Preparing for the ASCP MLS (Medical Laboratory Scientist) exam requires a solid understanding of Immunology, Particularly the topic of diseases of the immune system. This section offers 100 multiple-choice practice questions in the form of a free practice exam to help you assess your knowledge and improve your preparation.
100 MCQs (2521-2620):
These questions (numbered 2521 to 2620) are a continuation of our previous series and follow the same format as the actual exam, making them a useful resource for review and practice.
- Which of the following is an example of a primary immunodeficiency?
a) AIDS
b) Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)
c) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
d) Rheumatoid arthritis - Which virus is responsible for causing acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
a) Epstein-Barr virus
b) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
c) Cytomegalovirus
d) Hepatitis B virus - Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into how many major types?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five - Which type of hypersensitivity involves IgE antibodies?
a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) Type IV - Anaphylaxis is an example of which hypersensitivity reaction?
a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) Type IV - Graves’ disease is classified as which type of immune disorder?
a) Immunodeficiency
b) Autoimmune disease
c) Hypersensitivity type I
d) Immunoproliferative disorder - Which organ is most affected in Myasthenia gravis?
a) Heart
b) Muscles
c) Kidney
d) Lungs - Which antibody is involved in hemolytic disease of the newborn?
a) IgA
b) IgE
c) IgG
d) IgM - Which disease results from the destruction of pancreatic beta cells by the immune system?
a) Diabetes insipidus
b) Type 1 Diabetes mellitus
c) Addison’s disease
d) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis - Which of the following is an example of a type II hypersensitivity reaction?
a) Serum sickness
b) Hemolytic anemia
c) Contact dermatitis
d) Asthma - Rheumatoid arthritis primarily affects which part of the body?
a) Kidneys
b) Lungs
c) Joints
d) Skin - The presence of anti-dsDNA antibodies is most diagnostic for which disease?
a) Rheumatoid arthritis
b) Multiple sclerosis
c) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
d) Sjögren’s syndrome - Which of the following is a secondary immunodeficiency?
a) Chronic granulomatous disease
b) Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia
c) AIDS
d) DiGeorge syndrome - Which immune cells are destroyed in HIV infection?
a) B cells
b) CD4+ T cells
c) NK cells
d) Neutrophils - Which test is used for diagnosis of HIV infection?
a) ELISA and Western blot
b) Hemagglutination test
c) Agglutination test
d) Coombs test - A tuberculin skin test is an example of which hypersensitivity?
a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) Type IV - Which immunodeficiency is caused by defective NADPH oxidase enzyme?
a) Bruton’s disease
b) Severe Combined Immunodeficiency
c) Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)
d) DiGeorge syndrome - Which type of hypersensitivity is mediated by immune complexes?
a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) Type IV - Hashimoto’s thyroiditis results in which condition?
a) Hypothyroidism
b) Hyperthyroidism
c) Addison’s disease
d) Cushing’s syndrome - Which autoimmune disease causes progressive demyelination in the CNS?
a) Multiple sclerosis
b) Myasthenia gravis
c) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Pernicious anemia - Pernicious anemia results from the destruction of cells producing which factor?
a) Growth hormone
b) Thyroxine
c) Intrinsic factor
d) Erythropoietin - Which of the following is an example of Type IV hypersensitivity?
a) Serum sickness
b) Contact dermatitis
c) Hemolytic anemia
d) Asthma - Which autoimmune disease is associated with anti-CCP antibodies?
a) Multiple sclerosis
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) SLE
d) Graves’ disease - Which autoimmune condition affects exocrine glands, leading to dry mouth and eyes?
a) Sjögren’s syndrome
b) SLE
c) Addison’s disease
d) Rheumatic fever - A genetic defect in the thymus development is seen in which disease?
a) SCID
b) DiGeorge syndrome
c) Bruton’s disease
d) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome - Which hypersensitivity reaction is also called delayed-type hypersensitivity?
a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) Type IV - In which autoimmune disease do antibodies target acetylcholine receptors?
a) Multiple sclerosis
b) Myasthenia gravis
c) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Graves’ disease - Which immune disorder is characterized by recurrent bacterial infections due to absence of B cells?
a) Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia
b) SCID
c) DiGeorge syndrome
d) HIV - Serum sickness is an example of which type of hypersensitivity?
a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) Type IV - Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome is associated with which triad of features?
a) Eczema, thrombocytopenia, recurrent infections
b) Arthritis, fever, anemia
c) Rash, nephritis, arthritis
d) Myopathy, neuropathy, rash - Hereditary angioedema is characterized by:
a) decreased activity of C3
b) decreased activity of C1 esterase inhibitor
c) increased activity of C1 esterase inhibitor
d) increased activity of C2 - Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) patients often have which of the following test results?
a) high titers of ANA
b) decreased serum immunoglobulin levels
c) high titers of anti-smooth muscle antibodies
d) high titers of anti-mitochondrial antibody - Which of the following is decreased in serum during the active stages of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
a) anti-nuclear antibody
b) immune complexes
c) complement (C3)
d) anti-DNA - Tissue injury in systemic rheumatic disorders such as systemic lupus erythematosus is thought to be caused by:
a) cytotoxic T cells
b) IgE activity
c) deposition of immune complexes
d) cytolytic antibodies - High titers of anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies are most often found in:
a) Graves disease
b) systemic lupus erythematosus
c) chronic hepatitis
d) thyroid disease - Which of the following is an organ-specific autoimmune disease?
a) myasthenia gravis
b) rheumatoid arthritis
c) Addison disease
d) progressive systemic sclerosis - In chronic active hepatitis, high titers of which of the following antibodies are seen?
a) anti-mitochondrial
b) anti-smooth muscle
c) anti-DNA
d) anti-parietal cell - In primary biliary cirrhosis, which of the following antibodies is seen in high titers?
a) anti-mitochondrial
b) anti-smooth muscle
c) anti-DNA
d) anti-parietal cell - Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody is most often associated with this condition:
a) systemic lupus erythematosus
b) celiac disease
c) chronic active hepatitis
d) Goodpasture syndrome - In pernicious anemia, which of the following antibodies is characteristically detected?
a) anti-mitochondrial
b) anti-smooth muscle
c) anti-DNA
d) anti-parietal cell - After a penicillin injection, a patient rapidly develops respiratory distress, vomiting and hives. This reaction is primarily mediated by:
a) IgG
b) IgA
c) IgM
d) IgE - In skin tests, a wheal and flare development is indicative of:
a) immediate hypersensitivity
b) delayed hypersensitivity
c) anergy
d) Arthus reaction - Which immunologic mechanism is usually involved in bronchial asthma?
a) immediate hypersensitivity
b) antibody mediated cytotoxicity
c) immune complex
d) delayed hypersensitivity - Antihistamines like Benadryl®:
a) depress IgE production
b) block antigen binding to surface IgE
c) bind histamine
d) block H1 histamine receptors - The most rapid immediate hypersensitivity reaction is associated with:
a) transfusion
b) anaphylaxis
c) contact dermatitis
d) serum sickness - A monoclonal spike of IgG, Bence Jones proteinuria, and bone pain are usually associated with:
a) Burkitt lymphoma
b) Bruton disease
c) severe combined immunodeficiency disease
d) multiple myeloma - The hyperviscosity syndrome is most likely to be seen in monoclonal disease of which of the following immunoglobulin classes?
a) IgA
b) IgM
c) IgG
d) IgD - Patients suffering from Waldenström macroglobulinemia demonstrate excessively increased concentrations of which of the following?
a) IgG
b) IgA
c) IgM
d) IgD - Which T-cell malignancy may retain “helper” activity with regard to immunoglobulin synthesis by B cells?
a) Hodgkin lymphoma
b) acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
c) Sézary syndrome
d) chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) - Which of the following is an important marker for the presence of immature B cells in patients with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)?
a) terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)
b) adenosine deaminase
c) G6PD
d) purine nucleoside phosphorylase - Which of the following are true statements about selective IgA deficiency?
a) associated with a decreased incidence of allergic manifestations
b) high concentration of secretory component in the saliva
c) associated with an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases
d) found in approximately 1 out of every 50 persons - Which of the following is the most common humoral immune deficiency disease?
a) Bruton agammaglobulinemia
b) IgG deficiency
c) selective IgA deficiency
d) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome - Immunodeficiency with thrombocytopenia and eczema is often referred to as:
a) DiGeorge syndrome
b) Bruton agammaglobulinemia
c) ataxia telangiectasia
d) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome - Hereditary deficiency of early complement components (C1, C4 and C2) is associated with:
a) pneumococcal septicemia
b) small bowel obstruction
c) lupus erythematosus like syndrome
d) gonococcemia - Hereditary deficiency of late complement components (C5, C6, C7 or C8) can be associated with which of the following conditions?
a) pneumococcal septicemia
b) small bowel obstruction
c) systemic lupus erythematosus
d) a systemic Neisseria infection if exposed - Combined immunodeficiency disease with loss of muscle coordination is referred to as:
a) DiGeorge syndrome
b) Bruton agammaglobulinemia
c) ataxia telangiectasia
d) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome - A patient with a B-cell deficiency will most likely exhibit:
a) decreased phagocytosis
b) increased bacterial infections
c) decreased complement levels
d) increased complement levels - A marked decrease in the CD4 lymphocytes and decrease in the CD4/CD8 ratio:
a) is diagnostic for bacterial septicemia
b) may be seen in most hereditary immunodeficiency disorders
c) is associated with a viral induced immunodeficiency
d) is only seen in patients with advanced disseminated cancer - Which is a recognized theory of the origin of autoimmunity?
a) enhanced regulatory T-cell function
b) diminished helper T-cell activity
c) production of antibodies that cross-react with tissue components
d) deficient B-cell activation - An example of an organ specific disease with autoimmune antibodies is:
a) Wegener granulomatosus
b) rheumatoid arthritis
c) Hashimoto thyroiditis
d) systemic lupus erythematosus - 31. Which of the following best describes Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID)?
a) An acquired immunodeficiency caused by HIV infection
b) A primary immunodeficiency marked by low immunoglobulin levels and recurrent infections
c) An autoimmune disease affecting the thyroid
d) A hypersensitivity reaction type - Which gene mutation is most commonly associated with X-linked Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (X-SCID)?
a) Mutation in RAG-1/2
b) Mutation in IL2RG (common gamma chain)
c) Mutation in ADA (Adenosine Deaminase)
d) Mutation in CD40 ligand - Which of the following is a characteristic feature of secondary immunodeficiency?
a) Inherited mutations impairing B cell development
b) Caused by external factors like malnutrition, infection, or medications
c) Present from birth
d) Always permanent - Which of the following is not a typical cause of secondary immunodeficiency?
a) Chemotherapy
b) Malnutrition
c) Genetic mutation in T-cell receptor genes
d) HIV infection - In autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome type 3 (APS-3), which of these conditions is always involved?
a) Addison’s disease
b) Autoimmune thyroiditis
c) Vitiligo
d) Hypoparathyroidism - Which of the following is organ-specific autoimmune disease?
a) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
b) Type I diabetes mellitus
c) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Sjögren’s syndrome - What is a key clinical manifestation of Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)?
a) Failure to produce immunoglobulins
b) Deficiency in oxidative burst in neutrophils leading to recurrent skin and deep-tissue abscesses
c) Overproduction of IgE
d) Destruction of thyroid tissue - Which immunodeficiency disorder involves very high IgE and characteristic recurrent skin abscesses?
a) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
b) Hyper-IgE syndrome
c) DiGeorge syndrome
d) Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia - Which of the following statements is true about autoimmune diseases?
a) They can be transmitted by infection from person to person
b) They always affect multiple organs only
c) They result from a breakdown in self-tolerance
d) They are cured easily with short-term treatment - Which of the following autoimmune diseases is systemic (non-organ specific)?
a) Graves’ disease
b) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
c) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
d) Type I diabetes mellitus - Which defect is characteristic of DiGeorge syndrome?
a) Lack of B cell maturation
b) Absence or hypoplasia of the thymus leading to T cell deficiency
c) Defective NADPH oxidase in neutrophils
d) Overproduction of IgM - Which hypersensitivity type is primarily mediated by immune complex deposition?
a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) Type IV - Which of the following is a common clinical sign in primary immunodeficiency disorders affecting B cells?
a) Recurrent viral infections
b) Recurrent bacterial infections of sinuses, ears, lungs
c) Granulomas in multiple organs
d) Delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions - Which disease is associated with both immunodeficiency and autoimmunity features?
a) AIDS only
b) Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID)
c) Type I hypersensitivity alone
d) Graves’ disease - A defect in adenosine deaminase (ADA) leads to which immunodeficiency?
a) Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia
b) Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)
c) Hyper IgM syndrome
d) Complement deficiency - Which autoimmune condition is characterized by antibodies targeting thyroid-stimulating hormone receptors, causing hyperthyroidism?
a) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
b) Graves’ disease
c) Addison’s disease
d) Type I Diabetes Mellitus - Which of the following is a secondary immunodeficiency?
a) X-linked agammaglobulinemia
b) DiGeorge syndrome
c) AIDS
d) Severe Combined Immunodeficiency - What is the major defect in Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome?
a) T cell receptor mutation
b) Platelet defects plus immunodeficiency and eczema
c) B cell deficiency only
d) High IgE levels exclusively - The CH50 assay is used to assess which part of the immune system?
a) B cell antibody production
b) T cell mediated immunity
c) Complement system function
d) Phagocyte oxidative burst - Which of the following is not an example of organ-specific autoimmune disease?
a) Type I diabetes mellitus
b) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
c) Systemic lupus erythematosus
d) Addison’s disease - The ability of the immune system to recognize self-antigens versus nonself antigens is an example of:
a) specific immunity
b) tolerance
c) cell-mediated immunity
d) humoral immunity - A 2-year-old patient is suspected to have a peanut allergy. What in vitro diagnostic test would confirm this type of allergy?
a) total serum IgG and allergen specific IgG
b) total serum IgA and allergen specific IgA
c) total serum IgE and allergen specific IgE
d) total serum IgM and allergen specific IgM - Cells from a patient with hairy cell leukemia have immunologic features of:
a) mast cells and B lymphocytes
b) B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes
c) granulocytes and monocytes
d) B lymphocytes and monocytes - Which of the following is a true statement about Bruton agammaglobulinemia?
a) it is found only in females
b) there are normal numbers of circulating B cells
c) there are decreased to absent concentrations of immunoglobulins
d) the disease presents with pyogenic infections 1 week after birth - Which of the following has been associated with patients who have homozygous C3 deficiency?
a) undetectable hemolytic complement activity in the serum
b) systemic lupus erythematosus
c) no detectable disease
d) a lifelong history of life-threatening infections - Delayed hypersensitivity may be induced by:
a) contact sensitivity to inorganic chemicals
b) transfusion reaction
c) anaphylactic reaction
d) bacterial septicemia - Which immunologic mechanism is involved in Goodpasture syndrome?
a) immediate hypersensitivity
b) antibody mediated cytotoxicity
c) immune complex deposition
d) delayed hypersensitivity - A patient’s abnormal lymphocytes are positive for CD2 antigen, lack C3 receptors, and are negative for surface immunoglobulin. This can be classified as a disorder of:
a) T cells
b) B cells
c) monocytes
d) natural killer cells - Which of the following is NOT a mechanism involved in the complement cascade?
a) apoptosis
b) opsonization
c) inflammation
d) cytolysis - Which cytokine, when produced by Th2 cells, can stimulate B cells to produce IgE and is a major contributor to allergic reactions?
a) Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
b) Interferon-gamma (IFN-γ)
c) Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
d) Tumor Necrosis Factor-alpha (TNF-α) - The tissue damage in contact dermatitis is primarily caused by:
a) IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation
b) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
c) Immune complex deposition
d) Activation of the alternative complement pathway - A biological false-positive VDRL reaction is most frequently encountered in patients with:
a) Gonorrhea
b) Tertiary syphilis
c) Lupus erythematosus
d) HIV/AIDS - Which of the following is characterized by a triad of immunodeficiency, thrombocytopenia, and eczema?
a) DiGeorge syndrome
b) Ataxia-telangiectasia
c) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
d) Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) - In a Type II hypersensitivity reaction, the primary method of tissue destruction is:
a) Release of histamine from basophils
b) Formation of immune complexes
c) Direct cell lysis by complement or effector cells
d) Activation of macrophages by T-cells - A positive test for rheumatoid factor is most often associated with which immunoglobulin class?
a) IgE
b) IgA
c) IgM
d) IgG - Which of the following is a feature of a secondary immune response compared to a primary response?
a) A longer lag phase
b) Predominant production of IgM
c) A higher titer of antibody
d) A shorter duration of elevated antibody levels - Graft-versus-host disease is initiated by:
a) The recipient’s immune system attacking the donor graft
b) Pre-formed antibodies in the recipient
c) Immunosuppressive therapy
d) The donor’s immune cells attacking the recipient’s tissues - The “window period” in hepatitis B infection is characterized by:
a) Presence of HBsAg and HBeAg
b) Presence of anti-HBs and anti-HBe
c) Presence of IgM anti-HBc only
d) Absence of all serological markers - A positive FTA-ABS test with a “beaded” pattern of fluorescence is indicative of a:
a) True-positive syphilis diagnosis
b) Biological false-positive reaction
c) Late latent syphilis
d) Primary syphilis - The QuantiFERON-TB Gold test measures the release of interferon-gamma (IFN-γ) by which type of cells in response to M. tuberculosis antigens?
a) B cells
b) Macrophages
c) T cells
d) Neutrophils
Answer Key
Answer Key:
- b) Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)
- b) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
- c) Four
- a) Type I
- a) Type I
- b) Autoimmune disease
- b) Muscles
- c) IgG
- b) Type 1 Diabetes mellitus
- b) Hemolytic anemia
- c) Joints
- c) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
- c) AIDS
- b) CD4+ T cells
- a) ELISA and Western blot
- d) Type IV
- c) Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)
- c) Type III
- a) Hypothyroidism
- a) Multiple sclerosis
- c) Intrinsic factor
- b) Contact dermatitis
- b) Rheumatoid arthritis
- a) Sjögren’s syndrome
- b) DiGeorge syndrome
- d) Type IV
- b) Myasthenia gravis
- a) Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia
- c) Type III
- a) Eczema, thrombocytopenia, recurrent infections
- b) decreased activity of C1 esterase inhibitor
- a) high titers of ANA
- c) complement (C3)
- c) deposition of immune complexes
- d) thyroid disease
- d) thyroid disease
- b) anti-smooth muscle
- a) anti-mitochondrial
- d) Goodpasture syndrome
- d) anti-parietal cell
- d) IgE
- a) immediate hypersensitivity
- a) immediate hypersensitivity
- d) block H1 histamine receptors
- b) anaphylaxis
- d) multiple myeloma
- b) IgM
- c) IgM
- c) Sézary syndrome
- a) terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)
- c) associated with an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases
- c) selective IgA deficiency
- d) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
- c) lupus erythematosus like syndrome
- d) a systemic Neisseria infection if exposed
- c) ataxia telangiectasia
- b) increased bacterial infections
- c) is associated with a viral induced immunodeficiency
- c) production of antibodies that cross-react with tissue components
- c) Hashimoto thyroiditis
- b) A primary immunodeficiency marked by low immunoglobulin levels and recurrent infections
- b) Mutation in IL2RG (common gamma chain)
- b) Caused by external factors like malnutrition, infection, or medications
- c) Genetic mutation in T-cell receptor genes
- b) Autoimmune thyroiditis
- b) Type I diabetes mellitus
- b) Deficiency in oxidative burst in neutrophils leading to recurrent skin and deep-tissue abscesses
- b) Hyper-IgE syndrome
- c) They result from a breakdown in self-tolerance
- c) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
- b) Absence or hypoplasia of the thymus leading to T cell deficiency
- c) Type III
- b) Recurrent bacterial infections of sinuses, ears, lungs
- b) Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID)
- b) Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)
- b) Graves’ disease
- c) AIDS
- b) Platelet defects plus immunodeficiency and eczema
- c) Complement system function
- c) Systemic lupus erythematosus
- b) tolerance
- c) total serum IgE and allergen specific IgE
- d) B lymphocytes and monocytes
- c) there are decreased to absent concentrations of immunoglobulins
- (((b) systemic lupus erythematosus))
- a) contact sensitivity to inorganic chemicals
- b) antibody mediated cytotoxicity
- a) T cells
- a) apoptosis
- c) Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
- b) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
- c) Lupus erythematosus
- c) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
- c) Direct cell lysis by complement or effector cells
- c) IgM
- c) A higher titer of antibody
- d) The donor’s immune cells attacking the recipient’s tissues
- c) Presence of IgM anti-HBc only
- a) True-positive syphilis diagnosis
- c) T cells
Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams:
Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams that are recognized globally and can help professionals validate their credentials and enhance their career opportunities:
1. ASCP – American Society for Clinical Pathology (USA)
- Exam Name: MLS(ASCP)
- Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree with clinical laboratory experience.
- Global Recognition: High
- Purpose: Certifies Medical Laboratory Scientists in the United States and internationally.
2. AMT – American Medical Technologists (USA)
- Exam Name: MLT(AMT) or MT(AMT)
- Eligibility: Academic and/or work experience in medical laboratory technology.
- Global Recognition: Moderate
- Purpose: Credentialing for medical technologists and technicians.
3. AIMS – Australian Institute of Medical and Clinical Scientists
- Exam Name: AIMS Certification Exam
- Eligibility: Assessment of qualifications and work experience.
- Recognition: Required for practice in Australia.
- Purpose: Certification and registration in Australia.
4. CSMLS – Canadian Society for Medical Laboratory Science
- Exam Name: CSMLS General or Subject-specific Exams
- Eligibility: Graduation from a CSMLS-accredited program or equivalent.
- Recognition: Canada
- Purpose: Entry-to-practice certification in Canada.
5. IBMS – Institute of Biomedical Science (UK)
- Exam Name: Registration and Specialist Portfolio Assessment
- Eligibility: Accredited degree and lab experience.
- Recognition: UK and some Commonwealth countries.
- Purpose: Biomedical Scientist registration with the HCPC (UK).
6. HAAD / DOH – Department of Health, Abu Dhabi (UAE)
- Exam Name: DOH/HAAD License Exam
- Eligibility: Degree in medical laboratory science and experience.
- Recognition: UAE (Abu Dhabi)
- Purpose: Licensure for medical laboratory practice in Abu Dhabi.
7. DHA – Dubai Health Authority (UAE)
- Exam Name: DHA License Exam for Medical Laboratory Technologists
- Eligibility: Relevant degree and experience.
- Recognition: Dubai, UAE
- Purpose: Professional license for clinical laboratory practice in Dubai.
8. MOH – Ministry of Health (Gulf Countries like UAE, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait)
- Exam Name: MOH License Exam
- Eligibility: BSc/Diploma in Medical Laboratory + experience.
- Recognition: Varies by country.
- Purpose: Required for practicing in public and private sector labs.
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