Ace your Analytic Procedures for Virology exam preparation with our expertly curated set of 60 MCQs designed for medical laboratory professionals. This free practice resource covers core virology concepts in Microbiology, following the latest exam patterns of ASCP MLS, AMT MLT/MT, AIMS, CSMLS, IBMS, HAAD/DOH, DHA, and MOH. Each question comes with detailed explanations, correct answers, and references to ensure deep understanding and retention. Perfect for exam revision, skill enhancement, and identifying weak areas before the test. Prepare smarter and faster—your success starts here!
60 MCQs (1701-1760):
- Which of the following provides a presumptive identification of a viral infection?
a) Cytopathic effect on cell cultures
b) Intranuclear inclusions in RBCs
c) Cell lysis of sheep red blood cells
d) Presence of mononuclear inflammatory cells - The specimen of choice for detection of RSV is:
a) Nasopharyngeal aspirate
b) Cough plate
c) Expectorated sputum
d) Throat swab - The genus of virus associated with anogenital warts, cervical dysplasia, and neoplasia is:
a) Herpes simplex virus
b) Human papillomavirus
c) Cytomegalovirus
d) Coxsackievirus - Encephalitis is most commonly associated with which of the following viruses?
a) Epstein-Barr
b) Herpes simplex virus
c) Coxsackie B
d) Varicella zoster virus - Colds and other acute respiratory diseases are most often associated with:
a) Epstein-Barr virus
b) Adenovirus
c) Coxsackie B
d) Reovirus - The Epstein-Barr virus is associated with which of the following?
a) Chickenpox
b) Hodgkin lymphoma
c) Burkitt lymphoma
d) Smallpox - Which of the following agents is the most common cause of pediatric viral gastroenteritis?
a) Adenovirus, serotypes 40 and 41
b) Norwalk virus
c) Coronavirus
d) Rotavirus - Hantavirus or Sin Nombre virus is a Bunyavirus found in the 4 Corners area of the US (Arizona, New Mexico, Nevada, Colorado). What is the vector?
a) Deer mouse
b) Norwegian rat
c) Domestic canine
d) Ixodes tick - Which type of virus causes severe acute respiratory syndrome?
a) Paramyxovirus
b) Enterovirus
c) Rhinovirus
d) Coronavirus - What is the animal reservoir of West Nile virus?
a) Mice
b) Rats
c) Domestic cats
d) Birds - Which of the following organisms is the causative agent of hand, foot, and mouth disease?
a) Adenovirus
b) Coxsackie A
c) Coxsackie B
d) Human herpes virus 6 - Which one of the following viruses is responsible for the most common congenital infection in the United States?
a) VZV
b) CMV
c) EBV
d) Adenovirus - Which one of the following clinical syndromes is associated with VZV infection?
a) Infectious mononucleosis
b) Shingles
c) Primary CNS lymphoma
d) Burkitt lymphoma - Which of the following clinical presentations is associated with HHV8?
a) Kaposi sarcoma
b) Duncan disease
c) Fifth disease
d) Exanthem infectiosum - In a person vaccinated against hepatitis B virus several years prior, which serological marker would be expected?
a) HBsAg
b) HBeAg
c) Anti-HBs
d) Anti-HBc - The persistence of which marker is the best evidence of chronic HBV infection?
a) HBeAg
b) HBsAg
c) Anti-HBe
d) Anti-HBs - Which of the following statements regarding antigenic shift or drift in influenza is correct?
a) Antigenic drift is due to point mutations in the H&N genes
b) Antigenic drift is responsible for pandemics of influenza
c) Antigenic shift is responsible for seasonal epidemics of influenza
d) Local annual outbreaks of influenza are often due to antigenic shift - This virus is responsible for nearly all cases of infantile respiratory bronchiolitis:
a) Parainfluenza virus
b) Metapneumovirus
c) Coxsackie A virus
d) Respiratory syncytial virus - Which test is the primary screening test for HIV?
a) Serum enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
b) Western blot
c) Quantitative HIV RNA
d) CD4 count - Which of the following HIV tests is the assay for determining response to antiretrovirals?
a) Serum ELISA
b) Quantitative HIV RNA
c) CD4 count
d) p24 antigen detection - Which one of the following is a characteristic of hepatitis B virus?
a) Hepatitis B infects CD4+ T lymphocytes
b) It can be reactivated, causing “shingles”
c) It is an enveloped DNA virus that is primarily a blood-borne pathogen
d) This RNA virus is almost always transmitted by the fecal-oral route - Which laboratory method is most often used for detecting viral antigens in patient specimens?
a) Latex agglutination
b) Direct fluorescent antibody test
c) Gram staining
d) Ziehl–Neelsen staining - The most sensitive method for early detection of viral nucleic acids is:
a) PCR
b) ELISA
c) Immunoblot
d) Viral culture - Which of the following viruses is most often diagnosed using the Tzanck smear?
a) Varicella-zoster virus
b) Influenza virus
c) Adenovirus
d) Coronavirus - The virus most commonly detected in stool specimens for diagnosing acute gastroenteritis in adults is:
a) Rotavirus
b) Norovirus
c) Astrovirus
d) Adenovirus 41 - Which specimen type is best for detecting mumps virus during the first few days of illness?
a) Blood
b) Buccal swab
c) Urine
d) Feces - In measles infection, the appearance of Koplik spots is most likely to occur:
a) Before the onset of rash
b) After the rash subsides
c) Simultaneously with fever
d) Only in severe infections - Which virus is best detected by examining cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) with PCR?
a) Herpes simplex virus type 1
b) Hepatitis A virus
c) Epstein–Barr virus
d) Influenza virus B - Which viral infection is confirmed by the presence of heterophile antibodies?
a) Infectious mononucleosis
b) Rubella
c) Cytomegalovirus
d) Mumps - Which of the following viruses is most frequently associated with myocarditis?
a) Coxsackie B virus
b) Measles virus
c) Hepatitis C virus
d) Parvovirus B19
- Which type of cell culture is preferred for isolation of influenza viruses?
a) Primary monkey kidney cells
b) MRC-5 cells
c) MDCK cells
d) Hep-2 cells - The presence of Negri bodies in brain tissue is characteristic of:
a) Rabies virus
b) Poliovirus
c) Lassa virus
d) Yellow fever virus - For confirmation of rubella immunity in pregnant women, the preferred test is detection of:
a) IgM antibodies
b) IgG antibodies
c) Viral RNA by PCR
d) Hemagglutination inhibition - Which of the following is a common post-measles complication?
a) Guillain–Barré syndrome
b) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
c) Reye’s syndrome
d) Myocarditis - Which of the following viruses is most often transmitted by Aedes aegypti mosquitoes?
a) West Nile virus
b) Dengue virus
c) Hantavirus
d) Zika virus - Which diagnostic technique involves observing giant multinucleated cells in infected tissue?
a) Hemadsorption assay
b) Syncytium formation test
c) Latex agglutination
d) Dark-field microscopy - Which virus is best detected using a rapid antigen detection test on nasopharyngeal swabs?
a) Rabies virus
b) Respiratory syncytial virus
c) Human herpesvirus 8
d) Hepatitis D virus - Which of the following is a double-stranded RNA virus?
a) Rotavirus
b) Hepatitis E virus
c) Coronavirus
d) Poliovirus - Which clinical finding is most closely associated with parvovirus B19 infection?
a) Erythema infectiosum
b) Roseola infantum
c) Hand, foot, and mouth disease
d) Molluscum contagiosum - In poliovirus diagnosis, the preferred method for virus isolation is from:
a) Nasopharyngeal swab
b) Stool specimen
c) Blood sample
d) Saliva - Which diagnostic marker indicates recent hepatitis A virus infection?
a) Anti-HAV IgG
b) Anti-HAV IgM
c) HBsAg
d) Anti-HBs - Next-generation sequencing (NGS) in virology identifies:
a) Antibiotic resistance
b) Unknown/novel viruses
c) Bacterial co-infections
d) Prion variants - Which specimen type is optimal for detecting enteric viruses like norovirus?
a) Whole blood
b) Stool sample
c) Throat swab
d) Urine - A positive cytopathic effect (CPE) in cell culture appears as:
a) Color change in media
b) Cell lysis or morphological changes
c) Gas production
d) Colony formation on agar - Which molecular method quantifies viral load in HIV patients?
a) Western blot
b) ELISA
c) RT-PCR
d) Gram stain - The Tzanck smear is used to diagnose infections caused by:
a) Influenza virus
b) Herpesviruses
c) Hepatitis B
d) Rotavirus - Viral transport medium primarily prevents:
a) Host cell lysis
b) Bacterial/fungal overgrowth
c) Antibiotic degradation
d) Protein denaturation - Which test detects influenza antigens within 15 minutes?
a) Viral culture
b) PCR
c) Rapid immunoassay
d) Southern blot - “Owl’s eye” inclusions in cells are characteristic of:
a) Adenovirus
b) Cytomegalovirus
c) RSV
d) Parvovirus - The gold standard for dengue virus confirmation is:
a) IgM ELISA
b) Viral isolation
c) Rapid test strips
d) Complete blood count - Shell vial culture enhances viral detection by:
a) Prolonged incubation
b) Centrifugation-assisted infection
c) Antibiotic suppression
d) pH modification - Which virus requires electron microscopy for direct detection?
a) Herpes simplex
b) Rotavirus
c) HIV
d) Hepatitis C - Hemagglutination inhibition tests are used to identify:
a) HIV subtypes
b) Influenza strains
c) HBV genotypes
d) HPV variants - A rising IgG titer between acute/convalescent sera indicates:
a) Chronic infection
b) Recent infection
c) Vaccine failure
d) Latent reactivation - Which sample is unsuitable for rabies diagnosis?
a) Saliva
b) Serum
c) Brain tissue
d) CSF - PCR inhibition in stool samples is resolved by:
a) Freeze-thaw cycles
b) Dilution
c) Centrifugation
d) Antibiotic addition - “Negri bodies” are diagnostic for:
a) Rabies
b) Measles
c) Mumps
d) Rubella - Which virus is detected via PCR in CSF for encephalitis?
a) Rotavirus
b) HSV-1
c) HPV
d) Norovirus - Viral neutralization tests measure:
a) Antigen concentration
b) Antibody efficacy
c) Genome copies
d) Enzyme activity - Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) testing requires:
a) Live virus
b) Antibody-bound cells
c) DNA amplification
d) Radiolabeled probes
Answer Key
Answer Key:
- a) Cytopathic effect on cell cultures
- a) Nasopharyngeal aspirate
- b) Human papillomavirus
- b) Herpes simplex virus
- b) Adenovirus
- d) Both (Hodgkin lymphoma) and (Burkitt lymphoma)
- d) Rotavirus
- a) Deer mouse
- d) Coronavirus
- d) Birds
- b) Coxsackie A
- b) CMV
- b) Shingles
- a) Kaposi sarcoma
- c) Anti-HBs
- b) HBsAg
- a) Antigenic drift is due to point mutations in the H&N genes
- d) Respiratory syncytial virus
- a) Serum enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
- b) Quantitative HIV RNA
- c) It is an enveloped DNA virus that is primarily a blood-borne pathogen
- b) Direct fluorescent antibody test
- a) PCR
- a) Varicella-zoster virus
- b) Norovirus
- b) Buccal swab
- a) Before the onset of rash
- a) Herpes simplex virus type 1
- a) Infectious mononucleosis
- a) Coxsackie B virus
- c) MDCK cells
- a) Rabies virus
- b) IgG antibodies
- b) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
- b) Dengue virus
- b) Syncytium formation test
- b) Respiratory syncytial virus
- a) Rotavirus
- a) Erythema infectiosum
- b) Stool specimen
- b) Anti-HAV IgM
- b) Unknown/novel viruses
- b) Stool sample
- b) Cell lysis or morphological changes
- c) RT-PCR
- b) Herpesviruses
- b) Bacterial/fungal overgrowth
- c) Rapid immunoassay
- b) Cytomegalovirus
- b) Viral isolation
- b) Centrifugation-assisted infection
- b) Rotavirus
- b) Influenza strains
- b) Recent infection
- b) Serum
- b) Dilution
- a) Rabies
- b) HSV-1
- b) Antibody efficacy
- b) Antibody-bound cells
Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams:
Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams that are recognized globally and can help professionals validate their credentials and enhance their career opportunities:
1. ASCP – American Society for Clinical Pathology (USA)
- Exam Name: MLS(ASCP)
- Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree with clinical laboratory experience.
- Global Recognition: High
- Purpose: Certifies Medical Laboratory Scientists in the United States and internationally.
2. AMT – American Medical Technologists (USA)
- Exam Name: MLT(AMT) or MT(AMT)
- Eligibility: Academic and/or work experience in medical laboratory technology.
- Global Recognition: Moderate
- Purpose: Credentialing for medical technologists and technicians.
3. AIMS – Australian Institute of Medical and Clinical Scientists
- Exam Name: AIMS Certification Exam
- Eligibility: Assessment of qualifications and work experience.
- Recognition: Required for practice in Australia.
- Purpose: Certification and registration in Australia.
4. CSMLS – Canadian Society for Medical Laboratory Science
- Exam Name: CSMLS General or Subject-specific Exams
- Eligibility: Graduation from a CSMLS-accredited program or equivalent.
- Recognition: Canada
- Purpose: Entry-to-practice certification in Canada.
5. IBMS – Institute of Biomedical Science (UK)
- Exam Name: Registration and Specialist Portfolio Assessment
- Eligibility: Accredited degree and lab experience.
- Recognition: UK and some Commonwealth countries.
- Purpose: Biomedical Scientist registration with the HCPC (UK).
6. HAAD / DOH – Department of Health, Abu Dhabi (UAE)
- Exam Name: DOH/HAAD License Exam
- Eligibility: Degree in medical laboratory science and experience.
- Recognition: UAE (Abu Dhabi)
- Purpose: Licensure for medical laboratory practice in Abu Dhabi.
7. DHA – Dubai Health Authority (UAE)
- Exam Name: DHA License Exam for Medical Laboratory Technologists
- Eligibility: Relevant degree and experience.
- Recognition: Dubai, UAE
- Purpose: Professional license for clinical laboratory practice in Dubai.
8. MOH – Ministry of Health (Gulf Countries like UAE, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait)
- Exam Name: MOH License Exam
- Eligibility: BSc/Diploma in Medical Laboratory + experience.
- Recognition: Varies by country.
- Purpose: Required for practicing in public and private sector labs.
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