Prepare for your laboratory certification exams with 60 free multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on Analytic Procedures for Parasitology in Microbiology. Designed for ASCP MLS, AMT MLT/MT, AIMS, CSMLS, IBMS, HAAD/DOH, DHA, and MOH exam candidates, this practice set covers parasite specimen collection, preservation, staining, and diagnostic techniques. Each question includes clear explanations and references to help you master key concepts, improve speed, and identify weak areas. Perfect for focused, last-minute revision and building confidence before test day.
60 MCQs (1641-1700):
- Which of the following is commonly mistaken for ova or cysts in a stool specimen?
a) Partially digested meat fibers
b) Degenerated cells from the gastrointestinal mucosa
c) Dried chemical crystals
d) Pollen grains - What is the primary function of polyvinyl alcohol in permanently stained fecal smears?
a) Concentrates eggs
b) Dissolves artifacts
c) Serves as an adhesive
d) Enhances stain penetration - Which organism causes primary amoebic encephalitis?
a) Entamoeba coli
b) Dientamoeba fragilis
c) Endolimax nana
d) Naegleria fowleri - A peripheral blood smear shows banana-shaped gametocytes in RBCs, multiple ring forms, and infection of all RBCs. Which parasite is indicated?
a) Plasmodium falciparum
b) Plasmodium malariae
c) Plasmodium ovale
d) Plasmodium vivax - The term “internal autoinfection” is associated with which parasitic infection?
a) Ascaris lumbricoides
b) Necator americanus
c) Trichuris trichiura
d) Strongyloides stercoralis - What is the optimal action for a stool specimen received late at night for ova and parasite examination if processing is delayed?
a) Store at room temperature
b) Preserve in formalin
c) Freeze at -20°C
d) Refrigerate at 4°C - Thick blood smears are preferred over thin smears for malaria detection because they:
a) Enhance parasite staining
b) Increase detection sensitivity
c) Remove platelet artifacts
d) Differentiate species easily - How is Entamoeba histolytica best distinguished from Entamoeba hartmanni by microscopy?
a) Number of nuclei in cysts
b) Size of trophozoites
c) Appearance of karyosome
d) Presence of peripheral chromatin - “Internal autoinfection” is a key feature of which parasitic infection?
a) Ascariasis
b) Hookworm
c) Strongyloidiasis
d) Trichuriasis - Which feature is unique to Plasmodium ovale in peripheral blood smears?
a) Schüffner dots
b) Enlarged RBCs
c) Comet-shaped trophozoites
d) 12-24 merozoites - Which organism causes hydatid cysts in the liver?
a) Taenia saginata
b) Echinococcus granulosus
c) Diphyllobothrium latum
d) Hymenolepis nana - How is Trichomonas vaginalis primarily transmitted?
a) Fecal-oral route
b) Sexual contact
c) Inhalation of cysts
d) Skin penetration - In a trichrome-stained stool smear, Giardia lamblia trophozoites are identified by their:
a) Pear shape and falling-leaf motility
b) Ingested RBCs
c) Four nuclei with peripheral chromatin
d) Cigar-shaped morphology - Skin snips are used to diagnose infection with:
a) Wuchereria bancrofti
b) Loa loa
c) Onchocerca volvulus
d) Brugia malayi - Which stain is used to detect Cryptosporidium parvum oocysts in stool?
a) Gram stain
b) Acid-fast stain
c) Giemsa stain
d) Calcofluor white - The optimal specimen for diagnosing pinworm infection is:
a) Stool concentrate
b) Duodenal aspirate
c) Scotch tape preparation
d) Urine sediment - Humans acquire Toxoplasma gondii infection by:
a) Mosquito bites
b) Ingesting undercooked meat
c) Inhalation of spores
d) Skin contact with soil - Eggs of Schistosoma haematobium are typically found in:
a) Stool
b) Sputum
c) Urine
d) Blood smears - Which feature differentiates Ancylostoma duodenale from Necator americanus?
a) Buccal capsule morphology
b) Egg size
c) Rhabditiform larvae shape
d) Geographic distribution - Balantidium coli is characterized as the only medically significant:
a) Amoeba
b) Flagellate
c) Ciliate
d) Sporozoan - Which medium is used to culture Leishmania species?
a) Blood agar
b) Sabouraud dextrose agar
c) Novy-MacNeal-Nicolle (NNN) medium
d) Chocolate agar - The egg of Ascaris lumbricoides is recognized by its:
a) Bipolar plugs
b) Barrel shape
c) Thin transparent shell
d) Embryonated appearance - Chagas disease is transmitted by:
a) Anopheles mosquito
b) Ixodes tick
c) Reduviid bug
d) Aedes mosquito - The emerging adult female worm is used to diagnose:
a) Guinea worm disease
b) River blindness
c) Elephantiasis
d) Cutaneous larva migrans - Infection with Clonorchis sinensis is linked to consumption of:
a) Undercooked pork
b) Raw freshwater fish
c) Contaminated water
d) Unwashed vegetables - Eggs of Paragonimus westermani are best detected in:
a) Stool
b) Sputum
c) Urine
d) Skin snips - Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts are distinguished by:
a) Acid-fast staining
b) Blue autofluorescence under UV
c) Bipolar plugs
d) Large size (10-15 μm) - Nocturnal periodicity is observed in microfilariae of:
a) Loa loa
b) Onchocerca volvulus
c) Wuchereria bancrofti
d) Mansonella perstans - Hymenolepis nana infection is confirmed by finding eggs in:
a) Blood
b) Sputum
c) Stool
d) Urine - The intermediate host for Fasciola hepatica is:
a) Snail
b) Fish
c) Copepod
d) Ant
- Isospora belli oocysts in stool are identified by their:
a) Ellipsoidal shape with two sporocysts
b) Acid-fast positivity
c) Small size (4-5 μm)
d) Blue autofluorescence - Scabies is diagnosed by microscopic examination of:
a) Blood smears
b) Skin scrapings
c) Stool samples
d) Hair follicles - Infection with Diphyllobothrium latum can cause:
a) Vitamin B12 deficiency
b) Iron-deficiency anemia
c) Cholestasis
d) Protein-losing enteropathy - Primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) is acquired through:
a) Contaminated food
b) Sexual contact
c) Nasal inhalation of water
d) Mosquito bites - Visceral larva migrans is caused by:
a) Toxocara canis
b) Ancylostoma braziliense
c) Strongyloides stercoralis
d) Ascaris suum - Which preservation method best maintains protozoan trophozoites for microscopy?
a) 10% formalin
b) Polyvinyl alcohol (PVA) fixative
c) SAF fixative
d) Refrigeration at 4°C - A freshly passed diarrheal stool should be examined for motile trophozoites within:
a) 15 minutes
b) 1 hour
c) 3 hours
d) 6 hours - Which stool preservative is incompatible with acid-fast staining for Cryptosporidium?
a) PVA
b) Formalin
c) MIF (merthiolate-iodine-formalin)
d) SAF - In a trichrome-stained smear, helminth eggs are best identified by:
a) Internal structure and size
b) Degree of motility
c) Iodine uptake
d) Antibody detection - When performing a formalin-ethyl acetate concentration, the top layer after centrifugation is:
a) Ether
b) Formalin
c) Ethyl acetate
d) Fecal debris - Which diagnostic technique is preferred for detecting microfilariae in blood?
a) Thick blood smear
b) Thin blood smear
c) Immunoassay
d) PCR - Which parasite is most likely missed if a stool sample is collected only once?
a) Enterobius vermicularis
b) Giardia lamblia
c) Strongyloides stercoralis
d) Ascaris lumbricoides - The Kato-Katz thick smear method is used primarily to detect:
a) Blood protozoa
b) Intestinal helminth eggs
c) Coccidian oocysts
d) Flagellates in urine - Which fixative can be used for both permanent stained smears and concentration procedures?
a) 10% formalin
b) PVA fixative
c) SAF fixative
d) Lugol’s iodine - A modified acid-fast stain is used for detecting:
a) Giardia lamblia cysts
b) Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts
c) Trichomonas vaginalis trophozoites
d) Entamoeba histolytica cysts - Which is the least appropriate method for preserving stool for Strongyloides larvae detection?
a) Refrigeration
b) 10% formalin fixation
c) Direct wet mount within 1 hour
d) Baermann concentration - In thick blood films, RBCs are:
a) Lysed to release parasites
b) Fixed with methanol before staining
c) Left intact for morphology
d) Used to identify malaria species - Which collection error can cause false-negative results for Giardia detection?
a) Multiple samples collected over several days
b) Preserving stool in SAF
c) Delaying examination of liquid stool
d) Using trichrome stain - In permanent stained smears, Entamoeba histolytica is identified by:
a) Ingested RBCs
b) Large karyosome with no chromatin
c) Flagella
d) Polar filaments - The formalin-ethyl acetate concentration method improves detection by:
a) Killing motile forms
b) Reducing debris
c) Concentrating bacterial flora
d) Enhancing color contrast - Which is the most appropriate blood collection time for detecting Wuchereria bancrofti microfilariae?
a) Morning
b) Midday
c) Night
d) Anytime - Why is PVA not recommended for antigen detection assays?
a) It contains mercury
b) It inhibits antibody binding
c) It causes cyst distortion
d) It prevents concentration - A patient with intermittent diarrhea should have how many stool specimens collected for O&P exam?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5 - The Baermann technique is most useful for detecting:
a) Helminth eggs
b) Strongyloides larvae
c) Coccidian oocysts
d) Microsporidia spores - Which stain is most useful for demonstrating microsporidia spores in stool?
a) Modified trichrome stain
b) Gram stain
c) Giemsa stain
d) Acid-fast stain - When preparing thick blood smears for malaria, fixation is omitted before staining because:
a) Parasites are alcohol resistant
b) RBCs must be lysed
c) It preserves RBC morphology
d) It enhances antibody binding - The zinc sulfate flotation technique is primarily used to:
a) Concentrate protozoan cysts and helminth eggs
b) Detect motile trophozoites
c) Preserve morphology of larvae
d) Identify microsporidia - For optimal recovery of Trichomonas vaginalis, vaginal swabs should be:
a) Fixed immediately in PVA
b) Inoculated into culture medium within 1 hour
c) Frozen at -20°C
d) Preserved in formalin - The “cellophane tape” method detects:
a) Giardia lamblia cysts
b) Enterobius vermicularis eggs
c) Strongyloides stercoralis larvae
d) Ascaris lumbricoides eggs - Which step in the formalin-ethyl acetate concentration is essential for accurate results?
a) Use of high-speed centrifugation
b) Addition of iodine before centrifugation
c) Mixing the sample before centrifugation
d) Freezing before processing
Answer Key
Answer Key:
- d) Pollen grains
- c) Serves as an adhesive
- d) Naegleria fowleri
- a) Plasmodium falciparum
- d) Strongyloides stercoralis
- d) Refrigerate at 4°C
- b) Increase detection sensitivity
- b) Size of trophozoites
- c) Strongyloidiasis
- c) Comet-shaped trophozoites
- c) Novy-MacNeal-Nicolle (NNN) medium
- a) Bipolar plugs
- c) Reduviid bug
- a) Guinea worm disease
- b) Raw freshwater fish
- b) Sputum
- b) Blue autofluorescence under UV
- c) Wuchereria bancrofti
- c) Stool
- a) Snail
- b) Thin blood smear
- a) Enterobius vermicularis
- b) Intestinal helminth eggs
- c) SAF fixative
- b) Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts
- a) Refrigeration
- a) Lysed to release parasites
- c) Delaying examination of liquid stool
- a) Ingested RBCs
- b) Reducing debris
- b) Echinococcus granulosus
- b) Sexual contact
- a) Pear shape and falling-leaf motility
- c) Onchocerca volvulus
- b) Acid-fast stain
- c) Scotch tape preparation
- b) Ingesting undercooked meat
- c) Urine
- a) Buccal capsule morphology
- c) Ciliate
- a) Ellipsoidal shape with two sporocysts
- b) Skin scrapings
- a) Vitamin B12 deficiency
- c) Nasal inhalation of water
- a) Toxocara canis
- b) Polyvinyl alcohol (PVA) fixative
- a) 15 minutes
- a) PVA
- a) Internal structure and size
- c) Ethyl acetate
- c) Night
- b) It inhibits antibody binding
- c) 3
- b) Strongyloides larvae
- a) Modified trichrome stain
- b) RBCs must be lysed
- a) Concentrate protozoan cysts and helminth eggs
- b) Inoculated into culture medium within 1 hour
- b) Enterobius vermicularis eggs
- c) Mixing the sample before centrifugation
Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams:
Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams that are recognized globally and can help professionals validate their credentials and enhance their career opportunities:
1. ASCP – American Society for Clinical Pathology (USA)
- Exam Name: MLS(ASCP)
- Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree with clinical laboratory experience.
- Global Recognition: High
- Purpose: Certifies Medical Laboratory Scientists in the United States and internationally.
2. AMT – American Medical Technologists (USA)
- Exam Name: MLT(AMT) or MT(AMT)
- Eligibility: Academic and/or work experience in medical laboratory technology.
- Global Recognition: Moderate
- Purpose: Credentialing for medical technologists and technicians.
3. AIMS – Australian Institute of Medical and Clinical Scientists
- Exam Name: AIMS Certification Exam
- Eligibility: Assessment of qualifications and work experience.
- Recognition: Required for practice in Australia.
- Purpose: Certification and registration in Australia.
4. CSMLS – Canadian Society for Medical Laboratory Science
- Exam Name: CSMLS General or Subject-specific Exams
- Eligibility: Graduation from a CSMLS-accredited program or equivalent.
- Recognition: Canada
- Purpose: Entry-to-practice certification in Canada.
5. IBMS – Institute of Biomedical Science (UK)
- Exam Name: Registration and Specialist Portfolio Assessment
- Eligibility: Accredited degree and lab experience.
- Recognition: UK and some Commonwealth countries.
- Purpose: Biomedical Scientist registration with the HCPC (UK).
6. HAAD / DOH – Department of Health, Abu Dhabi (UAE)
- Exam Name: DOH/HAAD License Exam
- Eligibility: Degree in medical laboratory science and experience.
- Recognition: UAE (Abu Dhabi)
- Purpose: Licensure for medical laboratory practice in Abu Dhabi.
7. DHA – Dubai Health Authority (UAE)
- Exam Name: DHA License Exam for Medical Laboratory Technologists
- Eligibility: Relevant degree and experience.
- Recognition: Dubai, UAE
- Purpose: Professional license for clinical laboratory practice in Dubai.
8. MOH – Ministry of Health (Gulf Countries like UAE, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait)
- Exam Name: MOH License Exam
- Eligibility: BSc/Diploma in Medical Laboratory + experience.
- Recognition: Varies by country.
- Purpose: Required for practicing in public and private sector labs.
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