Prepare for the ASCP Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Certification Exam with 60 free practice questions focused on Quality Assessment and Troubleshooting (Section I of the BOC Exam Outline). These multiple-choice questions (MCQs) cover critical topics like preanalytical errors, quality control (QC), regulatory compliance (CLIA, HIPAA), method validation, and laboratory safety protocols. Each question includes detailed rationales to reinforce key concepts and test-taking strategies.
Key Features of This Practice Set:
- Comprehensive Coverage
- Preanalytical/Analytical/Postanalytical errors
- Levy-Jennings charts & Westgard rules
- Proficiency testing (PT) requirements
- Instrument troubleshooting
- Exam-Focused Rationales
- Explanations reference CLSI, CAP, and OSHA standards
- Highlights high-yield topics from the ASCP BOC blueprint
- Real-World Scenarios
- Case-based questions on:
- Urine specimen rejection criteria
- Blood gas analyzer failures
- Critical value reporting delays
- Case-based questions on:
- Regulatory Knowledge
- CLIA test complexity classifications
- HIPAA patient data protections
- OSHA chemical hygiene plans
MCQs 01 – 60
- Which pre-collection factor impacts specimen validity?
A. Analytical instrument calibration
B. Patient identification protocol
C. Post-test data archiving
D. Reagent storage temperature - Vigorous shaking of blood tubes may cause:
A. Lipemia
B. Hemolysis
C. Clotting
D. Fibrinolysis - Urine culture acceptability after 7-hour storage requires:
A. Room temperature placement
B. Freezing at -20°C
C. Refrigeration at 4-7°C
D. Preservative additives - Delayed urinalysis beyond 1 hour risks false increases in:
A. Urobilinogen
B. Glucose
C. Ketones
D. Specific gravity - A Levy-Jennings QC point beyond ±2SD should first be:
A. Averaged with previous data
B. Repeated with fresh control material
C. Excluded as outlier
D. Corrected via recalibration - ±2SD control limits represent what probability range?
A. 50% of values
B. 75% of values
C. 95% of values
D. 99% of values - Instrument calibration verification requires:
A. Testing patient samples across reportable ranges
B. Comparing two independent methodologies
C. Using expired control materials
D. Single-point pre-use checks - IQCP (Individualized QC Plan) core components exclude:
A. Risk assessment
B. Reagent lot validation
C. QC strategy design
D. Performance monitoring - Critical value communication failures are classified as:
A. Preanalytical errors
B. Analytical errors
C. Postanalytical errors
D. Phlebotomy errors - Delta checks primarily monitor:
A. Instrument precision
B. Patient result consistency
C. Reagent stability
D. Staff competency
- Constant bias in method comparisons indicates:
A. Random measurement scatter
B. Proportional error at all concentrations
C. Unacceptable correlation
D. Optimal agreement - Bichromatic analysis reduces interference by:
A. Using two wavelengths simultaneously
B. Doubling sample incubation time
C. Testing duplicate aliquots
D. Diluting specimens 1:2 - CLIA test complexity categorization is performed by:
A. Laboratory director
B. FDA
C. CDC
D. CAP - HIPAA mandates protection of:
A. Instrument maintenance logs
B. Electronic patient health data
C. QC validation records
D. Staff training certificates - Proficiency testing (PT) samples must not be:
A. Tested during routine workflow
B. Shared between CLIA-certified labs
C. Processed by senior technologists
D. Repeated if out of range - Urine culture after urinalysis requires:
A. Centrifugation and supernatant culture
B. Immediate rejection if delayed
C. Refrigeration prior to plating
D. Nitrate positivity confirmation - First response to QC failure is:
A. Repeat patient testing
B. Halt test reporting
C. Review PT performance
D. Adjust control limits - Blood gas analyzer failure for all parameters warrants:
A. Electrode replacement
B. Immediate recalibration
C. Control material repetition
D. Shift deferral - Primary POCT advantage is:
A. Lower reagent costs
B. Reduced training requirements
C. Faster result availability
D. Higher analytical sensitivity - Microassay benefits include:
A. Enhanced diagnostic specificity
B. Smaller specimen volumes
C. Fewer repeat analyses
D. Longer reagent stability - Specimen stability studies must assess:
A. Reagent expiration dates
B. Centrifugation timing variables
C. Instrument throughput rates
D. Staff shift schedules - Procedure manuals must include:
A. Reagent storage locations
B. Test interpretation criteria
C. Employee shift rotations
D. Budget allocation details - QNS (Quantity Not Sufficient) specimens represent:
A. Postanalytical error
B. Preanalytical error
C. Analytical error
D. Reporting error - Hemoglobin delta check: Monday=11.3 g/dL, Tuesday=11.8 g/dL (SD±0.2 g/dL). Interpretation:
A. Lab error likely
B. Poor precision
C. Requires repeat
D. Clinically insignificant - Clean-catch urine processing priority:
A. Perform urinalysis first
B. Culture immediately
C. Refrigerate both aliquots
D. Centrifuge for supernatant - OSHA’s Chemical Hygiene Plan requires:
A. Semi-annual formaldehyde monitoring
B. Designated chemical safety officer
C. Prohibition of carcinogens
D. Monthly fume hood checks - Unlabeled secondary chemical containers:
A. Require full hazard warnings
B. Need emergency contact numbers
C. Are exempt if used immediately
D. Must match original labels - Incompatible chemical storage pair:
A. Acetone/Xylene
B. Ethanol/Acetone
C. Ammonia/Chlorine
D. Sodium/Potassium - Xylene waste disposal requires:
A. Sink drainage with dilution
B. Open-air evaporation
C. Biohazard bag disposal
D. EPA-licensed hauler - Chemical exposure symptom response:
A. Self-treat with antidotes
B. Consult SDS independently
C. Report to supervisor
D. Continue work if mild
- Employer-covered medical evaluations occur:
A. During employee vacation
B. On work time without pay loss
C. Via personal insurance
D. After 3 incident reports - Chemical exposure retesting is triggered by:
A. Annual facility audits
B. Procedure/equipment changes
C. Quarterly inspections
D. New employee training - Formaldehyde spill response priority:
A. Contain with absorbent
B. Evacuate area
C. Notify emergency services
D. Don PPE - “Danger” signage indicates:
A. General caution
B. Immediate hazard
C. Biohazard presence
D. Fire equipment location - Fire prevention mandates:
A. Monthly announced drills
B. Single-exit labs for flammables
C. Pre-operation hazard checks
D. Unobstructed corridors - Electrical fire response after alarm activation:
A. Extinguish with water
B. Evacuate facility
C. Close compartment doors
D. Disconnect power mains - Chemical eye exposure first aid:
A. Neutralize with pH solution
B. Bandage and seek help
C. 15-minute water flush
D. Apply antibiotic ointment - Acid skin decontamination after clothing removal:
A. Apply baking soda paste
B. Safety shower rinse
C. Seek immediate help
D. Use chemical wipes - Specimen rejection criteria documentation location:
A. QC charts
B. Procedure manuals
C. Incident reports
D. Training records - Auto-verification requires all EXCEPT:
A. Validated LIS rules
B. Technologist review
C. Prior acceptable QC
D. Instrument interfacing - LIS validation frequency for calculations:
A. Every 6 months
B. Annually
C. Biennially
D. Post-installation only - Unavailable PT material alternative:
A. Repeat prior PT
B. Use another lab’s samples
C. Implement AAP
D. Waive testing - ASR (Analyte-Specific Reagent) reporting requires:
A. FDA clearance statement
B. Medicare reimbursement codes
C. Manufacturer performance data
D. Lab-developed test disclaimer - False Claims Act prohibits:
A. Unintentional billing errors
B. Services not rendered
C. Test reflex algorithms
D. Ordering provider audits - Biological specimen shipping regulations vary by:
A. DOT/IATA/USPS
B. OSHA/CLIA
C. CAP/TJC
D. FDA/CDC - Test validation must include:
A. Turnaround time studies
B. Staff satisfaction surveys
C. Reference intervals
D. Cost-per-test analysis - Precision verification method:
A. Comparison to reference method
B. Inter-laboratory sample exchange
C. Replicate same-sample testing
D. Linearity studies - Reference interval determination excludes:
A. Biological variability assessment
B. Age/sex stratification
C. 120+ reference subjects
D. Fixed limits for all analytes - Delta check application:
A. Reagent lot validation
B. Patient result trending
C. Staff competency
D. Temperature monitoring - Postanalytical error example:
A. Mislabeled collection tube
B. Incorrect test coding
C. Critical value call delay
D. Expired calibration
- Urine culture after prolonged refrigeration:
A. Requires chemical preservation
B. Acceptable if stored at 4°C
C. Must be rejected >4 hours
D. Needs centrifugation - ICD-10 codes relate to:
A. Test pricing
B. Diagnostic conditions
C. Lab accreditation
D. Methodology - CMS payment eligibility requires:
A. CAP accreditation
B. Current CLIA certificate
C. State licensure
D. HIPAA compliance - Prohibited PT practice:
A. Testing alongside patient samples
B. Submitting ungraded challenges
C. Sharing results pre-submission
D. Using alternate instruments - Refrigerator temperature documentation frequency:
A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Monthly
D. Quarterly - HIPAA violation example:
A. Unannounced inspection
B. Critical value documentation
C. Accessing friend’s results
D. PT sample exchange - Chemical hygiene officer responsibility:
A. Prohibits carcinogen use
B. Oversees safety protocols
C. Approves reagent orders
D. Performs exposure monitoring - Package insert usage:
A. Replaces lab procedures
B. Bench reference only
C. Requires director signature
D. Supplemental to manuals - POCT regulatory status:
A. Exempt from CLIA
B. Has reduced oversight
C. Follows central lab rules
D. Requires pathologist review - Recovery experiment formula:
A. (Spiked result – Baseline)/Added amount × 100
B. (Baseline – Spiked result)/Added amount × 100
C. Added amount/(Spiked result) × 100
D. (Spiked result)/Added amount × 100
Answer Key
Answer Key:
- B (Patient identification protocol)
- B (Hemolysis)
- C (Refrigeration at 4-7°C)
- D (Specific gravity)
- B (Repeated with fresh control material)
- C (95% of values)
- A (Testing patient samples across reportable ranges)
- B (Reagent lot validation)
- C (Postanalytical errors)
- B (Patient result consistency)
- B (Proportional error at all concentrations)
- A (Using two wavelengths simultaneously)
- B (FDA)
- B (Electronic patient health data)
- B (Shared between CLIA-certified labs)
- C (Refrigeration prior to plating)
- B (Halt test reporting)
- B (Immediate recalibration)
- C (Faster result availability)
- B (Smaller specimen volumes)
- B (Centrifugation timing variables)
- B (Test interpretation criteria)
- B (Preanalytical error)
- D (Clinically insignificant)
- B (Culture immediately)
- B (Designated chemical safety officer)
- C (Are exempt if used immediately)
- C (Ammonia/Chlorine)
- D (EPA-licensed hauler)
- C (Report to supervisor)
- B (On work time without pay loss)
- B (Procedure/equipment changes)
- B (Evacuate area)
- B (Immediate hazard)
- D (Unobstructed corridors)
- D (Disconnect power mains)
- C (15-minute water flush)
- B (Safety shower rinse)
- B (Procedure manuals)
- B (Technologist review)
- B (Annually)
- C (Implement AAP)
- D (Lab-developed test disclaimer)
- B (Services not rendered)
- A (DOT/IATA/USPS)
- C (Reference intervals)
- C (Replicate same-sample testing)
- D (Fixed limits for all analytes)
- B (Patient result trending)
- C (Critical value call delay)
- B (Acceptable if stored at 4°C)
- B (Diagnostic conditions)
- B (Current CLIA certificate)
- C (Sharing results pre-submission)
- A (Daily)
- C (Accessing friend’s results)
- B (Oversees safety protocols)
- D (Supplemental to manuals)
- B (Has reduced oversight)
- A ([Spiked result – Baseline]/Added amount × 100)
Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams:
Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams that are recognized globally and can help professionals validate their credentials and enhance their career opportunities:
1. ASCP – American Society for Clinical Pathology (USA)
- Exam Name: MLS(ASCP)
- Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree with clinical laboratory experience.
- Global Recognition: High
- Purpose: Certifies Medical Laboratory Scientists in the United States and internationally.
2. AMT – American Medical Technologists (USA)
- Exam Name: MLT(AMT) or MT(AMT)
- Eligibility: Academic and/or work experience in medical laboratory technology.
- Global Recognition: Moderate
- Purpose: Credentialing for medical technologists and technicians.
3. AIMS – Australian Institute of Medical and Clinical Scientists
- Exam Name: AIMS Certification Exam
- Eligibility: Assessment of qualifications and work experience.
- Recognition: Required for practice in Australia.
- Purpose: Certification and registration in Australia.
4. CSMLS – Canadian Society for Medical Laboratory Science
- Exam Name: CSMLS General or Subject-specific Exams
- Eligibility: Graduation from a CSMLS-accredited program or equivalent.
- Recognition: Canada
- Purpose: Entry-to-practice certification in Canada.
5. IBMS – Institute of Biomedical Science (UK)
- Exam Name: Registration and Specialist Portfolio Assessment
- Eligibility: Accredited degree and lab experience.
- Recognition: UK and some Commonwealth countries.
- Purpose: Biomedical Scientist registration with the HCPC (UK).
6. HAAD / DOH – Department of Health, Abu Dhabi (UAE)
- Exam Name: DOH/HAAD License Exam
- Eligibility: Degree in medical laboratory science and experience.
- Recognition: UAE (Abu Dhabi)
- Purpose: Licensure for medical laboratory practice in Abu Dhabi.
7. DHA – Dubai Health Authority (UAE)
- Exam Name: DHA License Exam for Medical Laboratory Technologists
- Eligibility: Relevant degree and experience.
- Recognition: Dubai, UAE
- Purpose: Professional license for clinical laboratory practice in Dubai.
8. MOH – Ministry of Health (Gulf Countries like UAE, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait)
- Exam Name: MOH License Exam
- Eligibility: BSc/Diploma in Medical Laboratory + experience.
- Recognition: Varies by country.
- Purpose: Required for practicing in public and private sector labs.
Tags:
#ASCPMLS #MLSexam #LabTech #MedicalLaboratory #BOCexam #FreePracticeQuestions #QualityControl #LaboratorySafety
