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MCQ’s Chapter 28 (Lab)

Some of Common Questions and Answers for Laboratory Technicians and Technologists.

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Questions 1351 to 1400

  1. Which of the following electrolytes is the chief plasma cation whose main fuction is maintaining osmotic pressure?
    1. Chloride
    2. Calcium
    3. Potassium
    4. Sodium
  2. The solute that contributes the most to the total serum osmolality is:
    1. Glucose
    2. Sodium
    3. Chloride
    4. Urea
  3. Which of the following is true about direct ion selective electrode is falsely decreased by:
    1. Whole blood specimens are acceptable
    2. Elevated lipids cause falsely decreased results
    3. Elevated proteins cause falsely decreased results
    4. Elevated platelets cause falsely increased results
  4. Sodium determination by indirect ion selective electrode is falsely decreased by:
    1. Elevated chloride levels
    2. Elevated lipid levels
    3. Decreased protein levels
    4. Decreased albumin levels
  5. Which percentage of total serum calcium is nondiffusible protein bound?
    1. 80%-90%
    2. 51%-60%
    3. 40%-50%
    4. 10%-30%
  6. Calcium concentration in the serum is regulated by:
    1. Insulin
    2. Parathyroid hormone
    3. Thyroxine
    4. Vitamin C
  7. The regulation of calcium and phosphorus metabolism is accomplished by which of the following glands?
    1. Thyroid
    2. Parathyroid
    3. Adrenal glands
    4. Pituitary
  8. A hospitalized patient is experiencing increased neuromuscular irritability (tetany). Which of the following tests should be ordered immediately?
    1. Calcium
    2. Phosphate
    3. BUN
    4. Glucose
  9. Which is the following is most likely to be ordered in addition to serum calcium to determine the cause of tetany?
    1. Magnesium
    2. Phosphate
    3. Sodium
    4. Vitamin 
  10. A reciprocal relationship exists between:
    1. Sodium and potassium
    2. Calcium and phosphate
    3. Chloride and CO2
    4. Calcium and magnesium
  11. Fasting serum phosphate concentration is controlled primarily by the:
    1. Pancreas
    2. Skeleton
    3. Parathyroid glands
    4. Small intestine
  12. A low concentration of serum phosphorus is commonly found in:
    1. Patients who are receiving carbohydrate hyperalimentation
    2. Chronic renal disease
    3. Hypoparathyroidism
    4. Patients with pituitary tumors
  13. The primary function serum albumin in the peripheral blood is to:
    1. Maintain colloidal osmotic pressure
    2. Increase antibody production
    3. Increase fibrinogen formation
    4. Maintain blood viscosity
  14. The first step in analyzing a 24-hour urine specimen for quantitative urine protein is:
    1. Subculture the urine for bacteria
    2. Add the appropriate preservative
    3. Screen for albumin using a dipstick
    4. Measure the total volume
  15. Total iron-binding capacity measures the serum iron transporting  capacity of :
    1. Hemoglobin
    2. Cerruloplasmin
    3. Transferrin
    4. Fetrritin
  16. The first step in the quantitation of serum iron is:
    1. Direct reaction with appropriate chromagen
    2. Iron saturation of transferrin
    3. Free iron precipitation
    4. Separation of iron from transferring
  17. A serum sample demonstrates an elevated result when tested with the Jaffe reaction. This indicates:
    1. Prolonged hypothermia
    2. Renal functional impairment
    3. Pregnancy
    4. Arrhythmia
  18. Creatinine clearance is used to estimate the:
    1. Tubular secretion of creatinine
    2. Glomerular secretion of creatinine
    3. Renal glomerular and tubular mass
    4. Glomerular filtration rate
  19. 90% of the copper present in the blood is bound to:
    1. Transferrin
    2. Ceruloplasmin
    3. Albumin
    4. Cryoglobulin
  20. Hemoglobin S can be separated from hemoglobin D by:
    1. Electrophoresis on a diffirent medium and acidic pH
    2. Hemoglobin A2 quantitation
    3. Electrophoresis at higher voltage
    4. Kleihauer-Betke acid elution
  21. On electrophoresis at alkaline pH, which of the following is the slowest migrating hemoglobin?
    1. Hgb A
    2. Hgb S
    3. Hgb C
    4. Hgb F
  22. Urobilinogen is formed in the:
    1. Kidney
    2. Spleen
    3. Liver
    4. Intestine
  23. Kernicterus is an abnormal accumulation of bilirubin in:
    1. Heart tissue
    2. Brain tissue
    3. Liver tissue
    4. Kidney tissue
  24. A stool specimen that appears black and tarry should be tested for the presence of:
    1. Occult blood
    2. Fecal fat
    3. Trypsin
    4. Excess mucus
  25. The most specific enzyme test for acute pancreatitis is:
    1. Acid phosphatase
    2. Trypsin
    3. Amylase
    4. Lipase
  26. Which of the following enzymes are used in the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?
    1. Amylase (AMS) and lipase (LPS)
    2. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
    3. 5′ -nucleotidase (5’N) and gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)
    4. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and lactate dehydrogenase(LD)
  27. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the conversion of starch to glucose and maltose?
    1. Malate dehydrogenase (MD)
    2. Amylase (AMS)
    3. Creatine kinase (CK)
    4. Isocitric dehydrogenase (ICD)
  28. Aspartate amino transferase (AST) is characteristically elevated in diseases of the:
    1. Liver
    2. Kidney
    3. Intestine
    4. Pancreas
  29. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT ) are both elevated in which of the following diseases ?
    1. Muscular dystrophy
    2. Viral hepatitis
    3. Pulmonary emboli
    4. Infectious mononucleosis
  30. The greatest activities of serum AST and ALT are seen in which of the following?
    1. Acute viral hepatitis
    2. Primary biliary cirrhosis
    3. Metastatic hepatic cirrhosis
    4. Alcoholic cirrhosis
  31. Which of the following clinical disorders is associated with the greatest elevation of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme 1?
    1. Pneumonia
    2. Glomerulonephritis
    3. Pancreatitis
    4. Pernicious anemia
  32. The enzyme present in almost all tissues that may be separated by electrophoresis into 5 components is:
    1. Lipase
    2. Transaminase
    3. Creatine kinase
    4. Lactate dehydrogenase
  33. A common cause of falsely increased LD1 fraction of lactic dehydrogenase is:
    1. Specimen hemolysis
    2. Liver disease
    3. Congestive heart failure
    4. Drug toxicity
  34. The presence of which of the following isoenzymes indicates acute myocardial damage?
    1. CKMM
    2. CKMB
    3. CKBB
    4. None
  35. In which of the following conditions would a normal level of creatine kinase be found?
    1. Acute myocardial infarct
    2. Hepatitis
    3. Progressive muscular dystrophy
    4. Intramuscular injection
  36. Of the following diseases, the one most often associated with elevations of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzymes 4 and 5 on electrophoresis is:
    1. Liver disease
    2. Hemolytic anemia
    3. Myocardial infarction
    4. Pulmonary edema
  37. When myocardial infarction occurs, the first enzyme to become elevated is:
    1. CK
    2. LD
    3. AST
    4. ALT
  38. In the immunoinhibition phase of the CKMB procedure:
    1. M subunit is inactivated
    2. B subunit is inactivated
    3. MB is inactivated
    4. BB is inactivated
  39. The presence of increased CKMB activity on a CK electrophoresis pattern is most likely found in a patient suffering from:
    1. Acute muscular stress following strenuous exercise
    2. Malignant liver disease
    3. Myocardial infarction
    4. Severe head injury
  40. Increaseed serum lactic dehydrogenase activity due to elevation of fast fraction (1 and 2) on elctrophoretic seperation is caused by:
    1. Nephrotci syndrome
    2. Hemolytica anemia
    3. Pancreatitis
    4. Hepatic damage
  41. Regan isoenzyme has the same properties as alkaline phosphatase that orginates in the
    1. Skeleton
    2. Kidney
    3. Intestine
    4. Placenta
  42. The most heat labile fraction of alkaline phosphatase is obtained from:
    1. Liver
    2. Bone
    3. Intestine
    4. Placenta
  43. The most sensitive enzymatic indicator for liver damage from ethanol intake is:
    1. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
    2. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
    3. Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)
    4. Alkaline phosphatase
  44. Isoenzyme assays are performed to improve:
    1. Precision
    2. Accuracy
    3. Sensitivity
    4. Specificity
  45. The protein portion of an enzyme complec is called the:
    1. Apoenzyme
    2. Coenzyme
    3. Holoenzyme
    4. Proenzyme
  46. Which of the following chemical determinations may be of help in establishing the presence of seminal fluid?
    1. Lactic dehydrogenase (LD)
    2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase (ICD)
    3. Acid phosphatase
    4. Alkaline phosphatase
  47. Chylomicrons are present in which of the following dylipidemias?
    1. Familial hypercholoesterolemia
    2. Hypertriglyceridemia
    3. Deficiency in lipoprotein lipase activity
    4. Familial hypoalphalipoprotein
  48. Turbidity in serum siggest elevation of:
    1. Cholesterol
    2. Total protein
    3. Chylomicrons
    4. Albumin
  49. TSH is prouced by the:
    1. Hypothalamus
    2. Pituitary gland
    3. Adrenal cortex
    4. Thyroid
  50. The majority if thyroxine (T4) is converted into the more biologically active hormone:
    1. Thyroglubulin
    2. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
    3. Triiodothyronine
    4. Thyrotropoin-releasing hormone

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