mm → Incorrect dimensions (no hemocytometer uses this).
c) 1.0 mm × 1.0 mm × 0.1 mm → Describes one large square , not the entire chamber.
d) 0.1 mm × 0.1 mm × 0.1 mm → Far too small (matches no part of the grid).
Key Point: 112 / 182
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ASCP Exam Questions
Increased presence of fetal fibronectin (fFN) in cervicovaginal secretions from a 24-year-old female at 35 weeks’ gestation indicates an increased risk for:
Fetal fibronectin (fFN) is a glycoprotein at the maternal-fetal interface, and its increased presence in cervicovaginal secretions after 22–35 weeks indicates:
Disruption of the chorion-decidual interface , a precursor to preterm labor.
High-risk prediction :
Why Not the Others? b) Bacterial vaginosis → Diagnosed by Amsel criteria/gram stain (fFN is unrelated).
c) Gestational diabetes → Screened by glucose tolerance tests , not fFN.
d) Hemolytic disease → Evaluated by maternal antibody titers/fetal ultrasound , not fFN.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Lipid-laden macrophages in CSF are suggestive of:
Lipid-laden macrophages (also called foam cells ) in CSF are pathognomonic for subacute/chronic hemorrhage because:
Origin : Macrophages phagocytize RBC breakdown products (cholesterol and lipids from lysed cell membranes).
Timing : Appear 5–7 days post-bleed and persist for weeks.
Associated conditions :
Why Not the Others? b) Leukemia → CSF shows malignant blasts , not lipid-laden macrophages.
c) CNS trauma → May cause RBCs but not lipid macrophages unless hemorrhage occurs.
d) Fungal infection → CSF shows lymphocytes/yeast forms , not foam cells.
Key Point: 115 / 182
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ASCP Exam Questions
Needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals in synovial fluid are characteristic of:
Needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals under polarized light are pathognomonic for gout because:
Monosodium urate (MSU) crystals :
Shape : Needle-like or rod-shaped.
Birefringence : Negative (yellow when parallel to the compensator axis).
Location : Intracellular (in neutrophils) or extracellular.
Clinical correlation :
Acute gouty arthritis : Sudden, severe joint pain (often 1st MTP joint).
Hyperuricemia (though 30% of acute gout occurs with normal uric acid).
Why Not the Others? a) Calcium pyrophosphate (CPP) → Rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent (pseudogout).
b) Cholesterol → Notched plates , no consistent birefringence (chronic inflammation).
d) Corticosteroid → Irregular, variably birefringent (iatrogenic after injections).
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ASCP Exam Questions
In synovial fluid, the most characteristic microscopic finding for patients with gout is:
The pathognomonic finding in gout is the presence of monosodium urate (MSU) crystals in synovial fluid, identified by:
Morphology : Needle-shaped, negatively birefringent under polarized light.
Location : Often intracellular (within neutrophils during acute attacks).
Clinical correlation :
Why Not the Others? a) CPPD crystals → Rhomboid, positively birefringent (pseudogout).
b) Cartilage debris → Seen in osteoarthritis/trauma , nonspecific.
d) Hemosiderin-laden macrophages → Indicates old hemorrhage , not gout.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Motility must be observed in at least what percentage of sperm to be considered normal?
According to WHO 5th edition (2010) criteria , normal sperm motility requires:
≥40% total motility (progressive + non-progressive).
≥32% progressive motility (sperm moving actively, either linearly or in large circles).
Lower thresholds (e.g., 25%) may be used by some labs, but 50% aligns with stricter clinical standards for fertility.
Why Not the Others? a) 10% → Severe asthenozoospermia (abnormally low motility).
b) 25% → Below WHO thresholds (may indicate subfertility).
d) 75% → Exceeds normal ranges (typical max is ~60%).
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ASCP Exam Questions
An amniocentesis is performed on a 32-year-old female at 17 weeks’ gestation. The specimen is received in the laboratory and the clinician wants to confirm the specimen is amniotic fluid, not urine. Which of the following tests should be the most helpful in distinguishing these fluids?
Albumin, potassium, sodium, and creatinine
Total protein, total bilirubin, albumin, and sodium
Glucose, total protein, urea, and creatinine
Glucose, total bilirubin, urea, and creatinine
To distinguish amniotic fluid from urine , the most useful tests are:
Glucose :
Protein :
Urea & Creatinine :
Why Not the Others? b) Bilirubin → Irrelevant (only useful in fetal hemolysis evaluation).
c) Electrolytes (Na/K) → Overlap between fluids (nonspecific).
d) Albumin/bilirubin → No diagnostic value for this purpose.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which organism commonly appears as encapsulated yeast in CSF cytology?
Cryptococcus neoformans is the most common encapsulated yeast in CSF , identified by:
Morphology :
Clinical context :
Meningitis in immunocompromised patients (e.g., HIV/AIDS).
Positive cryptococcal antigen (CrAg) in CSF/serum.
Why Not the Others? a) Candida albicans → Small, pseudohyphae-forming yeast (rare in CSF, seen in disseminated candidiasis).
c) Histoplasma capsulatum → Small, intracellular yeast (2–4 μm) in macrophages, no capsule .
d) Blastomyces dermatitidis → Broad-based budding yeast (8–15 μm), no capsule .
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which disorder can cause an increased number of eosinophils in CSF?
Eosinophils in CSF (eosinophilic pleocytosis) are rare but most strongly associated with parasitic infections (e.g., neurocysticercosis, Angiostrongylus cantonensis ).
Other causes include drug reactions (e.g., NSAIDs, IVIG) or idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome .
Why Not Other Options? a) Fungal meningitis → Typically lymphocytic (eosinophils are rare).
c) Multiple sclerosis → Lymphocytic predominance (no eosinophils).
d) Traumatic tap → Causes RBCs , not eosinophils.
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ASCP Exam Questions
False-negative results can occur for a guaiac-based fecal occult blood test due to the ingestion of:
Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) is a well-documented cause of false-negative guaiac fecal occult blood tests (FOBT) because it:
Inhibits the peroxidase-like activity of hemoglobin, blocking the chemical reaction that produces a blue color in the test.
Acts as a reducing agent , preventing oxidation of the guaiac reagent.
Why Not the Others? b) Horseradish → Contains peroxidase enzymes and may cause false positives .
c) Blueberries → May cause false positives due to natural plant peroxidases.
d) Acetaminophen → No significant effect on guaiac tests.
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ASCP Exam Questions
In viral meningitis, the predominant CSF cell type is:
In viral meningitis , the CSF typically shows :
Lymphocytic pleocytosis (50–500 cells/μL, with >50% lymphocytes ).
Pathophysiology : Lymphocytes dominate due to viral infection (e.g., enteroviruses, HSV, arboviruses).
Why Not the Others? a) Neutrophils → Predominate in bacterial meningitis (early viral meningitis may show transient neutrophils, but shifts to lymphocytes within 24–48 hours).
b) Basophils → Extremely rare in CSF (no clinical relevance).
d) Eosinophils → Seen in parasitic infections (e.g., Baylisascaris ) or drug reactions .
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which condition is associated with the presence of monosodium urate crystals in synovial fluid?
Monosodium urate (MSU) crystals are pathognomonic for gout , a metabolic disorder caused by hyperuricemia .
These crystals are needle-shaped and negatively birefringent under polarized light.
Why Not Other Options? a) Pseudogout → Caused by calcium pyrophosphate (CPP) crystals (rhomboid-shaped, weakly positively birefringent).
c) Osteoarthritis → Non-inflammatory; may have cartilage debris but no crystals.
d) Septic arthritis → Bacterial infection (e.g., S. aureus ); no crystals (unless coincidental gout).
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ASCP Exam Questions
What is the significance of a CSF IgG index greater than 0.7?
A CSF IgG index >0.7 indicates increased intrathecal IgG production within the central nervous system (CNS), which is seen in:
Multiple sclerosis (MS) (most common cause).
Other CNS inflammatory disorders (e.g., neurosyphilis, CNS lupus, HIV encephalitis).
Chronic CNS infections (e.g., subacute sclerosing panencephalitis).
Why Not the Others? a) Compromised blood-brain barrier (BBB) → Assessed by the albumin index (CSF/serum albumin ratio), not IgG index.
b) Normal value → Normal IgG index is <0.7 .
d) Decreased protein production → Irrelevant; the IgG index reflects excess CNS IgG synthesis , not deficiency.
Key Point: IgG index formula :
CSF IgG / CSF albuminSerum IgG / Serum albumin Serum IgG / Serum albumin CSF IgG / CSF albumin
Oligoclonal bands (OCBs) in CSF (not serum) confirm intrathecal synthesis and are more sensitive for MS diagnosis .
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What is the typical rate of cerebrospinal fluid production in adults?
CSF is produced at a rate of ~20–25 mL/hour (~500 mL/day) in adults due to:
Active secretion by the choroid plexus (lateral/third/fourth ventricles).
Mechanism :
Na+/K+ ATPase pumps drive ion transport, creating osmotic gradients for fluid movement.
Selective filtration of plasma (low protein content).
Why Not the Others? b) 10–15 mL/hour → Too low (total daily production would be <360 mL, insufficient for turnover).
c) 5–8 mL/hour → Far below physiologic needs.
d) 0.5–1.0 mL/hour → Negligible (would take days to replace total CSF volume).
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Amniotic fluid may be measured spectrophotometrically to determine the change in absorbance at 450 nm in order to monitor progression of which of the following?
Spectrophotometric analysis of amniotic fluid at 450 nm (ΔOD450) is primarily used to:
Monitor fetal hemolysis in cases of Rh incompatibility (e.g., maternal Rh-negative with Rh-positive fetus).
Assess severity by measuring bilirubin pigments (breakdown products of fetal RBCs).
Guide clinical management (e.g., intrauterine transfusions or early delivery).
Why Not the Other Options? a) Fetal lung maturity → Assessed via lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio or lamellar body count , not ΔOD450.
b) Open neural tube defects → Diagnosed via amniotic fluid AFP and acetylcholinesterase , not bilirubin.
c) Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) → Evaluated by surfactant testing (e.g., phosphatidylglycerol), unrelated to bilirubin.
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A phosphatidylglycerol immunochemical slide test shows no visible agglutination for an amniotic fluid collected at 30 weeks’ gestation. This should be reported as:
The absence of visible agglutination in a phosphatidylglycerol (PG) immunochemical slide test indicates:
Negative result :
Test principle :
PG binds to antibodies on the slide, causing agglutination if present .
No agglutination = PG <0.5 μg/mL (negative).
Why Not the Others? b) Low positive → Requires weak agglutination (PG present but low).
c) High positive → Strong agglutination (PG ≥2 μg/mL, indicates maturity).
d) Invalid → Reserved for test failure (e.g., control doesn’t work).
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A CSF/serum albumin index of 17 would strongly suggest which of the following?
A CSF/serum albumin index of 17 (normal: <9) indicates severe blood-brain barrier (BBB) disruption because:
Albumin is synthesized only in the liver and enters CSF solely via BBB leakage.
Index formula :
Albumin index=CSF albumin (mg/dL)Serum albumin (g/dL) Albumin index = Serum albumin (g/dL) CSF albumin (mg/dL)
Normal : <9
Mild BBB damage : 9–14
Severe BBB damage : ≥15
Why Not the Others? a) Multiple myeloma → Causes high serum albumin but does not directly increase CSF albumin.
b) Multiple sclerosis → May show mild BBB disruption (index ~9–12) but not this severe.
c) Bacterial meningitis → Can elevate the index but is diagnosed by CSF WBCs/culture , not albumin alone.
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Normal glucose levels in synovial fluid suggest:
Normal glucose levels in synovial fluid are typically seen in non-inflammatory arthritis (e.g., osteoarthritis or traumatic arthritis), where:
Glucose is similar to serum levels (synovial fluid glucose is normally ~90% of serum glucose).
Viscosity is preserved (due to intact hyaluronic acid).
WBC count is low (<2,000 cells/μL).
Why Not the Others? a) Inflammatory arthritis (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis, gout) → Glucose may be slightly reduced (due to WBC consumption).
b) Gout → Glucose is normal or mildly low , but the key finding is urate crystals .
d) Septic arthritis → Glucose is very low (<40 mg/dL; bacteria and neutrophils consume glucose rapidly).
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Which of the following results would be considered abnormal for seminal fluid?
a) Liquefaction time >60 minutes → Abnormal . Semen should liquefy within 15–30 minutes (max 60 minutes) due to enzymatic action. Delayed liquefaction can impair sperm motility and fertility testing.
b) 65% sperm that stain with eosin-nigrosin → Normal . This indicates 65% dead sperm (viability threshold is typically ≥50–60% live sperm ).
c) 55% sperm with normal morphology → Normal (WHO criteria: ≥4% normal forms is acceptable; stricter thresholds use ≥14%).
d) 50% sperm with rapid linear progression → Normal (WHO recommends ≥32% total motility, with ≥25% progressive motility).
Key Point: Abnormal liquefaction suggests:
Prostate dysfunction (e.g., insufficient proteolytic enzymes).
Infection/inflammation (e.g., prostatitis).
Specimen handling issues (e.g., cold temperatures delaying liquefaction).
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A patient with traumatic CSF tap will typically have:
In a traumatic tap (blood introduced during lumbar puncture due to needle injury):
Blood clots or streaks are often visible.
RBC count decreases in later collection tubes (as contaminating blood clears).
Supernatant after centrifugation is clear (no xanthochromia, since RBCs are fresh).
Why Not the Others? a) Evenly distributed blood → Suggests subarachnoid hemorrhage (true hemorrhage mixes uniformly).
c) Xanthochromia → Requires RBC lysis over 2–12 hours ; absent in acute traumatic tap.
d) Increased CSF lactate → Seen in bacterial meningitis/ischemia , not traumatic tap.
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Which of the following normally accounts for the largest fraction of CSF total proteins?
Albumin is the largest fraction of CSF total proteins under normal conditions because:
It is synthesized in the liver and passively crosses the blood-brain barrier (BBB) via transudation .
CSF lacks significant amounts of fibrinogen (clotting protein) or haptoglobin (hemoglobin-binding protein), which are mostly confined to blood.
Why Not the Others? b) Fibrinogen → Absent in normal CSF (only enters with BBB disruption, e.g., trauma/infection).
c) Haptoglobin → Minimal presence (unless hemorrhage occurs).
d) Transthyretin (prealbumin) → Synthesized in the choroid plexus but is a minor component (~10% of CSF proteins).
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Where is cerebrospinal fluid primarily produced?
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is primarily produced by the choroid plexus , a specialized structure in the ventricles of the brain , because:
Location : Found in the lateral, third, and fourth ventricles .
Function : Actively secretes CSF (~500 mL/day) via selective filtration of blood plasma and ion transport (e.g., Na+/K+ pumps).
Why Not the Others? a) Subarachnoid space → CSF circulates here but is not produced there.
b) Ependymal lining → Lines ventricles but does not produce CSF.
d) Spinal cord → No CSF production (CSF flows around the cord).
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Which of the following CSF findings is consistent with cryptococcal meningitis?
Cryptococcal meningitis (caused by Cryptococcus neoformans ) typically shows:
Low CSF glucose (due to fungal glycolysis).
High protein (inflammatory blood-brain barrier disruption).
Positive India ink stain (detects encapsulated yeast) or CRAG test (cryptococcal antigen).
Why Not Other Options? b) High glucose, low protein → Contradicts fungal infection (expect low glucose, high protein ).
c) Normal glucose/protein, negative stains → Rules out cryptococcosis.
d) High glucose, low WBC → Suggests non-infectious cause (e.g., CNS lymphoma).
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Which method is used to evaluate blood-brain barrier integrity?
The albumin index (CSF albumin/serum albumin ratio) is the standard method to assess blood-brain barrier (BBB) integrity :
Formula : Albumin index=CSF albumin (mg/dL)Serum albumin (g/dL) Albumin index = Serum albumin (g/dL) CSF albumin (mg/dL)
Normal : <9 (indicating intact BBB).
Elevated : ≥9 suggests BBB disruption (e.g., meningitis, MS, stroke, or tumors).
Why Not the Others? a) CSF protein electrophoresis → Detects oligoclonal bands (intrathecal IgG synthesis), not BBB integrity.
c) IgG index → Measures CNS antibody production (e.g., in MS), not barrier leakage.
d) CSF lactate → Reflects anaerobic metabolism (e.g., bacterial meningitis/ischemia), unrelated to BBB.
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Amniocentesis should be performed to:
Amniocentesis is an invasive prenatal diagnostic procedure that involves extracting amniotic fluid for testing. One of its key indications is to confirm abnormal maternal serum screening results , particularly:
Why Not the Other Options? a) Determine gestational age → Incorrect. Gestational age is best determined via ultrasound , not amniocentesis.
c) Measure bilirubin levels for an Rh-positive mother → Incorrect. Bilirubin in amniotic fluid (ΔOD450) is measured in Rh-negative mothers (not Rh-positive) to assess fetal hemolysis in erythroblastosis fetalis .
d) Determine folic acid concentration → Incorrect. Folic acid levels are not routinely measured in amniotic fluid; they are assessed via maternal blood tests .
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Which body cavity is associated with the production and circulation of pleural fluid?
Pleural fluid is produced and circulates in the thoracic cavity , specifically within the pleural space (between the visceral and parietal pleurae ), because:
Function :
Production/absorption :
Why Not the Others? a) Abdominal cavity → Contains peritoneal fluid (not pleural fluid).
b) Pericardial cavity → Holds pericardial fluid (around the heart).
d) Pelvic cavity → Contains organs but no major fluid-filled spaces .
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Which synovial fluid characteristic supports a diagnosis of gout?
The definitive diagnosis of gout requires identifying monosodium urate (MSU) crystals in synovial fluid, which:
Appear as needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals under polarized light.
Are pathognomonic for gout, regardless of serum uric acid levels.
Why Not the Others? a) CPPD crystals → Indicate pseudogout (rhomboid, positively birefringent).
b) Yellow-green color → Nonspecific (may occur in infection or inflammation).
d) High viscosity → Seen in non-inflammatory effusions (e.g., osteoarthritis).
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A green-colored amniotic fluid is received in the laboratory for testing. The color of this specimen indicates the presence of:
Green-colored amniotic fluid is most commonly caused by the presence of meconium , the fetus’s first stool. This indicates:
Fetal distress (e.g., hypoxia or stress during labor).
Possible meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS) if inhaled by the newborn.
Why Not the Others? a) Blood → Amniotic fluid appears red/brown (acute or old hemorrhage, respectively).
b) Bilirubin → Causes dark yellow fluid (e.g., in hemolytic disease of the newborn).
d) Hemoglobin → Suggests hemolysis but typically results in pink/red (fresh) or brown (old) discoloration.
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An acholic or pale/clay-colored stool is characteristic of:
Acholich (pale, clay-colored) stools occur due to the absence of bile pigments (stercobilin) , which normally give stool its brown color. This is most characteristic of:
Post-hepatobiliary obstruction (e.g., gallstones, tumors, or biliary atresia) → Bile cannot reach the intestines, leading to lack of bilirubin conversion to stercobilin .
Other causes : Severe liver disease (e.g., hepatitis) or biliary strictures.
Why Not the Other Options? a) Steatorrhea → Causes greasy, foul-smelling stools (due to fat malabsorption) but not necessarily pale color.
b) Maldigestion → Leads to fatty stools (similar to steatorrhea) but color depends on bile flow.
c) Malabsorption syndrome → May cause bulky, fatty stools , but acholia is specific to bile flow obstruction .
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A xanthochromic CSF specimen is centrifuged resulting in a pink-colored supernatant. This indicates presence of:
A pink-colored supernatant in a xanthochromic (discolored) cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) specimen after centrifugation indicates the presence of free hemoglobin in the fluid.
This typically occurs due to lysis of red blood cells , which can result from:
Color indications in xanthochromia: Why not the other options? a) Bilirubin gives a yellow tint, not pink.
c) Red blood cells would be pelleted during centrifugation, not in the supernatant.
d) Methemoglobin produces a brown discoloration, not pink.
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What CSF finding is most indicative of tuberculous meningitis?
Tuberculous (TB) meningitis typically presents with the following CSF findings:
High protein (often >100 mg/dL ) due to inflammatory blood-brain barrier disruption.
Low glucose (CSF/serum ratio <0.5 ) because Mycobacterium tuberculosis consumes glucose and triggers glycolysis.
Lymphocytic pleocytosis (WBCs 50–500/μL , predominantly lymphocytes ).
Why Not Other Options? a) Decreased protein & increased glucose → Opposite of TB meningitis (suggests contamination or error).
b) Increased chloride & decreased WBCs → Nonspecific; chloride is rarely diagnostically useful in CSF.
d) Normal glucose & low WBCs → Rules out TB meningitis (expect low glucose + elevated WBCs ).
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What is the diagnostic significance of the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG)?
The serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is a key diagnostic tool used to classify the cause of ascites (peritoneal fluid accumulation) into two main categories :
High SAAG (≥1.1 g/dL) → Portal hypertension-related causes (e.g., cirrhosis, congestive heart failure, alcoholic hepatitis).
Low SAAG (<1.1 g/dL) → Non-portal hypertension causes (e.g., peritoneal carcinomatosis, tuberculosis peritonitis, nephrotic syndrome).
Why not the other options? b) Determines glucose imbalance → Incorrect, as glucose levels are assessed separately (low in infections like SBP).
c) Measures protein leakage → Partially related, but total protein and SAAG are distinct (SAAG focuses on albumin difference).
d) Assesses hemolysis → No direct relevance; hemolysis is evaluated via LDH and bilirubin in fluid analysis.
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Which body fluid test helps diagnose pancreatitis?
Peritoneal fluid lipase is the most specific test to diagnose pancreatitis-related ascites (pancreatic ascites):
Lipase levels in peritoneal fluid are markedly elevated (often >1,000 U/L) in pancreatitis due to leakage of pancreatic enzymes into the peritoneal cavity.
This contrasts with serum lipase , which is elevated in acute pancreatitis but does not confirm peritoneal involvement.
Why Not the Others? a) CSF glucose → Relevant for CNS infections (e.g., meningitis), not pancreatitis.
c) Pleural fluid pH → Used for parapneumonic effusions (e.g., empyema), not pancreatic disease.
d) Synovial fluid uric acid → Diagnoses gout (not pancreatitis).
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Synovial fluid is secreted by which of the following structures?
Synovial fluid is secreted by the synovial membrane (a specialized connective tissue lining joint cavities) because:
Function :
Mechanism :
Why Not the Others? a) Bone marrow → Produces blood cells, not synovial fluid.
b) Cartilage → Absorbs synovial fluid but does not secrete it.
d) Joint capsule → Encapsulates the joint but does not produce fluid.
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Which of the following fluids functions to reduce friction between organs during movement?
Pleural fluid reduces friction between the lungs and chest wall during respiration by:
Lubricating the visceral and parietal pleurae.
Maintaining negative pressure in the pleural space, ensuring smooth lung expansion/contraction.
Why Not the Others? a) CSF → Cushions the brain/spinal cord , not friction reduction.
c) Synovial fluid → Lubricates joints , not organs.
d) Seminal fluid → Transports sperm, unrelated to organ movement.
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Evaluation of sperm morphology is performed by staining an air-dried smear with Wright, Giemsa, or Papanicolaou stain and evaluating 200 sperm using:
Sperm morphology evaluation requires high-resolution microscopy (1000x magnification with oil immersion) to:
Accurately assess structural details :
Head defects (e.g., vacuoles, tapered shapes).
Midpiece/tail defects (e.g., coiled, absent).
Meet WHO standards : ≥200 sperm are counted for statistical reliability.
Why Not the Others? Key Point: Staining methods :
WHO criteria :
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Which CSF test is best to differentiate between bacterial and viral meningitis?
CSF lactate is the most reliable single test to differentiate bacterial from viral meningitis:
Why Not the Others? a) Chloride concentration → Nonspecific; may be low in TB meningitis but not useful for acute bacterial vs. viral differentiation .
b) Cell count → Neutrophils dominate in bacterial , lymphocytes in viral—but early viral meningitis can show neutrophils, and partially treated bacterial may show lymphocytes.
d) Total protein → Elevated in both (bacterial > viral), but overlap exists .
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Which physical characteristic of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is most commonly used to detect the presence of blood contamination or subarachnoid hemorrhage?
The color of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is the most commonly assessed physical characteristic to detect blood contamination or subarachnoid hemorrhage. Normally, CSF is clear and colorless. The presence of blood (due to trauma or hemorrhage) may cause a xanthochromic (yellowish) appearance after centrifugation (due to hemoglobin breakdown) or a visibly pink/red hue if fresh blood is present.
a) Viscosity – CSF viscosity is not routinely assessed for detecting blood.
b) Clarity – While clarity may change (cloudy CSF can indicate infection), color is more specific for blood.
d) Volume – CSF volume is not used to diagnose hemorrhage.
Thus, color is the key indicator for blood or hemorrhage in CSF analysis.
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Elevated CSF protein without a corresponding increase in WBC count is most consistent with:
Elevated CSF protein without increased WBCs (albuminocytologic dissociation) is classic for spinal blockage (e.g., due to a tumor or herniated disc), where:
Protein rises (due to reduced CSF flow and stasis, causing protein accumulation).
WBCs remain normal (no infection/inflammation).
Why Not the Others? a) Traumatic tap → Blood contaminates CSF, elevating both protein and RBCs (WBCs may adjust for blood contamination).
b) Viral meningitis → Elevated WBCs (lymphocytes) + mild protein increase.
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Myelin basic protein is most commonly measured in CSF to evaluate the effectiveness of treatment for:
Myelin basic protein (MBP) is a marker of demyelination and is most commonly measured in CSF to:
Monitor disease activity in multiple sclerosis (MS) during treatment.
Assess acute demyelinating episodes (e.g., MS relapses or acute disseminated encephalomyelitis).
Why Not the Others? a) Viral encephalitis → CSF shows lymphocytic pleocytosis but MBP is not routinely measured.
c) Bacterial meningitis → Diagnosed by culture/PCR ; MBP is irrelevant.
d) Intracranial hemorrhage → Evaluated by xanthochromia/RBCs , not MBP.
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Which of the following stains is commonly used to evaluate sperm viability?
The eosin-nigrosin stain is the most common method to assess sperm viability :
Live sperm (with intact membranes) exclude eosin and appear white/clear .
Dead sperm (with damaged membranes) take up eosin and stain pink/red .
Nigrosin provides a dark background for contrast.
Why Not the Others? a) Wright stain → Used for blood cells, not sperm viability.
c) Toluidine blue → Detects nuclear chromatin abnormalities (e.g., sperm DNA fragmentation), not membrane integrity.
d) Papanicolaou (Pap) stain → Evaluates sperm morphology (e.g., head defects) but not viability.
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Three tubes of cerebrospinal fluid are collected, labeled, and transported to the laboratory for immediate testing. Tube 1 is reported as light pink and clear with 50,000 RBC/μL and 48 WBC/μL. Tube 3 is reported as colorless and clear with 10 RBC/μL and 0 WBC/μL. The most likely explanation for the difference in results is that:
The marked difference in RBC/WBC counts between Tube 1 (50,000 RBC/μL, 48 WBC/μL) and Tube 3 (10 RBC/μL, 0 WBC/μL) strongly suggests:
Traumatic tap (peripheral blood contamination) :
Tube 1 : Contaminated with blood from the LP procedure (high RBCs, slight WBC elevation from peripheral blood).
Tube 3 : Reflects true CSF (minimal RBCs/WBCs).
Expected clearance : RBCs/WBCs decrease across tubes in traumatic taps (unlike subarachnoid hemorrhage, where counts are uniform ).
Why Not the Others? a) Tube 3 is QNS (quantity not sufficient) → Doesn’t explain the high RBCs in Tube 1.
b) Tube 1 is centrifuged → Centrifugation wouldn’t increase RBCs/WBCs.
c) Mislabeling → Unlikely without evidence (e.g., mismatched labels).
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Which of the following best describes the function of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) serves two primary functions:
Mechanical cushioning : Acts as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord, protecting against trauma.
Metabolic waste removal : Clears toxins and byproducts (e.g., β-amyloid) via the glymphatic system .
Additional Roles: Nutrient delivery : Supplies glucose, electrolytes, and proteins to both brain and spinal cord (not just the spinal cord, as in option b).
Homeostasis : Maintains stable CNS pressure and ionic balance.
Why Not the Others? a) Immune responses → CSF lacks robust immune activity (CNS immunity relies on microglia).
b) Spinal cord only → Incorrect; CSF nourishes the entire CNS .
d) Blood glucose → Systemic glucose is regulated by liver/pancreas , not CSF.
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Which chemical parameter is evaluated in seminal fluid to assess prostate function?
Fructose in seminal fluid is produced by the seminal vesicles , but its presence and concentration indirectly reflect prostate function because:
Prostate secretions (which contribute to semen volume and quality) are necessary for normal fructose metabolism and ejaculate composition.
Low fructose may indicate obstruction (e.g., ejaculatory duct obstruction) or seminal vesicle dysfunction , often associated with prostate issues.
Why Not the Others? a) Glucose → Not a standard seminal fluid analyte.
c) Albumin → Nonspecific; present in many body fluids but not used for prostate assessment.
d) Uric acid → Relevant for gout/crystal arthritis , not semen analysis.
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Which synovial fluid analyte is increased in gout?
In gout , synovial fluid shows:
Elevated uric acid (due to supersaturation of monosodium urate crystals).
Needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals under polarized microscopy.
High neutrophil count (inflammatory response).
Why Not the Others? a) Cholesterol → Seen in chronic effusions (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis) but not specific to gout.
c) Glucose → Typically normal in gout (low in septic arthritis).
d) Sodium → No diagnostic role in gout.
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A paired fasting plasma specimen is collected at the same time an arthrocentesis is performed. The difference in glucose concentrations between the fluids is reported as 55 mg/dL. This result indicates a(an):
A glucose difference of 55 mg/dL between plasma and synovial fluid strongly indicates inflammation (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis, gout, or reactive arthritis) because:
Inflammatory cells (WBCs) consume glucose, lowering synovial fluid levels.
Normal difference : <10 mg/dL (synovial glucose ≈ plasma glucose).
Inflammatory difference : >20 mg/dL (55 mg/dL is markedly elevated).
Why Not the Others? a) Septic condition → While septic arthritis also lowers glucose , the key distinction is WBC count >50,000/μL + positive cultures . This result alone doesn’t confirm infection.
c) Hemorrhagic condition → Blood in the joint (trauma/hemophilia) does not affect glucose .
d) Noninflammatory condition (e.g., osteoarthritis) → Glucose difference remains <10 mg/dL .
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Decreased fructose levels in semen may indicate:
Decreased fructose in semen most commonly indicates ejaculatory duct obstruction or seminal vesicle dysfunction , because:
Fructose is produced by the seminal vesicles and is a key energy source for sperm.
Obstruction (e.g., due to cysts, inflammation, or congenital absence) blocks fructose secretion into semen.
Why Not the Others? a) Epididymitis → May affect sperm motility/morphology but does not reduce fructose .
c) Prostate hypertrophy (BPH) → Does not directly alter fructose (prostate contributes zinc/acid phosphatase , not fructose).
d) Hypogonadism → Low testosterone may reduce semen volume but fructose remains normal unless seminal vesicles are impaired.
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Which CSF analyte is most specific for the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis?
The IgG index is the most specific CSF analyte for multiple sclerosis (MS) because it detects intrathecal IgG synthesis , a hallmark of MS. It is calculated as:
IgG index=CSF IgG / CSF albuminSerum IgG / Serum albumin IgG index = Serum IgG / Serum albumin CSF IgG / CSF albumin
Why Not the Others? a) Protein → May be mildly elevated in MS but is nonspecific (also high in infections, Guillain-Barré, etc.).
c) Glucose → Normal in MS (low in infections like bacterial meningitis).
d) Lactate → Normal in MS (elevated in ischemia, mitochondrial disorders, or severe infections).
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Which of the following is a common artifact that may mimic cells in body fluid smears?
Talc powder (from gloves or specimen containers) is a common artifact in body fluid smears because:
It appears as irregular, birefringent particles under microscopy, resembling cells or crystals .
Unlike true cells, talc lacks nuclei and has a geometric, angular shape .
Why Not the Others? a) Crystals (e.g., urate, cholesterol) → Authentic findings (not artifacts).
b) Fungi (e.g., Candida ) → True pathogens, not contaminants.
c) Bacteria → May be pathogenic or contaminants but do not mimic cells.
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An accumulation of fluid in a body cavity is referred to as a(an):
Effusion refers to the accumulation of fluid in a body cavity (e.g., pleural, peritoneal, or pericardial spaces).
It is a broad term that includes both transudates (due to systemic factors like heart failure or cirrhosis) and exudates (due to inflammation, infection, or malignancy).
Why Not the Other Options? b) Exudate and c) Transudate are types of effusions , but they describe the fluid’s specific characteristics (e.g., protein content, LDH levels) rather than the general accumulation.
d) Metastasis refers to the spread of cancer , which may cause an effusion but is not synonymous with fluid accumulation.
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Three tubes of CSF are collected, labeled, and sent to the laboratory for testing. Which tube should be used for chemical analyses, including glucose and total protein?
For CSF chemical tests (glucose, protein) , tube 2 (middle tube) is preferred because:
Minimizes contamination risk :
Ensures accuracy : Tube 2 best represents true CSF composition without procedural artifacts.
Standard CSF Collection Order: Tube 1 : Microbiology (Gram stain, culture).
Tube 2 : Chemistry/serology (glucose, protein, etc.).
Tube 3 : Hematology (cell count, differential).
Tube 4 (if collected): Special tests (e.g., PCR, cytology).
Why Not the Others? a) Tube 1 → Risk of blood/tissue contamination (may falsely elevate protein/RBCs).
c) Tube 3 → Needed for cell counts; glucose may degrade if delayed.
d) → Incorrect; these tests are routinely performed on CSF.
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pH determinations are clinically relevant for which of the following?
Pleural fluid pH is clinically significant in the following scenarios:
Parapneumonic effusions :
Esophageal rupture (Boerhaave syndrome) :
Why Not the Others? b) Synovial fluid → pH is not routinely measured (diagnosis relies on cell counts/crystals).
c) Pericardial fluid → pH is irrelevant; tamponade diagnosis depends on volume/hemodynamics .
d) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) → pH is not clinically useful (measured only in research).
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An increased CSF IgG index indicates:
An elevated CSF IgG index (>0.7) indicates excess IgG production within the CNS , seen in:
Multiple sclerosis (MS) (most common cause).
Other inflammatory CNS diseases (e.g., neurosyphilis, HIV encephalitis).
Why Not the Others? a) Decreased antibody response → Incorrect; the IgG index reflects overproduction , not deficiency.
c) Metastatic tumor → May increase CSF protein but does not elevate the IgG index (no intrathecal synthesis).
d) Blood-brain barrier (BBB) damage → Assessed by the albumin index (CSF/serum albumin), not IgG index.
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If glucose testing cannot be performed immediately, CSF should be stored:
CSF for glucose testing should be refrigerated (2–8°C) if analysis is delayed because:
Glycolysis by WBCs/bacteria reduces glucose at ~5–10 mg/dL/hour at room temp .
Refrigeration slows glycolysis (but does not stop it entirely).
Optimal Handling: Process immediately (ideal).
If delayed ≤1 hour : Room temp is acceptable.
If delayed >1 hour : Refrigerate and analyze within 24 hours .
Why Not the Others? a) Room temperature → Accelerates glycolysis (false-low glucose).
c) Freezer (−20°C) → Causes cell lysis, invalidating cell counts.
d) Incubator (37°C) → Dramatically increases glycolysis.
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The presence of macrophages in CSF is associated with a:
The presence of macrophages in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is most characteristically associated with subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) . Here’s why:
Macrophages phagocytose RBCs and hemoglobin → After bleeding into the subarachnoid space, macrophages appear within 12–24 hours to clear red blood cell breakdown products (e.g., hemosiderin).
Hemosiderin-laden macrophages (“siderophages”) are a late sign (days to weeks post-bleed) and confirm previous hemorrhage .
Why Not the Other Options? a) Viral infection → Typically causes lymphocytic pleocytosis , not macrophages (unless chronic).
b) Bacterial infection → Predominantly neutrophilic pleocytosis ; macrophages may appear later but are not diagnostic.
d) Traumatic lumbar puncture → Introduces fresh RBCs but no macrophages unless bleeding was prior (unrelated to the procedure itself).
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A fluid sample is collected by thoracentesis and a paired serum sample is collected immediately afterward. The fluid-to-serum LD ratio is determined to be 0.9. This fluid would be categorized as a:
The fluid-to-serum lactate dehydrogenase (LD) ratio is a key component of Light’s criteria , which is used to classify pleural effusions as transudates or exudates .
Fluid-to-serum LD ratio >0.6 → Exudate (supports inflammatory, infectious, or malignant causes).
Fluid-to-serum LD ratio ≤0.6 → Transudate (due to systemic factors like heart failure or cirrhosis).
In this case:
Ratio = 0.9 (>0.6) → Exudate .
Since the fluid was collected by thoracentesis , it is a pleural effusion (not pericardial or peritoneal).
Why Not the Other Options? b) Pleural transudate → Incorrect, because the LD ratio is >0.6.
c) Pericardial exudate → Incorrect, the fluid is from the pleural space (thoracentesis).
d) Peritoneal transudate → Incorrect, this would apply to ascites, not pleural fluid.
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Which of the following results reported for a seminal fluid would be considered abnormal?
According to WHO semen analysis guidelines (2021) , the normal reference ranges are:
Volume : ≥1.5 mL (abnormal if <1.5 mL , as in this case).
pH : ≥7.2 (7.5 is normal).
Liquefaction time : <60 minutes (30 minutes is normal).
Appearance : Gray-white, opalescent/translucent (normal).
Why the Other Options Are Normal: a) pH 7.5 → Normal (range: 7.2–8.0 ).
c) Liquefaction in 30 min → Normal (should occur within <60 min ).
d) Gray-white, translucent → Expected healthy appearance.
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Which condition is most commonly associated with increased neutrophils in CSF?
Bacterial meningitis typically causes a marked increase in neutrophils (often >1,000 cells/μL) in the CSF due to acute bacterial infection.
This is part of the inflammatory response to pyogenic bacteria (e.g., Streptococcus pneumoniae , Neisseria meningitidis ).
Why Not Other Options? a) Viral meningitis → Usually causes lymphocytic pleocytosis (neutrophils may be elevated early but shift to lymphocytes within 24–48 hours).
c) Multiple sclerosis → May show mild lymphocytosis but not neutrophils.
d) Subarachnoid hemorrhage → Can cause neutrophilic pleocytosis , but this is secondary to RBC breakdown (not as pronounced as in bacterial meningitis).
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Results from a CSF cell differential for an adult patient suspected of having meningitis are listed in the table:
Test
Result
Neutrophils
3%
Lymphocytes
62%
Monocytes
23%
Eosinophils
12%
These results suggest:
The CSF cell differential shows:
Lymphocytic predominance (62%) → Suggests chronic or non-bacterial infection .
Elevated eosinophils (12%) → Highly indicative of fungal (e.g., Cryptococcus) or parasitic meningitis .
Low neutrophils (3%) → Rules out acute bacterial meningitis.
Why Not the Other Options? a) Viral meningitis → Typically shows lymphocytosis (80–100%) with no eosinophils .
c) Bacterial meningitis → Expect neutrophilic predominance (>80%) , not lymphocytes/eosinophils.
d) Tubercular meningitis → Usually shows mixed lymphocytosis/monocytosis but rarely eosinophils
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Acetylcholinesterase activity may be measured on amniotic fluid when a positive alpha-fetoprotein result is obtained to evaluate for:
When amniotic fluid alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is elevated, acetylcholinesterase (AChE) testing is performed as a confirmatory test for open neural tube defects (ONTDs) , such as:
Key Points: AFP is nonspecific (can be elevated in other conditions like abdominal wall defects).
AChE is specific to neural tissue → Its presence in amniotic fluid confirms ONTDs (as it leaks from exposed fetal neural tissue).
Why Not the Other Options? a) Fetal lung maturity → Assessed via L/S ratio or lamellar body count , not AFP/AChE.
c) Respiratory distress syndrome → Evaluated by surfactant tests , unrelated to AFP/AChE.
d) Hemolytic disease of the newborn → Monitored via ΔOD450 bilirubin , not AChE.
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Qualitative methods used as screening tests for cystic fibrosis employ:
Screening tests for cystic fibrosis (CF) primarily measure chloride concentration in sweat , as elevated sweat chloride (>60 mmol/L) is diagnostic for CF.
Why Not the Other Options? b) Immunoassay → Used for protein/hormone detection (e.g., CFTR protein analysis), not sweat chloride screening.
c) Nephelometry → Measures protein/antibody complexes (e.g., immunoglobulins), irrelevant for CF screening.
d) Spectrophotometry → Used for bilirubin/hemoglobin analysis , not chloride.
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Which of the following results would be associated with malabsorption syndrome?
Malabsorption syndrome is characterized by the impaired absorption of nutrients , including fats, due to conditions like celiac disease, chronic pancreatitis, or small bowel disease . Key laboratory findings include:
Steatorrhea (increased fecal fat) → >7 grams of fat per 24 hours (qualitative Sudan stain or quantitative fecal fat test).
Other findings : Low serum carotene, vitamin deficiencies (A, D, E, K), and abnormal D-xylose absorption test.
Why Not the Other Options? b) Positive fecal lactoferrin → Indicates neutrophilic inflammation (e.g., IBD, infectious colitis), not malabsorption.
c) Positive fecal occult blood → Suggests GI bleeding (e.g., ulcers, cancer), unrelated to fat absorption.
d) Negative fecal calprotectin → Rules out intestinal inflammation but does not diagnose malabsorption.
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Which fluid plays a key role in cushioning the brain and spinal cord?
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord , providing cushioning, protection, and nutrient exchange . It helps absorb shocks and maintain stable pressure within the central nervous system.
The other fluids have different functions:
a) Synovial fluid → Lubricates joints.
b) Seminal fluid → Contains sperm for reproduction.
d) Pericardial fluid → Cushions the heart within the pericardium.
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If amniotic fluid is to be collected for fetal lung maturity testing, amniocentesis should be performed at:
Fetal lung maturity testing is performed in the third trimester (typically 30–42 weeks ) because:
Surfactant production (critical for lung function) begins at ~24 weeks but reaches adequate levels only after 30 weeks .
Tests like L/S ratio (lecithin/sphingomyelin) or phosphatidylglycerol (PG) detect surfactant in amniotic fluid to assess readiness for birth.
Why Not Earlier Gestation? a) 1–5 weeks / b) 6–10 weeks → Too early; lungs undeveloped.
c) 14–18 weeks → Used for genetic testing (e.g., karyotyping), not lung maturity.
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Amniotic fluid may be tested to determine the concentration of lamellar bodies to evaluate for:
Lamellar bodies are phospholipid-rich storage forms of pulmonary surfactant secreted by fetal type II pneumocytes into the amniotic fluid. Their concentration in amniotic fluid serves as a direct marker of fetal lung maturity :
High lamellar body count (LBC) → Indicates sufficient surfactant production , suggesting mature lungs (reduced risk of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome/NRDS).
Low LBC → Suggests lung immaturity , increasing the risk of NRDS if delivery occurs.
Why Not the Other Options? b) Neural tube defects → Diagnosed via amniotic fluid alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) and acetylcholinesterase , not lamellar bodies.
c) Erythroblastosis fetalis → Assessed via amniotic fluid bilirubin levels (ΔOD450) in Rh incompatibility.
d) Congenital birth defects → Screened via genetic testing (karyotyping, PCR) or AFP , not surfactant markers.
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A positive amine or “whiff” test on a vaginal secretion most likely indicates:
A positive amine (“whiff”) test —a fishy odor released when 10% KOH is added to vaginal secretions—is a key diagnostic feature of bacterial vaginosis (BV) . This odor is caused by:
Volatile amines (e.g., trimethylamine) produced by anaerobic bacteria (e.g., Gardnerella vaginalis , Mobiluncus spp.).
Why Not the Others? a) Candidiasis → No amine odor; typically presents with curd-like discharge and itching.
b) Trichomoniasis → May have a foul odor but is not KOH-dependent (diagnosed via wet mount for motile trichomonads).
d) A sexually-transmitted infection (STI) → Too broad; BV is a dysbiosis , not a classic STI.
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To avoid falsely elevated cerebrospinal fluid cell counts, use an aliquot:
To minimize false elevation of CSF cell counts due to traumatic tap (blood contamination), use the last tube collected because:
Procedural blood clears with sequential tubes (RBCs decrease from tube 1 → tube 4).
WBC correction : If blood is present, subtract 1 WBC per 1,000 RBCs to estimate true CSF WBCs.
Why Not the Others? a) Centrifuged aliquot → Removes cells, making counts impossible.
b) First tube collected → Most likely contaminated with blood/tissue from the LP procedure.
d) Glacial acetic acid → Lyses RBCs but also lyses WBCs , invalidating counts.
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