Master Hemostasis for your laboratory certification exam with our comprehensive collection of 163 multiple-choice questions (MCQs). Focused exclusively on Disease States, these practice questions align with the latest syllabi of ASCP MLS, AMT MLT/MT, AIMS, CSMLS, IBMS, HAAD/DOH, DHA, and MOH exams. Each MCQ includes detailed explanations and references to reinforce key concepts. Sharpen your critical thinking, identify knowledge gaps, and build speed with exam-style questions—all for free. Ideal for targeted revision!
163 MCQs (410-572):
- Which of the following is characteristic of Hemophilia A?
A) Factor IX deficiency
B) Prolonged PT and PTT
C) Factor VIII deficiency
D) Thrombocytopenia - Hemophilia B is caused by a deficiency in:
A) Factor VII
B) Factor IX
C) Factor VIII
D) von Willebrand factor - The most common inherited bleeding disorder is:
A) Hemophilia A
B) Hemophilia B
C) von Willebrand disease
D) Factor XIII deficiency - Which lab test is usually normal in classic von Willebrand disease?
A) Bleeding time
B) aPTT
C) Platelet aggregation with ristocetin
D) PT - A distinguishing feature of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is:
A) Normal platelet count
B) Normal D-dimer
C) Decreased fibrinogen
D) Increased antithrombin - Which is a characteristic finding in DIC?
A) Normal PT and aPTT
B) Thrombocytosis
C) Increased fibrin degradation products
D) Decreased thrombin time - Which condition is most commonly associated with lupus anticoagulant?
A) Bleeding
B) Thrombosis
C) Hemophilia A
D) Platelet dysfunction - Lupus anticoagulant typically causes:
A) Decreased platelet count
B) Prolonged PT
C) Prolonged aPTT
D) Decreased fibrinogen - Which test is most useful to confirm lupus anticoagulant?
A) D-dimer
B) Platelet count
C) Dilute Russell viper venom test (DRVVT)
D) PT - Which factor deficiency is associated with both bleeding and thrombosis?
A) Factor V
B) Factor VIII
C) Factor XII
D) Factor XIII - Factor XIII deficiency is best identified by:
A) PT
B) aPTT
C) Urea clot solubility test
D) Bleeding time - A patient with mucosal bleeding, prolonged aPTT, and abnormal ristocetin cofactor assay likely has:
A) Hemophilia A
B) von Willebrand disease
C) DIC
D) Vitamin K deficiency - Vitamin K deficiency results in reduced levels of:
A) Factor VIII and IX
B) Factors II, VII, IX, and X
C) Factor XII
D) von Willebrand factor - The following is used to monitor warfarin therapy:
A) aPTT
B) Thrombin time
C) PT/INR
D) Bleeding time - Heparin therapy is typically monitored using:
A) PT
B) INR
C) aPTT
D) Fibrinogen - Which test is elevated in DIC?
A) Fibrinogen
B) D-dimer
C) Platelets
D) Factor VIII - Platelet aggregation studies are primarily used to evaluate:
A) Clotting factor deficiencies
B) Platelet function disorders
C) Hemophilia
D) DIC - Bernard-Soulier syndrome is associated with a defect in:
A) GP IIb/IIIa
B) GP Ib
C) von Willebrand factor
D) Fibrinogen - Glanzmann thrombasthenia is characterized by a deficiency in:
A) GP Ib
B) GP IIb/IIIa
C) vWF
D) Platelet granules - Which of the following platelet aggregation responses is normal in Glanzmann thrombasthenia?
A) ADP
B) Epinephrine
C) Collagen
D) Ristocetin - Bernard-Soulier syndrome shows defective aggregation with:
A) ADP
B) Collagen
C) Ristocetin
D) Epinephrine - Storage pool disease is characterized by:
A) Absent platelet granules
B) Defective glycoproteins
C) Low fibrinogen
D) Decreased thrombin - A prolonged bleeding time with normal platelet count and PT/aPTT suggests:
A) Hemophilia
B) Platelet function disorder
C) DIC
D) Factor XIII deficiency - A normal PT and a prolonged aPTT corrected by mixing with normal plasma suggests:
A) Lupus anticoagulant
B) Factor inhibitor
C) Factor deficiency
D) Vitamin K deficiency - A mixing study that fails to correct a prolonged aPTT suggests:
A) Heparin therapy
B) Factor deficiency
C) Inhibitor presence
D) Vitamin C deficiency - Which of the following is decreased in liver disease?
A) Factor VIII
B) Fibrinogen
C) Antithrombin
D) Factor V - Which of these coagulation factors is not synthesized in the liver?
A) Factor VIII
B) Factor VII
C) Factor IX
D) Factor X - Acquired factor VIII inhibitors are most often seen in:
A) Newborns
B) Postpartum women
C) Hemophilia B patients
D) Patients with DIC - The hallmark of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is:
A) Decreased vWF
B) ADAMTS13 deficiency
C) Elevated fibrinogen
D) Increased factor VII - The following is typically decreased in TTP:
A) Platelets
B) PT
C) Factor V
D) Fibrinogen - Which is a distinguishing lab feature of hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?
A) Thrombocytosis
B) Elevated creatinine
C) Decreased D-dimer
D) High fibrinogen - Which coagulation factor deficiency causes no bleeding symptoms?
A) Factor XII
B) Factor IX
C) Factor VIII
D) Factor VII - Which test is abnormal in afibrinogenemia?
A) PT
B) aPTT
C) Thrombin time
D) All of the above - D-dimer is a degradation product of:
A) Fibrinogen
B) Cross-linked fibrin
C) Plasminogen
D) Prothrombin - A patient with unexplained thrombosis and normal PT/aPTT may have:
A) Factor XIII deficiency
B) Antithrombin deficiency
C) Vitamin K deficiency
D) Glanzmann thrombasthenia - Protein C acts to:
A) Activate factor V
B) Inhibit fibrinogen
C) Inhibit factors Va and VIIIa
D) Increase thrombin - Resistance to activated protein C is often due to:
A) Protein C deficiency
B) Factor V Leiden mutation
C) High fibrinogen
D) Antithrombin III excess - A defect in fibrinolysis could be caused by:
A) Decreased plasminogen
B) Elevated tPA
C) Increased D-dimer
D) High factor XIII - Which lab finding is typical in primary fibrinolysis?
A) Increased D-dimer
B) Normal platelet count
C) Low fibrinogen
D) Elevated factor VIII - The presence of schistocytes on a blood smear suggests:
A) Platelet disorder
B) Hemolysis from microangiopathy
C) Hemophilia
D) Aplastic anemia
- Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is an example of:
A) Inherited thrombocytopenia
B) Immune-mediated platelet destruction
C) Vitamin deficiency
D) Myelodysplastic syndrome - The drug class associated with acquired platelet dysfunction is:
A) Antibiotics
B) Antidepressants
C) NSAIDs
D) Steroids - Which of the following is true regarding antithrombin?
A) Synthesized by bone marrow
B) Promotes clot formation
C) Natural anticoagulant
D) Activates thrombin - Prothrombin gene mutation G20210A is associated with:
A) Hemophilia
B) Increased thrombotic risk
C) von Willebrand disease
D) Factor VIII deficiency - An isolated prolonged thrombin time suggests:
A) Fibrinogen deficiency
B) Platelet dysfunction
C) Elevated factor VII
D) Warfarin therapy - The primary cause of bleeding in uremia is:
A) Thrombocytopenia
B) Factor deficiency
C) Platelet dysfunction
D) DIC - Acquired platelet dysfunction in uremia is best treated with:
A) Vitamin K
B) Platelet transfusion
C) Dialysis
D) Desmopressin - Which test is most affected in liver disease?
A) PT
B) Bleeding time
C) aPTT
D) Platelet count - A patient with chronic liver disease is likely to show:
A) Increased factor VIII
B) Increased fibrinogen
C) Decreased factor V
D) Normal PT - Which factor is usually normal or increased in liver disease?
A) Factor II
B) Factor V
C) Factor VIII
D) Factor X - A patient with hemarthrosis and a prolonged aPTT likely has:
A) von Willebrand disease
B) Platelet disorder
C) Hemophilia A
D) Liver failure - Platelet aggregation studies in aspirin users show:
A) Normal ADP response
B) Normal epinephrine response
C) Decreased arachidonic acid response
D) Increased collagen response - In DIC, which of the following is typically decreased?
A) PT
B) D-dimer
C) Fibrinogen
D) FDP - Which factor is vitamin K–dependent?
A) Factor V
B) Factor VIII
C) Factor VII
D) Factor XIII - Thrombin time is prolonged by:
A) Elevated platelets
B) Fibrinogen deficiency
C) Increased factor X
D) Normal fibrinogen - Lupus anticoagulant may cause
A) Prolonged bleeding
B) Prolonged aPTT without bleeding
C) Decreased PT
D) Low fibrinogen - Which condition presents with both bleeding and thrombosis?
A) Hemophilia A
B) von Willebrand disease
C) DIC
D) Glanzmann thrombasthenia - The most common cause of acquired coagulation factor deficiency is:
A) Autoimmune disease
B) Liver disease
C) Iron deficiency
D) Platelet disorder - Which test will detect fibrin split products?
A) PT
B) aPTT
C) D-dimer
D) Bleeding time - Factor V Leiden mutation causes:
A) Bleeding tendency
B) Activated protein C resistance
C) Platelet dysfunction
D) Antithrombin excess - The urea solubility test is used to evaluate:
A) Factor XIII deficiency
B) von Willebrand disease
C) Lupus anticoagulant
D) DIC - A thrombotic condition with normal PT/aPTT and low platelets may suggest:
A) TTP
B) Hemophilia
C) Liver disease
D) Factor XIII deficiency - A prolonged thrombin time that corrects with reptilase time indicates:
A) Heparin contamination
B) Fibrinogen deficiency
C) Factor VII deficiency
D) Elevated platelets - The best screening test for von Willebrand disease is:
A) PT
B) aPTT
C) Ristocetin cofactor activity
D) Fibrinogen - Desmopressin (DDAVP) is useful in:
A) Hemophilia B
B) DIC
C) von Willebrand disease type 1
D) Platelet count elevation - Which condition is associated with a qualitative platelet defect?
A) Iron deficiency
B) Glanzmann thrombasthenia
C) Hemophilia A
D) Liver disease - TTP is best treated with:
A) Platelet transfusion
B) Plasma exchange
C) Heparin
D) Vitamin K - Hemolytic uremic syndrome often occurs after:
A) Viral infections
B) Streptococcal infections
C) E. coli O157:H7 infection
D) Antibiotic overdose - Platelet adhesion requires:
A) GP IIb/IIIa
B) GP Ib and vWF
C) Factor X
D) Thrombin - A functional defect in GP IIb/IIIa is found in:
A) Glanzmann thrombasthenia
B) Bernard-Soulier syndrome
C) DIC
D) TTP - Which is NOT commonly decreased in DIC?
A) Platelets
B) PT
C) Fibrinogen
D) D-dimer - A normal thrombin time with prolonged aPTT that corrects with mixing suggests:
A) Heparin contamination
B) Factor deficiency
C) Lupus anticoagulant
D) Antiphospholipid syndrome - In platelet-type von Willebrand disease, the defect lies in:
A) Platelet GP Ib
B) vWF
C) Factor VIII
D) GP IIb/IIIa - The ristocetin test differentiates:
A) Hemophilia A from B
B) Platelet function disorders
C) vWD types
D) Lupus anticoagulant - Acquired inhibitors to clotting factors most commonly affect:
A) Factor V
B) Factor IX
C) Factor VIII
D) Factor XIII - Which factor is most affected by warfarin therapy?
A) Factor V
B) Factor VIII
C) Factor VII
D) Factor XII - Which of the following lab findings is inconsistent with DIC?
A) Thrombocytopenia
B) Elevated fibrinogen
C) Increased D-dimer
D) Prolonged PT and aPTT - Which condition shows reduced platelet aggregation with ADP, epinephrine, collagen, and normal response to ristocetin?
A) von Willebrand disease
B) Glanzmann thrombasthenia
C) Bernard-Soulier syndrome
D) Storage pool disease - Which condition shows thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, and neurologic symptoms?
A) DIC
B) TTP
C) HUS
D) von Willebrand disease - Which condition is often misdiagnosed as idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) in children?
A) Hemophilia
B) HUS
C) DIC
D) Vitamin K deficiency - Heparin therapy can falsely prolong which test?
A) PT
B) aPTT
C) Bleeding time
D) Fibrinogen - Which cellular combination primarily contributes to arterial clot formation?
A) Red cells and granulocytes
B) Platelets and white blood cells
C) Thrombin and Factor XIII
D) Fibrin and leukocytes - Differentiation between hepatic dysfunction and vitamin K deficiency can be aided by evaluating:
A) Factor II and Factor VII
B) Factor IX and Factor VII
C) Factor VIII and Factor IX
D) Factor V and Factor VII - In individuals with chronic liver conditions, which factor often shows elevated levels?
A) Factor VII
B) Factor VIII
C) Factor IX
D) Factor X - A child undergoing prolonged antibiotic therapy exhibits bleeding and multiple factor deficiencies including low factor II and IX. What is the most likely explanation?
A) Congenital factor deficiency
B) Autoimmune inhibitor
C) Hemophilia
D) Impaired vitamin K metabolism - A normal female and a male with hemophilia could potentially have a child who is:
A) A male with the disorder
B) A male carrier
C) A female carrier
D) A female with hemophilia - Hemophilia B arises from a hereditary reduction in:
A) Factor VIII levels
B) Factor IX activity
C) Factor X synthesis
D) Factor XI production - A patient with abnormal PTT, low ristocetin-induced aggregation, and defective platelet function likely has:
A) Hemophilia
B) Bernard-Soulier syndrome
C) von Willebrand disease
D) Glanzmann thrombasthenia - A person develops bleeding symptoms 2 days after a dental procedure with normal PT and PTT. Which deficiency is likely?
A) Plasminogen
B) Factor XIII
C) Antiplasmin
D) Factor XII - Which of the following is a hallmark feature in acute DIC?
A) Increased fibrinogen
B) Elevated platelet count
C) Undetectable D-dimer
D) Reduced fibrinogen concentration - A patient with decreased fibrinogen, prolonged clotting times, low platelet count, and elevated D-dimer is likely suffering from:
A) Liver failure
B) Primary fibrinolysis
C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
D) Inherited afibrinogenemia - A patient has a prolonged thrombin time and elevated reptilase time, suggesting:
A) Dysfibrinogenemia
B) Excess D-dimer
C) Elevated fibrin monomers
D) Heparin therapy - Which condition typically presents with only prolonged aPTT?
A) Factor II, V, or X deficiency
B) DIC
C) Liver impairment
D) Presence of FVIII inhibitors - A severe hemophiliac patient with joint bleeds is likely to have factor VIII activity:
A) Less than 1%
B) Between 5–10%
C) Around 25%
D) More than 50% - What is a typical bleeding symptom in individuals lacking factor XIII?
A) Mild symptoms or asymptomatic
B) Delayed onset of bleeding
C) Major bleeding responsive to desmopressin
D) Severe bleeding unresponsive to any therapy - Amyloidosis is associated with decreased levels of:
A) Factor II
B) Factor V
C) Factor VII
D) Factor X - A valuable triad for diagnosing DIC includes:
A) aPTT, fibrinogen, FDP
B) aPTT, FDP, reptilase time
C) Thrombin time, fibrinogen, aPTT
D) D-dimer, thrombin time, fibrinogen - A factor X assay shows increasing activity with greater dilutions. This pattern is typical of:
A) A true deficiency
B) Poor sample handling
C) Presence of an inhibitor
D) Sample clotting - In lupus anticoagulant syndrome, bleeding may occur due to:
A) Lack of Factor VIII
B) Adverse drug effect
C) Anti-prothrombin antibodies
D) Chronic infection - Individuals with a deficiency of factor XIII often exhibit:
A) Prolonged aPTT
B) Abnormal PT
C) Delayed soft tissue bleeding
D) Frequent hemarthrosis - Newborns with erythroblastosis fetalis typically show:
A) Elevated platelets
B) Increased serum bilirubin
C) High serum albumin
D) Leukocytosis with no anemia - Which severity level of hemophilia is associated with occasional spontaneous hemorrhages?
A) Mild
B) Moderate
C) Severe
D) Acquired - In patients with chronic liver impairment, synthesis of which group is most impaired?
A) Coagulation factors in the common pathway
B) Factors of the intrinsic pathway
C) Fibrin-stabilizing enzymes
D) Vitamin K–dependent coagulation proteins - Which patient group is at risk of developing alloantibodies to factor VIII?
A) Individuals with acquired hemophilia
B) Those with congenital von Willebrand disease
C) Patients receiving frequent factor VIII infusions
D) People with acquired von Willebrand disease - A mismatch between antigenic and functional fibrinogen measurements typically points to:
A) Dysfibrinogenemia
B) Afibrinogenemia
C) Hyperfibrinogenemia
D) Hypofibrinogenemia - In factor XI deficiency, the amount of bleeding:
A) Matches the deficiency level precisely
B) Is unrelated to factor levels
C) Is mild and always present
D) Is usually severe and spontaneous - A neonate with a rare homozygous deficiency of protein C is most at risk of developing:
A) Chronic deep vein thrombosis
B) Skin necrosis from anticoagulants
C) Thrombotic episodes
D) Purpura fulminans - In plasma, protein S becomes inactive when it binds:
A) Complement component C4b-binding protein
B) Activated protein C
C) Total immunoglobulin
D) Platelet-derived growth factors - A middle-aged Ashkenazi Jewish male with prolonged aPTT that corrects on mixing studies most likely has:
A) Factor XII deficiency
B) Hemophilia A
C) Hemophilia B
D) Factor XI deficiency - Unchecked production of both thrombin and plasmin occurs in:
A) Advanced liver failure
B) Vitamin K deficiency
C) Neonatal hemolysis
D) Disseminated intravascular coagulation - A patient presents with low von Willebrand activity, low antigen levels, and critically low factor VIII. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Classic hemophilia
B) von Willebrand disease type III
C) von Willebrand disease type II
D) Hemophilia B - A patient with elevated PT/aPTT, high D-dimer, low functional fibrinogen, but normal antigen levels likely has:
A) Low fibrinogen levels
B) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
C) Functional fibrinogen defect
D) Complete fibrinogen absence - A pregnant woman shows elevated von Willebrand factor, protein C, and FVIII. These results indicate:
A) High bleeding tendency
B) Normal pregnancy-related changes
C) Increased clotting risk
D) A vitamin K deficiency - A man with pancreatic cancer and schistocytes on smear shows critically low platelets and elevated PT/aPTT. The picture suggests:
A) Microangiopathic hemolysis from chemotherapy
B) DIC associated with malignancy
C) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
D) Liver failure - A young adult with celiac disease and GI bleeding is most likely deficient in:
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin K
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin E - Which bone marrow precursor cell produces von Willebrand factor?
A) Myeloblast
B) Megakaryocyte
C) Lymphoblast
D) Monoblast - How long do normal circulating platelets survive?
A) Approximately 5 days
B) About 10 days
C) Nearly 20 days
D) Around 30 days - Aspirin suppresses platelet function by inhibiting:
A) Cyclooxygenase enzyme
B) Lipid metabolism
C) Nucleic acid synthesis
D) Carbohydrate breakdown - The most frequent type of hemorrhage in patients with platelet function abnormalities is:
A) Deep muscle bleeding
B) Retroperitoneal bleeding
C) Mucosal surface bleeding
D) Spontaneous joint bleeding - Which antithrombotic agent specifically inhibits platelet aggregation by targeting GPIIb/IIIa receptors?
A) Hirudin
B) Dabigatran
C) Tirofiban
D) Argatroban - The mechanism by which clopidogrel inhibits platelet function involves:
A) Binding von Willebrand factor
B) Blocking ADP-dependent aggregation
C) Preventing collagen exposure
D) Inhibiting thrombin generation - von Willebrand factor promotes initial platelet adhesion by interacting with:
A) GPIIb/IIIa complex
B) GPIb-IX-V receptor
C) GPIIb/IIa-IX complex
D) Platelet phospholipids - A condition with large, low-count platelets due to a hereditary disorder is:
A) Type 1 von Willebrand disease
B) Glanzmann thrombasthenia
C) Hemophilia A
D) May-Hegglin anomaly - A distinguishing feature of acute immune thrombocytopenia in children is:
A) Male predominance
B) Self-limiting resolution
C) Increased platelet production
D) Bone marrow suppression - The leading cause of bleeding disorders across all populations is:
A) Reduced fibrinogen production
B) Defective platelet function
C) Low platelet count
D) Factor VIII deficiency - After bypass surgery, a patient experiences diffuse bleeding with thrombocytopenia but normal coagulation studies. Most likely cause:
A) Factor dilution
B) Platelet loss from massive transfusion
C) Hypofibrinogenemia
D) Dilutional thrombocytopenia - Severe ADAMTS13 deficiency is a hallmark of which condition?
A) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
B) Hemolytic uremic syndrome
C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
D) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura - Antibodies in heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) are primarily directed against:
A) Antithrombin
B) β2-glycoprotein 1
C) Platelet factor 4 (PF4)
D) Lupus anticoagulant - In patients with polycythemia vera, platelet counts are typically:
A) Severely reduced
B) Within normal range
C) Elevated
D) Inversely related to hemoglobin - A patient presents with joint discomfort, spleen enlargement, and very high platelets. Peripheral smear reveals bizarre megakaryocytes. Diagnosis?
A) Essential thrombocythemia
B) Myelofibrosis
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Hereditary spherocytosis - The most common type of hemorrhage in platelet dysfunction disorders involves:
A) Large muscle compartments
B) Abdominal cavity
C) Skin and mucous membranes
D) Retroperitoneum - The presence of large platelets on peripheral smear may indicate:
A) Bernard-Soulier syndrome
B) von Willebrand disease
C) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
D) Glanzmann thrombasthenia - Decreased levels of all von Willebrand factor multimers indicate:
A) Hemophilia B
B) von Willebrand disease type 1
C) von Willebrand disease type 2
D) von Willebrand disease type 3 - What lab feature helps distinguish Bernard-Soulier syndrome from von Willebrand disease?
A) Platelet count is elevated
B) Presence of giant platelets
C) Absence of ristocetin aggregation
D) Low factor VIII activity - Both Hermansky-Pudlak and Chediak-Higashi syndromes may present with:
A) Abnormal phagocytosis
B) Defective clotting factor synthesis
C) Giant cytoplasmic granules
D) Oculocutaneous albinism - A clinical triad of thrombocytopenia, eczema, and immune dysfunction is characteristic of:
A) Bernard-Soulier syndrome
B) May-Hegglin anomaly
C) Glanzmann thrombasthenia
D) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome - Individuals with which blood group have the lowest levels of von Willebrand factor?
A) Group A
B) Group B
C) Group AB
D) Group O - Which of the following von Willebrand disease types is most prevalent?
A) Type 1
B) Type 2A
C) Type 2B
D) Type 3 - A von Willebrand disease subtype that should not be treated with desmopressin (DDAVP) due to thrombosis risk:
A) Type 1
B) Type 2A
C) Type 2B
D) Type 3 - Which of the following is not part of the diagnostic pentad for thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?
A) Neurologic symptoms
B) Fever
C) Thrombocytopenia
D) Liver failure - A woman presents with scattered petechiae and platelet count of 19 × 10⁹/L. She doesn’t respond to steroids. Most likely diagnosis?
A) Bone marrow failure
B) Aplastic anemia
C) Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)
D) Platelet adhesion defect
- A patient with blurred vision and low platelets (29 × 10⁹/L), along with fragmented RBCs on smear, may be experiencing:
A) ITP
B) DIC
C) Hemolytic uremic syndrome
D) TTP - The most significant distinction between TTP and HUS is:
A) Hemolysis
B) Neurologic dysfunction
C) Thrombocytopenia
D) Schistocyte presence - A newborn presents with purpura and very low platelets. What is the most likely etiology?
A) Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia
B) Vitamin K deficiency
C) TTP
D) Immune thrombocytopenia - The prothrombotic state in TTP results from:
A) Excess thrombin generation
B) Failure to cleave large von Willebrand multimers
C) Platelet overproduction
D) Excess fibrinogen - A hospitalized patient receiving heparin develops thrombocytopenia. What is the first step in management?
A) Start a vitamin K antagonist
B) Continue heparin and monitor
C) Stop heparin immediately
D) Transfuse platelets - A pregnant woman with hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and hypertension is likely suffering from:
A) Preeclampsia
B) HELLP syndrome
C) DIC
D) TTP - von Willebrand factor’s role in coagulation includes stabilizing:
A) Factor IX
B) Thrombin
C) Platelets
D) Factor VIII - A congenital platelet disorder showing impaired aggregation responses but normal platelet counts is:
A) Glanzmann thrombasthenia
B) von Willebrand disease
C) Storage pool disease
D) Bernard-Soulier syndrome - The presence of large, pale-blue inclusions in granulocytes suggests:
A) May-Hegglin anomaly
B) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
C) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
D) von Willebrand disease - A low platelet count is noted during prenatal testing. Smear shows platelet clumping. What should be done next?
A) Repeat sample in sodium citrate
B) Transfuse platelets
C) Start steroids
D) Monitor without intervention - Defective platelet adhesion is characteristic of:
A) Hemophilia A and B
B) von Willebrand disease and Bernard-Soulier syndrome
C) Glanzmann thrombasthenia
D) Factor XIII deficiency - A toddler presents with nosebleeds, normal coagulation tests, and defective aggregation (no response to ADP, collagen, epinephrine). Which condition is most likely?
A) Bernard-Soulier syndrome
B) Glanzmann thrombasthenia
C) von Willebrand disease
D) Grey platelet syndrome - Structural and functional defects in platelets can result in:
A) Quantitative thrombocytopenia
B) Hemophilia
C) Qualitative platelet disorders
D) Alloimmune reactions - Which disorder involves destruction of transfused platelets by recipient antibodies?
A) ITP
B) Post-transfusion purpura
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Neonatal thrombocytopenia - A patient with normal platelet count but no aggregation with multiple agonists (except ristocetin) likely has:
A) Bernard-Soulier syndrome
B) Glanzmann thrombasthenia
C) von Willebrand disease
D) Storage pool deficiency - At what platelet count is spontaneous bleeding most likely to occur?
A) Below 10 × 10⁹/L
B) Below 20 × 10⁹/L
C) Below 50 × 10⁹/L
D) Below 100 × 10⁹/L - Hemolytic uremic syndrome is primarily associated with:
A) Brain ischemia
B) Fever
C) Acute kidney injury
D) Autoimmune hemolysis - A patient on heparin post-heart surgery has platelets drop to 30 × 10⁹/L and swelling in the leg. What is the best next step?
A) Continue heparin
B) Administer fresh frozen plasma
C) Start a direct thrombin inhibitor
D) Switch to LMWH - Uremia often causes bleeding due to:
A) Excess platelets
B) Poor platelet function
C) Bone marrow suppression
D) Vitamin K deficiency - A patient with advanced ovarian cancer and lab results showing thrombocytopenia, elevated PT/aPTT, and D-dimer is likely experiencing:
A) TTP
B) Antiphospholipid syndrome
C) DIC
D) Liver failure - Normal platelet count with prolonged bleeding time or abnormal PFA-100 indicates:
A) Enhanced platelet destruction
B) Dysfunctional platelet activity
C) Reduced platelet production
D) Vitamin K–related factor deficiency - Which of the following is not considered a hereditary vascular disorder?
A) Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome
B) Marfan syndrome
C) May-Hegglin anomaly
D) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
Answer Key
Answer Key:
- C) Factor VIII deficiency
- B) Factor IX
- C) von Willebrand disease
- D) PT
- C) Decreased fibrinogen
- C) Increased fibrin degradation products
- B) Thrombosis
- C) Prolonged aPTT
- C) Dilute Russell viper venom test (DRVVT
- A) Factor V
- C) Ristocetin
- A) Absent platelet granules
- B) Platelet function disorder
- C) Factor deficiency
- C) Inhibitor presence
- D) Factor V
- A) Factor VIII
- B) Postpartum women
- B) ADAMTS13 deficiency
- A) Platelets
- B) Immune-mediated platelet destruction
- C) NSAIDs
- C) Natural anticoagulant
- B) Increased thrombotic risk
- A) Fibrinogen deficiency
- C) Platelet dysfunction
- D) Desmopressin
- A) PT
- C) Decreased factor V
- C) Factor VIII
- A) Factor XIII deficiency
- A) TTP
- A) Heparin contamination
- C) Ristocetin cofactor activity
- C) von Willebrand disease type 1
- B) Glanzmann thrombasthenia
- B) Plasma exchange
- C) E. coli O157:H7 infection
- B) GP Ib and vWF
- A) Glanzmann thrombasthenia
- B) aPTT
- B) Platelets and white blood cells
- D) Factor V and Factor VII
- B) Factor VIII
- D) Impaired vitamin K metabolism
- C) A female carrier
- B) Factor IX activity
- C) von Willebrand disease
- B) Factor XIII
- D) Reduced fibrinogen concentration
- B) Increased serum bilirubin
- B) Moderate
- D) Vitamin K–dependent coagulation proteins
- C) Patients receiving frequent factor VIII infusions
- A) Dysfibrinogenemia
- B) Is unrelated to factor levels
- D) Purpura fulminans
- A) Complement component C4b-binding protein
- D) Factor XI deficiency
- D) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
- B) Blocking ADP-dependent aggregation
- B) GPIb-IX-V receptor
- D) May-Hegglin anomaly
- B) Self-limiting resolution
- C) Low platelet count
- D) Dilutional thrombocytopenia
- D) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
- C) Platelet factor 4 (PF4)
- C) Elevated
- A) Essential thrombocythemia
- C) Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)
- D) TTP
- B) Neurologic dysfunction
- A) Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia
- B) Failure to cleave large von Willebrand multimers
- C) Stop heparin immediately
- B) HELLP syndrome
- D) Factor VIII
- A) Glanzmann thrombasthenia
- A) May-Hegglin anomaly
- C) DIC
- B) Dysfunctional platelet activity
- C) May-Hegglin anomaly
- C) Urea clot solubility test
- B) von Willebrand disease
- B) Factors II, VII, IX, and X
- C) PT/INR
- C) aPTT
- B) D-dimer
- B) Platelet function disorders
- B) GP Ib
- B) GP Ib
- D) Ristocetin
- B) Elevated creatinine
- A) Factor XII
- D) All of the above
- B) Cross-linked fibrin
- B) Antithrombin deficiency
- C) Inhibit factors Va and VIIIa
- B) Factor V Leiden mutation
- A) Decreased plasminogen
- C) Low fibrinogen
- B) Hemolysis from microangiopathy
- C) Hemophilia A
- C) Decreased arachidonic acid response
- C) Fibrinogen
- C) Factor VII
- B) Fibrinogen deficiency
- B) Prolonged aPTT without bleeding
- C) DIC
- B) Liver disease
- C) D-dimer
- B) Activated protein C resistance
- D) D-dimer
- B) Factor deficiency
- A) Platelet GP Ib
- C) vWD types
- C) Factor VIII
- C) Factor VII
- B) Elevated fibrinogen
- B) Glanzmann thrombasthenia
- B) TTP
- B) HUS
- C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
- A) Dysfibrinogenemia\
- D) Presence of FVIII inhibitors
- A) Less than 1%
- B) Delayed onset of bleeding
- D) Factor X
- D) D-dimer, thrombin time, fibrinogen
- C) Presence of an inhibitor
- C) Anti-prothrombin antibodies
- C) Delayed soft tissue bleeding
- B) von Willebrand disease type III
- C) Functional fibrinogen defect
- B) Normal pregnancy-related changes
- B) DIC associated with malignancy
- B) Vitamin K
- B) Megakaryocyte
- B) About 10 days
- A) Cyclooxygenase enzyme
- C) Mucosal surface bleeding
- C) Tirofiban
- C) Skin and mucous membranes
- A) Bernard-Soulier syndrome
- D) von Willebrand disease type 3
- B) Presence of giant platelets
- D) Oculocutaneous albinism
- D) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
- D) Group O
- A) Type 1
- C) Type 2B
- D) Liver failure
- A) Repeat sample in sodium citrate
- B) von Willebrand disease and Bernard-Soulier syndrome
- B) Glanzmann thrombasthenia
- C) Qualitative platelet disorders
- B) Post-transfusion purpura
- B) Glanzmann thrombasthenia
- A) Below 10 × 10⁹/L
- C) Acute kidney injury
- C) Start a direct thrombin inhibitor
- B) Poor platelet function
Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams:
Top 8 Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exams that are recognized globally and can help professionals validate their credentials and enhance their career opportunities:
1. ASCP – American Society for Clinical Pathology (USA)
- Exam Name: MLS(ASCP)
- Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree with clinical laboratory experience.
- Global Recognition: High
- Purpose: Certifies Medical Laboratory Scientists in the United States and internationally.
2. AMT – American Medical Technologists (USA)
- Exam Name: MLT(AMT) or MT(AMT)
- Eligibility: Academic and/or work experience in medical laboratory technology.
- Global Recognition: Moderate
- Purpose: Credentialing for medical technologists and technicians.
3. AIMS – Australian Institute of Medical and Clinical Scientists
- Exam Name: AIMS Certification Exam
- Eligibility: Assessment of qualifications and work experience.
- Recognition: Required for practice in Australia.
- Purpose: Certification and registration in Australia.
4. CSMLS – Canadian Society for Medical Laboratory Science
- Exam Name: CSMLS General or Subject-specific Exams
- Eligibility: Graduation from a CSMLS-accredited program or equivalent.
- Recognition: Canada
- Purpose: Entry-to-practice certification in Canada.
5. IBMS – Institute of Biomedical Science (UK)
- Exam Name: Registration and Specialist Portfolio Assessment
- Eligibility: Accredited degree and lab experience.
- Recognition: UK and some Commonwealth countries.
- Purpose: Biomedical Scientist registration with the HCPC (UK).
6. HAAD / DOH – Department of Health, Abu Dhabi (UAE)
- Exam Name: DOH/HAAD License Exam
- Eligibility: Degree in medical laboratory science and experience.
- Recognition: UAE (Abu Dhabi)
- Purpose: Licensure for medical laboratory practice in Abu Dhabi.
7. DHA – Dubai Health Authority (UAE)
- Exam Name: DHA License Exam for Medical Laboratory Technologists
- Eligibility: Relevant degree and experience.
- Recognition: Dubai, UAE
- Purpose: Professional license for clinical laboratory practice in Dubai.
8. MOH – Ministry of Health (Gulf Countries like UAE, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait)
- Exam Name: MOH License Exam
- Eligibility: BSc/Diploma in Medical Laboratory + experience.
- Recognition: Varies by country.
- Purpose: Required for practicing in public and private sector labs.
Tags:
#ASCPMLS #MLSexam #LabTech #MedicalLaboratory #BOCexam #FreePracticeQuestions #QualityControl #LaboratorySafety
