Test your knowledge with our free Parasitology in Microbiology Mock Test , featuring 60 carefully crafted multiple-choice questions (MCQs) with detailed explanations. This realistic practice exam simulates the format and difficulty of certification tests like ASCP MLS, AMT MLT/MT, AIMS, CSMLS, IBMS, HAAD/DOH, DHA, and MOH . Covering analytic procedures, specimen handling, preservation, staining, and parasite identification, this mock test helps you assess your readiness, improve speed, and strengthen weak areas before the real exam.
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ASCP MLS Exam MCQs Chapter 19
Boost your exam readiness with our free online Mock Test designed for medical laboratory science, microbiology, hematology, and clinical chemistry certification exams. This timed, exam-style practice test simulates the real ASCP MLS, AMT, AIMS, CSMLS, IBMS, HAAD, DHA, and MOH testing environment. Each question comes with instant scoring, detailed explanations, and references to strengthen your understanding and improve speed. Ideal for self-assessment, targeted revision, and building confidence before your actual exam.
🔹 Simulate the Real Exam : Beat test-day nerves with timed conditions.
🔹 Track Your Progress : Review performance analytics to identify strengths and weaknesses.
🔹 Master Time Management : Sharpen your pacing skills under pressure.
🔹 Learn from Mistakes : Detailed answer explanations help you refine your understanding.
Ideal for final readiness checks , this mock test ensures you walk into the exam prepared, confident, and ready to excel! 🚀
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ASCP Exam Questions
The term “internal autoinfection” is associated with which parasitic infection?
Internal autoinfection occurs when larvae of Strongyloides stercoralis mature inside the host’s intestine and then penetrate the intestinal wall (or perianal skin) without leaving the body.
This allows the parasite to maintain infection for years without new exposure from the environment.
It can lead to hyperinfection syndrome , especially in immunocompromised individuals.
Why not the others?
Ascaris lumbricoides → Requires external soil maturation of eggs.
Necator americanus (hookworm ) → Needs external skin penetration by larvae from soil.
Trichuris trichiura (whipworm ) → No autoinfection; requires ingestion of mature eggs from the environment.
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ASCP Exam Questions
In permanent stained smears, Entamoeba histolytica is identified by:
In permanent stained smears (like trichrome stain), Entamoeba histolytica trophozoites can be identified by the presence of ingested red blood cells (RBCs) inside their cytoplasm — a key feature that helps differentiate it from nonpathogenic amoebae like Entamoeba dispar .
b) Large karyosome with no chromatin → not characteristic of E. histolytica .
c) Flagella → E. histolytica is an amoeba, no flagella.
d) Polar filaments → feature of Trichomonas vaginalis trophozoites, not amoebae.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Thick blood smears are preferred over thin smears for malaria detection because they:
Thick blood smears concentrate a larger volume of blood into a smaller area by lysing RBCs during staining.
This makes it easier to detect even low levels of parasitemia , since more parasites are present in the field of view.
However, species identification is more difficult on thick smears — that’s why thin smears are used for precise species differentiation.
Why not the others?
a) Enhance parasite staining → Staining is not inherently “enhanced” by thickness; it’s the concentration that matters.
c) Remove platelet artifacts → Not the main purpose.
d) Differentiate species easily → Thick smears are worse for species ID; thin smears are better for that.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The Baermann technique is most useful for detecting:
The Baermann technique uses warm water to stimulate larvae to actively migrate out of the stool sample into the surrounding fluid, concentrating them for detection. It’s especially useful for detecting Strongyloides stercoralis larvae.
a) Helminth eggs → detected by sedimentation or flotation methods, not Baermann.
c) Coccidian oocysts → detected by acid-fast staining.
d) Microsporidia spores → detected by special stains or PCR.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Chagas disease is transmitted by:
Chagas disease (American trypanosomiasis) is caused by Trypanosoma cruzi and transmitted primarily by:
Reduviid bugs (Triatominae) , also called “kissing bugs,” which defecate near the bite wound, allowing the parasite (in feces) to enter the host’s bloodstream.
Why Not Other Options? a) Anopheles mosquito : Transmits Plasmodium (malaria), not T. cruzi .
b) Ixodes tick : Transmits Lyme disease (Borrelia burgdorferi ) and babesiosis.
d) Aedes mosquito : Transmits dengue, Zika, and yellow fever viruses.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The formalin-ethyl acetate concentration method improves detection by:
The formalin-ethyl acetate concentration method is designed to separate parasites (eggs, cysts, larvae) from fecal debris by sedimentation. This reduces debris and concentrates the parasites in the sediment, improving detection under the microscope.
a) Killing motile forms → killing can happen but it’s not the purpose or a benefit.
c) Concentrating bacterial flora → this is not desired and not the aim.
d) Enhancing color contrast → staining does that, not concentration method.
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ASCP Exam Questions
How is Trichomonas vaginalis primarily transmitted?
Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellated protozoan that causes trichomoniasis, a common sexually transmitted infection.
It is transmitted primarily through vaginal, penile, or urethral contact during sex .
The organism exists only as a trophozoite (no cyst stage), so survival outside the host is limited — direct person-to-person transmission is essential.
Why not the others?
Fecal-oral route → Common for intestinal protozoa (e.g., Giardia , Entamoeba ), not T. vaginalis .
Inhalation of cysts → Applies to some free-living amoebae or fungi, not T. vaginalis .
Skin penetration → Seen in parasites like hookworms and Strongyloides , not T. vaginalis .
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ASCP Exam Questions
Hymenolepis nana infection is confirmed by finding eggs in:
Hymenolepis nana (dwarf tapeworm) infection is diagnosed by identifying its characteristic eggs in stool samples . Here’s why:
Egg Morphology :
Size : 30–50 µm in diameter.
Appearance : Transparent, spherical, with a thin outer membrane and six hooklets inside the oncosphere.
Polar filaments : Visible between the oncosphere and egg shell, a key diagnostic feature .
Life Cycle & Transmission :
Why Not Other Options? a) Blood : H. nana does not circulate in blood (unlike Schistosoma or microfilariae).
b) Sputum : Irrelevant; pulmonary involvement is rare and not diagnostic.
d) Urine : Eggs are not excreted in urine (unlike Schistosoma haematobium ).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which organism causes primary amoebic encephalitis?
Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) is a rare but almost invariably fatal brain infection caused by the free-living amoeba Naegleria fowleri . This organism thrives in warm freshwater environments (e.g., lakes, hot springs, poorly chlorinated pools) and infects humans when contaminated water enters the nasal passages, allowing the amoeba to migrate to the brain via the olfactory nerve1 3 11 .
Why Not the Other Options? a) Entamoeba coli → A non-pathogenic intestinal amoeba, unrelated to CNS infections2 .
b) Dientamoeba fragilis → A protozoan causing gastrointestinal symptoms, not encephalitis2 .
c) Endolimax nana → Another non-pathogenic intestinal amoeba, harmless to humans
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ASCP Exam Questions
Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts are distinguished by:
Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts are uniquely identified by their blue autofluorescence under ultraviolet (UV) microscopy , which is a key diagnostic feature. Here’s why:
Why Not Other Options? a) Acid-fast staining : Cyclospora is variably acid-fast (weaker than Cryptosporidium ), but this is less specific than autofluorescence .
c) Bipolar plugs : Seen in Trichuris trichiura (whipworm) eggs, not Cyclospora .
d) Large size (10–15 µm) : Incorrect; Cyclospora oocysts are smaller (8–10 µm). Isospora belli reaches 20–30 µm
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ASCP Exam Questions
For optimal recovery of Trichomonas vaginalis , vaginal swabs should be:
Trichomonas vaginalis trophozoites are fragile and motile; to maximize recovery, vaginal swabs should be inoculated into culture medium promptly (within 1 hour) to allow trophozoite growth.
a) Fixed immediately in PVA → good for microscopy but kills trophozoites, no culture possible.
c) Frozen at -20°C → kills trophozoites, not recommended.
d) Preserved in formalin → kills trophozoites, unsuitable for culture.
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ASCP Exam Questions
What is the optimal action for a stool specimen received late at night for ova and parasite examination if processing is delayed?
Why not room temperature (a)?
Why not formalin (b)?
While formalin (usually 10% buffered formalin) is an excellent preservative for stool samples, it is typically used when long-term storage or transport is needed. If the lab plans to process the sample the next day, refrigeration is sufficient.
Why not freeze at -20°C (c)?
Why refrigerate at 4°C (d)?
Refrigeration slows bacterial growth and preserves parasite structures (ova, cysts, larvae) for at least 24–48 hours.
This is the standard recommendation by clinical microbiology guidelines (e.g., CDC, CLSI) for short-term delays in O&P processing.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) is acquired through:
Primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) is caused by Naegleria fowleri .
Infection occurs when contaminated freshwater enters the nose (e.g., swimming, diving), allowing amoebae to migrate along the olfactory nerve to the brain.
Why not the others?
Contaminated food → not a transmission route for PAM.
Sexual contact → not involved in its transmission.
Mosquito bites → not relevant; PAM is not vector-borne.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which step in the formalin-ethyl acetate concentration is essential for accurate results?
Proper mixing of the stool sample with formalin and ethyl acetate ensures thorough emulsification and helps separate parasites from debris during centrifugation, leading to accurate concentration and recovery.
a) High-speed centrifugation → standard speed (~500g) is sufficient; too high can damage parasites.
b) Addition of iodine → not part of this concentration step; iodine is for temporary staining.
d) Freezing → not done before processing as it can damage parasites.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which medium is used to culture Leishmania species?
NNN medium (Novy-MacNeal-Nicolle) is the classic and gold standard for culturing Leishmania species. Key features:
Composition :
Purpose : Supports growth of promastigotes (motile extracellular form).
Use : Diagnosing cutaneous/visceral leishmaniasis from clinical samples (e.g., bone marrow, skin biopsies).
Why Not Other Options? a) Blood agar : Used for bacteria (e.g., Streptococcus ) and some fungi, not Leishmania .
b) Sabouraud dextrose agar : Primarily for fungi (e.g., Candida ); lacks nutrients for Leishmania .
d) Chocolate agar : Enriched for fastidious bacteria (e.g., Haemophilus ), not protozoa.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The “cellophane tape” method detects:
The “cellophane tape” method (also called the Scotch tape test) is used to collect eggs laid by Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm) around the perianal area, which are often missed in stool samples.
a) Giardia lamblia cysts → detected in stool samples, not tape test.
c) Strongyloides larvae → detected by stool examination or Baermann method.
d) Ascaris lumbricoides eggs → detected in stool, not tape test.
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ASCP Exam Questions
In a trichrome-stained stool smear, Giardia lamblia trophozoites are identified by their:
Giardia lamblia trophozoites are pear-shaped (or teardrop-shaped) protozoa with two nuclei that look like “eyes” and four pairs of flagella.
In fresh wet mounts , they show falling-leaf motility — a slow, tumbling motion.
In a trichrome-stained smear , the shape and internal structures (two nuclei, median bodies) are visible, but motility is not seen — however, the pear shape is still the key identification feature.
Why not the others?
Ingested RBCs → Characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica trophozoites.
Four nuclei with peripheral chromatin → Seen in E. histolytica /E. coli cysts, not Giardia trophozoites.
Cigar-shaped morphology → Describes Trichuris trichiura eggs, not protozoan trophozoites.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Humans acquire Toxoplasma gondii infection by:
Humans primarily acquire Toxoplasma gondii infection through:
Consumption of undercooked or raw meat (especially pork, lamb, or venison) containing tissue cysts with bradyzoites .
Ingestion of oocysts from contaminated food, water, or soil (e.g., via unwashed vegetables or contact with cat feces).
Why Not Other Options? a) Mosquito bites : T. gondii is not transmitted by arthropod vectors.
c) Inhalation of spores : Toxoplasma spreads via ingestion, not inhalation (though rare lab-acquired cases via aerosols have been reported).
d) Skin contact with soil : Intact skin is a barrier; infection requires oral ingestion of oocysts.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The zinc sulfate flotation technique is primarily used to:
The zinc sulfate flotation technique uses a solution with higher specific gravity, causing lighter parasite stages like protozoan cysts and some helminth eggs to float to the surface for easier collection and identification.
It’s especially good for detecting protozoan cysts like Giardia and Entamoeba .
Other options:
b) Detect motile trophozoites → trophozoites require wet mounts and fresh samples.
c) Preserve morphology of larvae → flotation isn’t ideal for larvae; sedimentation methods are better.
d) Identify microsporidia → special stains are used for microsporidia, not flotation.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Isospora belli oocysts in stool are identified by their:
Isospora belli (now reclassified as Cystoisospora belli ) oocysts in stool are identified by their distinctive ellipsoidal shape and internal structure containing two sporocysts , each with four sporozoites. Key diagnostic features include:
Why Not Other Options? b) Acid-fast positivity : Supports diagnosis but is not unique (shared with Cryptosporidium ).
c) Small size (4–5 µm) : Incorrect; C. belli oocysts are much larger (20–33 µm) .
d) Blue autofluorescence : Reported but not pathognomonic (also seen in Cyclospora )
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ASCP Exam Questions
The emerging adult female worm is used to diagnose:
Guinea worm disease , caused by Dracunculus medinensis , is uniquely diagnosed by:
Emerging adult female worm : The worm creates a painful blister (usually on the legs/feet) and slowly emerges over weeks to release larvae when submerged in water.
Diagnostic method : The worm is identified visually as it exits the skin (often wrapped around a stick during traditional extraction).
Why Not Other Options? b) River blindness (Onchocerciasis) : Diagnosed via skin snips for microfilariae or nodule biopsy for adult Onchocerca volvulus .
c) Elephantiasis (Lymphatic filariasis) : Diagnosed by blood smears (microfilariae of Wuchereria bancrofti/Brugia spp.) or antigen tests.
d) Cutaneous larva migrans (CLM) : Diagnosed clinically (serpiginous tracks from Ancylostoma braziliense larvae); no adult worms are involved.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Nocturnal periodicity is observed in microfilariae of:
Nocturnal periodicity refers to the phenomenon where microfilariae circulate in the peripheral blood primarily at night (peaking between 10 PM and 2 AM), which is a hallmark of:
Key Points: Adaptation to Mosquito Vectors :
The microfilariae’s nocturnal surge aligns with the night-biting habits of their mosquito vectors (Culex , Anopheles , Aedes ).
In the Pacific variant (e.g., Fiji), W. bancrofti exhibits subperiodic (daytime) circulation, matching Aedes polynesiensis biting patterns .
Why Not Other Options?
a) Loa loa : Shows diurnal periodicity (peak microfilariae levels during daytime), coinciding with the biting habits of Chrysops deer flies .
b) Onchocerca volvulus : Microfilariae reside in skin nodules , not blood, and lack periodicity.
d) Mansonella perstans : Microfilariae circulate non-periodically in blood .
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ASCP Exam Questions
Eggs of Schistosoma haematobium are typically found in:
Schistosoma haematobium is the causative agent of urinary schistosomiasis , and its eggs are primarily detected in:
Urine sediment (especially in terminal urine or urine collected around midday, when egg shedding peaks).
The eggs are characteristically oval with a terminal spine , distinguishing them from other Schistosoma species.
Why Not Other Options? a) Stool : Eggs of S. mansoni (lateral spine) and S. japonicum (smaller, rounded) are found in stool, but S. haematobium rarely appears there.
b) Sputum : Not relevant; pulmonary schistosomiasis may occur, but eggs are not typically found in sputum.
d) Blood smears : Schistosome eggs are not detected in peripheral blood smears (unlike malaria or filariae).
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ASCP Exam Questions
The optimal specimen for diagnosing pinworm infection is:
The Scotch tape (cellophane tape) test is the gold standard for diagnosing pinworm infection (Enterobius vermicularis ). Here’s why:
Method : Transparent tape is pressed against the perianal region (best done early morning before bathing ) to collect eggs or adult worms.
Sensitivity : Pinworms lay eggs on perianal folds, not in stool, making stool samples (a) unreliable.
Microscopy : Tape is examined under a microscope for characteristic flattened, asymmetrical eggs .
Why Not Other Options? a) Stool concentrate : Less effective because pinworm eggs are rarely found in stool.
b) Duodenal aspirate : Used for parasites like Giardia or Strongyloides , not pinworms.
d) Urine sediment : Irrelevant for Enterobius diagnosis.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which collection error can cause false-negative results for Giardia detection?
Giardia lamblia trophozoites are fragile and lose motility quickly once the stool leaves the body — especially in liquid or watery stool .
If examination is delayed (more than ~30 minutes), trophozoites may disintegrate, causing false negatives .
That’s why immediate wet mount examination is essential for fresh diarrheal samples.
Other options:
a) Multiple samples → actually increases detection rate.
b) SAF fixative → preserves cysts, so not an error.
d) Trichrome stain → good for detecting cysts and trophozoites (from preserved stool), not a cause of false negatives by itself.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Why is PVA not recommended for antigen detection assays?
PVA (Polyvinyl alcohol) fixative preserves parasite morphology well for permanent stains but interferes with antigen-antibody reactions in immunoassays, inhibiting antibody binding .
This makes it unsuitable for antigen detection assays like ELISA or immunofluorescence.
Other options:
a) Contains mercury → true, but this is a safety concern, not why it’s bad for antigen assays.
c) Causes cyst distortion → not the main issue here.
d) Prevents concentration → concentration is a separate step, unrelated to fixative choice for antigen detection.
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ASCP Exam Questions
In a trichrome-stained smear, helminth eggs are best identified by:
In trichrome-stained smears , helminth eggs are recognized by their characteristic internal structures (e.g., operculum, polar plugs, larval form) and their size and shape .
Why not the others?
Degree of motility → not applicable; eggs are non-motile.
Iodine uptake → used in wet mounts for cysts, not in trichrome staining.
Antibody detection → a serologic method, unrelated to microscopy.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which of the following is commonly mistaken for ova or cysts in a stool specimen?
ollen grains can resemble ova or cysts in stool specimens due to their similar size, shape, and sometimes their layered appearance. They are common environmental contaminants that may accidentally enter the sample during collection or processing.
a) Meat fibers – Usually appear as irregular, fibrous structures and are not typically confused with parasites.
b) Degenerated cells – These are amorphous and lack the distinct morphology of ova or cysts.
c) Dried chemical crystals – Have geometric shapes (e.g., rhomboid, needle-like) and are not biological in origin.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which feature differentiates Ancylostoma duodenale from Necator americanus ?
The most reliable feature to distinguish Ancylostoma duodenale from Necator americanus is the structure of the buccal capsule (mouthparts) in adult worms:
Ancylostoma duodenale :
Necator americanus :
Why Not Other Options? b) Egg size : Eggs of both species are morphologically identical (oval, thin-shelled, ~60×40 µm) and cannot be differentiated microscopically.
c) Rhabditiform larvae shape : Larvae of both species are similar (though subtle differences exist, they are not diagnostic).
d) Geographic distribution : Overlapping (both are global; N. americanus dominates in the Americas, A. duodenale in Mediterranean/Asia, but this is not a biological feature).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which fixative can be used for both permanent stained smears and concentration procedures?
Other options:
10% formalin → good for concentration, but not ideal for permanent stained smears.
PVA (Polyvinyl alcohol) fixative → good for permanent smears but contains mercury, not ideal for concentration.
Lugol’s iodine → used as a temporary stain for wet mounts, not a fixative.
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ASCP Exam Questions
In thick blood films, RBCs are:
In thick blood films , the primary purpose is to increase sensitivity for detecting blood parasites (such as malaria, filaria, or trypanosomes). Here’s why:
RBCs are lysed during staining
Unlike thin films (where RBCs remain intact for morphology), thick films involve hemolysis (lysis of RBCs) during the staining process (e.g., Giemsa or Wright stain).
This releases parasites (e.g., malaria trophozoites or schizonts) from RBCs, allowing them to concentrate on the slide for easier detection .
Why other options are incorrect:
b) Fixed with methanol before staining → Methanol fixation is used in thin films to preserve RBC and parasite morphology, but it would prevent lysis in thick films.
c) Left intact for morphology → This describes thin films , where RBC integrity is maintained to assess parasite stages and species.
d) Used to identify malaria species → While thick films detect parasites, species identification is more reliable in thin films due to preserved RBC and parasite morphology .
Clinical relevance:
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ASCP Exam Questions
What is the primary function of polyvinyl alcohol in permanently stained fecal smears?
Polyvinyl alcohol (PVA) is a fixative and adhesive used in stool specimen preparation for permanent stained smears (e.g., trichrome stain). Its primary role is to help stool material stick firmly to the glass slide , preventing it from washing off during the multiple rinsing and staining steps.
Why not the others?
a) Concentrates eggs → Concentration of eggs is done using flotation or sedimentation techniques, not PVA.
b) Dissolves artifacts → PVA doesn’t dissolve debris; it preserves morphology.
d) Enhances stain penetration → That’s the role of certain chemicals in staining solutions, not PVA itself.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which is the least appropriate method for preserving stool for Strongyloides larvae detection?
Refrigeration reduces larval motility and recovery rates
Fresh stool or short-term formalin exposure is preferred
The formalin-ether concentration technique (FECT) works best with fresh stool or short-term (not prolonged) formalin exposure, as prolonged formalin fixation (e.g., 10-min exposure) reduces larval recovery.
Direct wet mount within 1 hour is also effective because it captures live, motile larvae before degradation occurs.
Baermann concentration relies on larval motility
Evidence from comparative studies
A study found that agar plate culture (APC) , which requires live larvae, detected 95% of Strongyloides cases when using fresh stool, but sensitivity dropped significantly with refrigerated samples
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ASCP Exam Questions
A peripheral blood smear shows banana-shaped gametocytes in RBCs, multiple ring forms, and infection of all RBCs. Which parasite is indicated?
The described findings—banana-shaped gametocytes , multiple ring forms per RBC , and infection of all RBC stages —are classic hallmarks of Plasmodium falciparum infection, the most virulent malaria parasite. Here’s why:
Banana-shaped gametocytes :
Multiple ring forms per RBC :
Infection of all RBC stages :
Unlike P. vivax and P. ovale (which preferentially infect reticulocytes) or P. malariae (which infects older RBCs), P. falciparum can invade RBCs of all ages , leading to high parasitemia and severe disease .
Why Not the Others? b) P. malariae : Shows “band-form” trophozoites and rosette schizonts; gametocytes are round .
c) P. ovale : Infected RBCs are enlarged and oval with Schüffner’s dots; gametocytes are round .
d) P. vivax : Similar to P. ovale but with ameboid trophozoites; gametocytes are round and fill the RBC
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ASCP Exam Questions
The egg of Ascaris lumbricoides is recognized by its:
The unfertilized egg of Ascaris lumbricoides is recognized by its bipolar plugs (mucoid prominences at both ends) and other key features:
Why Not Other Options? b) Barrel shape : Characteristic of Trichuris trichiura (whipworm) eggs, not Ascaris .
c) Thin transparent shell : Seen in Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm) eggs, which are flattened on one side.
d) Embryonated appearance : Ascaris eggs are not embryonated when passed in stool (unlike Ancylostoma or Strongyloides eggs, which may hatch rapidly).
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ASCP Exam Questions
How is Entamoeba histolytica best distinguished from Entamoeba hartmanni by microscopy?
Entamoeba histolytica and Entamoeba hartmanni are morphologically similar, but they differ mainly in size .
Trophozoites of E. histolytica are larger (usually 12–60 µm) compared to E. hartmanni (usually ≤12 µm).
Both have similar nuclear features — a small, central karyosome and fine, even peripheral chromatin — so nuclear appearance alone cannot reliably distinguish them.
Why not the others?
a) Number of nuclei in cysts → Both can have up to 4 nuclei in mature cysts.
c) Appearance of karyosome → Both have a small, central karyosome.
d) Presence of peripheral chromatin → Both have fine, evenly distributed peripheral chromatin.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Visceral larva migrans is caused by:
Visceral larva migrans (VLM) is most often caused by Toxocara canis (dog roundworm) or Toxocara cati (cat roundworm).
Humans are accidental hosts — larvae migrate through organs like the liver, lungs, and eyes but do not mature.
Why not the others?
Ancylostoma braziliense → causes cutaneous larva migrans (skin).
Strongyloides stercoralis → causes strongyloidiasis, not VLM.
Ascaris suum → pig roundworm; can infect humans but typically causes a disease similar to human Ascaris , not classic VLM
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ASCP Exam Questions
Scabies is diagnosed by microscopic examination of:
Scabies , caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis , is diagnosed through microscopic examination of skin scrapings taken from burrows or papules. Here’s why:
Diagnostic Method :
A scalpel or curette is used to scrape the superficial epidermis (especially from interdigital spaces, wrists, or elbows ) to extract mites, eggs, or fecal pellets (scybala).
The sample is placed on a slide with mineral oil or KOH and examined under a microscope.
Key Findings :
Adult mites : Oval, 0.2–0.5 mm, with four pairs of legs .
Eggs : Oval (~0.1 mm) and often found in short, linear burrows.
Fecal pellets : Brownish, round scybala confirm infection even if mites are absent .
Why Not Other Options? a) Blood smears : Irrelevant; scabies mites live exclusively in the epidermis.
c) Stool samples : Used for intestinal parasites, not ectoparasites.
d) Hair follicles : Scabies mites do not infect hair (unlike Demodex mites).
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ASCP Exam Questions
When performing a formalin-ethyl acetate concentration, the top layer after centrifugation is:
In the formalin-ethyl acetate sedimentation technique (a fecal concentration method used in parasitology), the steps are as follows:
The stool sample is mixed with formalin (to preserve parasites).
Ethyl acetate is added, and the mixture is centrifuged.
After centrifugation, the solution separates into distinct layers:
Top layer : Ethyl acetate (used to extract debris and fat).
Middle layer : Fecal debris.
Bottom layer : Formalin with concentrated parasites (this is the layer examined microscopically).
Thus, the top layer after centrifugation is ethyl acetate .
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ASCP Exam Questions
The Kato-Katz thick smear method is used primarily to detect:
The Kato-Katz thick smear method is a stool microscopy technique designed to detect and quantify eggs of intestinal helminths — particularly Schistosoma , Ascaris , Trichuris , and hookworms.
a) Blood protozoa → detected via blood smear, not Kato-Katz.
c) Coccidian oocysts (Cryptosporidium , Cyclospora ) → diagnosed with modified acid-fast stain.
d) Flagellates in urine (Trichomonas vaginalis ) → diagnosed with wet mount of urine or vaginal swab, not Kato-Katz.
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ASCP Exam Questions
The intermediate host for Fasciola hepatica is:
Fasciola hepatica (the sheep liver fluke) requires a freshwater snail as its intermediate host to complete its life cycle. Here’s how it works:
Life Cycle Stages :
Eggs are passed in the feces of definitive hosts (humans, sheep, cattle).
In water, eggs hatch into miracidia , which infect snails (e.g., Galba truncatula or Lymnaea species).
Inside the snail, miracidia develop into sporocysts → rediae → cercariae .
Cercariae leave the snail and encyst as metacercariae on aquatic plants (e.g., watercress).
Human Infection :
Occurs by ingesting raw aquatic vegetation (e.g., watercress) contaminated with metacercariae.
Metacercariae excyst in the duodenum, migrate through the liver, and mature into adult flukes in bile ducts .
Why Not Other Options? b) Fish : Not involved; fish are intermediate hosts for Opisthorchis/Clonorchis .
c) Copepod : Intermediate hosts for Diphyllobothrium latum (fish tapeworm).
d) Ant : Non-relevant; ants are hosts for Dicrocoelium dendriticum (lancet fluke).
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ASCP Exam Questions
When preparing thick blood smears for malaria, fixation is omitted before staining because:
In thick blood smears , fixation is omitted so that red blood cells (RBCs) lyse during staining , which concentrates the parasites on the slide and increases sensitivity.
Fixing would preserve RBCs, but thick smears rely on their lysis to see parasites clearly.
Other options:
a) Parasites are alcohol resistant → not relevant here.
c) It preserves RBC morphology → this is true for thin smears, not thick smears.
d) It enhances antibody binding → not related to thick smear preparation.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Balantidium coli is characterized as the only medically significant:
Balantidium coli is the only ciliated protozoan that causes significant human disease (balantidiasis). Key features:
Why Not Other Options? a) Amoeba : Entamoeba histolytica is the major pathogenic amoeba.
b) Flagellate : Includes Giardia , Trichomonas , and Trypanosoma .
d) Sporozoan : Includes Plasmodium (malaria), Cryptosporidium , and Toxoplasma .
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ASCP Exam Questions
A modified acid-fast stain is used for detecting:
The modified acid-fast stain is used to detect coccidian parasites in stool, including:
Cyclospora cayetanensis
Cryptosporidium parvum
Cystoisospora belli
Other options:
Giardia lamblia cysts → detected by wet mount or trichrome stain, not acid-fast.
Trichomonas vaginalis trophozoites → seen in wet mounts of vaginal/urine samples.
Entamoeba histolytica cysts → diagnosed with wet mount or permanent stains (e.g., trichrome).
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which organism causes hydatid cysts in the liver?
Echinococcus granulosus is a small tapeworm whose larval stage causes hydatid disease (cystic echinococcosis) in humans.
Humans are accidental intermediate hosts , acquiring infection by ingesting eggs from dog feces.
The larvae migrate via the bloodstream, most often to the liver (but also lungs and other organs), where they develop into fluid-filled hydatid cysts .
Why not the others?
Taenia saginata → Beef tapeworm; no hydatid cysts.
Diphyllobothrium latum → Fish tapeworm; causes B₁₂ deficiency, not cystic lesions.
Hymenolepis nana → Dwarf tapeworm; no hydatid cyst formation.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Which stain is most useful for demonstrating microsporidia spores in stool?
Modified trichrome stain (Weber’s stain) is the preferred method to visualize microsporidia spores in stool specimens. It highlights the spores clearly with distinctive internal structures.
Gram stain → not sensitive for microsporidia spores.
Giemsa stain → used for blood parasites, not ideal for microsporidia.
Acid-fast stain → useful for coccidian parasites like Cryptosporidium , but not for microsporidia.
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ASCP Exam Questions
Eggs of Paragonimus westermani are best detected in:
Paragonimus westermani eggs are most reliably detected in sputum due to the parasite’s life cycle and pathology:
Life Cycle : Adult flukes reside in the lungs, where they lay eggs that are coughed up via the bronchial tree. Eggs are either expectorated in sputum or swallowed and later excreted in stool .
Diagnostic Sensitivity :
Sputum examination is the gold standard , as eggs are directly expelled from pulmonary lesions. Concentration techniques (e.g., sedimentation) improve detection.
Stool (a) may contain eggs from swallowed sputum, but sensitivity is lower due to intermittent shedding and dilution .
Why Not Other Options? c) Urine : Not a diagnostic sample for P. westermani (unlike Schistosoma haematobium ).
d) Skin snips : Used for Onchocerca volvulus microfilariae, not lung fluke eggs
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